Index

The new N10-008 dumps questions 2024 will help you successfully pass the CompTIA Network+ exam.

How to get it is critical. You can download the N10-008 dumps 2024 (PDF or VCE format) here https://www.pass4itsure.com/n10-008.html to prepare for the exam.

Explore the changes in the CompTIA Network++ certification N10-008 exam 2024

There will be several significant changes in 2024 for the CompTIA Network+ certification N10-008 exam relative to 2023, and 2022.

First of all, with the rapid development of network technology, the exam content will focus more on emerging network technologies and solutions, such as SDN, NFV, cloud computing, and the Internet of Things, to reflect the latest trends and requirements of the current industry.

Second, the exam may increase the examination of cybersecurity and privacy protection, emphasizing the importance of cybersecurity awareness and practice.

In addition, the format of the exam may also be adjusted, such as introducing more hands-on sessions such as case studies, simulations, and troubleshooting, to more comprehensively assess candidates’ practical skills and problem-solving skills.

Finally, the difficulty of the exam may be moderately increased to screen out professionals with a truly high level of networking knowledge and skills.

If you’re looking for free CompTIA Network+ N10-008 exam questions, here’s the one for you too.

(Q11-Q20) CompTIA Network+ N10-008 dumps questions for free sharing

Pick up where last time and continue to share the N10-008 dumps questions …

Provider: Pass4itSure
Number of Questions: 15/1059 (Q11-Q25)
Relevant certifications: CompTIA Network+

Question 11:

According to troubleshooting methodology, which of the following should the technician do NEXT after determining the most likely probable cause of an issue?

A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue and identify potential effects

B. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures

C. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary

D. Test the theory to determine the cause

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

A company requires a disaster recovery site to have equipment ready to go in the event of a disaster at its main data center. The company does not have the budget to mirror all the live data to the disaster recovery site. Which of the following concepts should the company select?

A. Cold site

B. Hot site

C. Warm site

D. Cloud site

Correct Answer: C

A warm site is a type of disaster recovery site that has equipment ready to go in the event of a disaster at the main data center but does not have live data or applications. A warm site requires some time and effort to restore the data and services from backups, but it is less expensive than a hot site that has live data and applications.

A cold site is a disaster recovery site that has no equipment or data and requires a lot of time and money to set up after a disaster. A cloud site is a disaster recovery site that uses cloud computing resources to provide data and services, but it may have issues with bandwidth, latency, security, and cost. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-warm-site

Question 13:

A business is using the local cable company to provide Internet access. Which of the following types of cabling will the cable company MOST likely use from the demarcation point back to the central office?

A. Multimode

B. Cat 5e

C. RG-6

D. Cat 6

E. 100BASE-T

Correct Answer: C

RG-6 is a type of coaxial cable that is commonly used by cable companies to provide Internet access from the demarcation point back to the central office. It has a thicker conductor and better shielding than RG-59, which is another type of coaxial cable.

Multimode and Cat 5e are types of fiber optic and twisted pair cables respectively, which are not typically used by cable companies. Cat 6 and 100BASE-T are standards for twisted pair cables, not types of cabling.

Question 14:

A network technician is configuring a new firewall for a company with the necessary access requirements to be allowed through the firewall. Which of the following should be applied as the LAST rule in the firewall?

A. Secure SNMP

B. Port security

C. Implicit deny

D. DHCP snooping

Correct Answer: C

Implicit denial is a firewall rule that blocks all traffic that is not explicitly allowed by other rules. Implicit denial is usually applied as the last rule in the firewall to ensure that only the necessary access requirements are allowed through the firewall

and that any unwanted or malicious traffic is rejected. Implicit denial can also provide a default security policy and a baseline for auditing and logging purposes. Secure SNMP is a protocol that allows network devices to send event messages

to a centralized server or console for logging and analysis. Secure SNMP can be used to monitor and manage the status, performance, and configuration of network devices. Secure SNMP can also help to detect and respond to potential

problems or faults on the network. However, secure SNMP is not a firewall rule; it is a network management protocol.

Port security is a feature that allows a switch to restrict the devices that can connect to a specific port based on their MAC addresses. Port security can help to prevent unauthorized access, spoofing, or MAC flooding attacks on the switch.

However, port security is not a firewall rule; it is a switch feature.

DHCP snooping is a feature that allows a switch to filter DHCP messages and prevent rogue DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses to devices on the network. DHCP snooping can help to prevent IP address conflicts, spoofing, or denial-of-service attacks on the network. However, DHCP snooping is not a firewall rule; it is a switch feature.

Question 15:

A company rents out a large event space and includes wireless internet access for each tenant. Tenants reserve a two-hour window from the company each week, which includes a tenant-specific SSID. However, all users share the company\’s network hardware.

The network support team is receiving complaints from tenants that some users are unable to connect to the wireless network. Upon investigation, the support team discovers a pattern indicating that after a tenant with a particularly large attendance ends its sessions, tenants throughout the day are unable to connect.

The following settings are common to all network configurations:

Which of the following actions would MOST likely reduce this Issue? (Select TWO).

A. Change to WPA encryption

B. Change the DNS server to 10.1.10.1.

C. Change the default gateway to 10.0.0.1.

D. Change the DHCP scope end to 10.1.10.250

E. Disable AP isolation

F. Change the subnet mask lo 255.255.255.192.

G. Reduce the DHCP lease time to four hours.

Correct Answer: DG

Question 16:

A technician is troubleshooting intermittent connectivity on a line-of-sight wireless bridge. Which of the following tools should the technician use to determine the cause of the packet loss?

A. Spectrum analyzer

B. OTDR

C. Packet sniffer

D. Multimeter

Correct Answer: A

Question 17:

A technician is troubleshooting a report about network connectivity issues on a workstation. Upon investigation, the technician notes the workstation is showing an APlPA address on the network interface. The technician verifies that the VLAN assignment is correct and that the network interlace has connectivity. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue the workstation is experiencing?

A. DHCP exhaustion

B. A rogue DHCP server

C. A DNS server outage

D. An incorrect subnet mask

Correct Answer: A

APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) is a feature built into Windows operating systems that allows a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when it is unable to obtain one through DHCP.

When DHCP exhaustion occurs, new clients that attempt to join the network will not be able to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server, and as a result, the computer will use an APIPA address to communicate on the network.

Question 18:

A network manager is configuring switches in IDFs to ensure unauthorized client computers are not connecting to a secure wired network. Which of the following is the network manager MOST likely performing?

A. Disabling unneeded switch ports

B. Changing the default VLAN

C. Configuring DHCP snooping

D. Writing ACLs to prevent access to the switch

Correct Answer: A

The network manager is most likely performing the task of implementing port security on the switches in the Intermediate Distribution Frames (IDFs). Port security is a feature commonly used in network switches to control access to the network by limiting the devices that can connect to individual switch ports.

By configuring port security, the network manager can enforce restrictions on the MAC (Media Access Control) addresses allowed to connect to specific switch ports. This prevents unauthorized client computers or devices from gaining access to the secure wired network.

Typically, the network manager would configure port security to allow only authorized MAC addresses to connect to each switch port. If an unauthorized device attempts to connect, the switch can take actions such as shutting down the port, generating an alert, or applying other security measures to protect the network.

Question 19:

A company\’s users have been reporting excessive latency when connecting to the Internet. The network administration team submitted a change request to upgrade all the obsolete network equipment from 100Mbps to 1Gbps and It was approved. Which of the following documentation types will be needed to measure the success or failure of the upgrade project?

A. Network performance baseline

B. Network configuration documents

C. Equipment Implementation Instructions

D. Inventory management documentation

Correct Answer: A

Question 20:

Which of the following would need to be configured to ensure a device with a specific MAC address is always assigned the same IP address from DHCP?

A. Scope options

B. Reservation

C. Dynamic assignment

D. Exclusion

E. Static assignment

Correct Answer: B

Question 21:

A network engineer configured new Firewalls with the correct configuration to be deployed to each remote branch. Unneeded services were disabled, and all firewall rules were applied successfully. Which of the following should the network engineer perform NEXT to ensure all the firewalls are hardened successfully?

A. Ensure an implicit permit rule is enabled.

B. Configure the log settings on the firewalls to the central syslog server.

C. Update the firewalls with current firmware and software.

D. Use the same complex passwords on all firewalls.

Correct Answer: A

Question 22:

A network administrator walks into a data center and notices an unknown person is following closely. The administrator stops and directs the person to the security desk. Which of the following attacks did the network administrator prevent?

A. Evil twin

B. Tailgating

C. Piggybacking

D. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answer: B

Tailgating represents the situation when an individual without access authorization closely follows an authorized person in a reserved area. The malefactor takes advantage of the moment, when the authorized one opens the door with his badge – and sneaks inside before the door closes.

Piggybacking represents the situation, when someone accesses a reserved area with the permission obtained by deception of an authorized person.

Question 23:

A network technician configures a wireless network that consists of multiple APs for better coverage and allows roaming between the APs. Which of the following types of SSIDs should the technician configure?

A. Basic Service Set

B. Independent Basic Service Set

C. Extended Service Set

D. Distribution System Service

Correct Answer: C

An Extended Service Set (ESS) is a set of interconnected Basic Service Sets (BSS) within a network. It is a network configuration that allows mobile devices to roam seamlessly between different Access Points (APs) within the same network, providing continuous connectivity as the devices move.

Question 24:

A technician is configuring a wireless network and needs to ensure users agree to an AUP before connecting. Which of the following should be implemented to achieve this goal?

A. Captive portal

B. Geofencing

C. Wireless client isolation

D. Role-based access

Correct Answer: A

A captive portal is a web page that is displayed to users before they can access the internet or other network resources. It is commonly used to require users to agree to an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) before they can connect to a wireless network.

Question 25:

During a risk assessment which of the following should be considered when planning to mitigate high CPU utilization of a firewall?

A. Recovery time objective

B. Uninterruptible power supply

C. NIC teaming

D. Load balancing

Correct Answer: D

The recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum tolerable length of time that a computer, system, network, or application can be down after a failure or disaster occurs.

Last N10-008 exam questions Q1-Q10.

More CompTIA exam questions…

About the past and present of the CompTIA Network+ exam

The CompTIA Network+ exam was launched in 1999 to validate all knowledge related to network configuration and infrastructure.

Its original version, the N10-007, has now been retired. The latest CompTIA Network+ exam that is also valid is N10-008.

It has up to 90 questions, a mix of performance-based and multiple-choice questions, and requires a passing score of 720 out of 900. Candidates should preferably have a CompTIA A+ certification and a minimum of 9 to 12 months of work experience as a Junior Network Administrator/Network Support Technician.

Times are changing, and so are the exam materials, and the N10-008 exam study resources are the latest, do you have them?

New N10-008 learning materials 2024 integration
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Book:

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2. CompTIA Network+ N10–008 Exam Cram
3. CompTIA Network+ N10–008 Cert Guide

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• Network+ (Plus) Certification
• Network+ (N10-008) Certification Study Guide
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You are interested: About N10-008

Is the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 exam more difficult than other entry-level networking certification exams?

Yes, Network+ is more difficult than other entry-level networking certification exams because its focus is vendor-agnostic. Other network certifications may focus on specific hardware or software, while N10-008 is not.

How should I properly study for the N10-008 exam?

Undoubtedly, using CompTIA Network+ N10-008 dumps questions 2024 is the best solution for studying for the exam.

What is the most special thing about the N10-008 exam?

The CompTIA Network+ covers all networks and technologies. Out of all the IT certifications, it is one of the only ones that does not test your hardware or some software details.

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This post is about N10-008 dumps questions 2024 that can help you pass the exam. You need it, and some of the N10-008 exam questions have been shared, which are the latest in 2024.

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Thank you for reading, and I wish you all the best.

Real Microsoft Azure AZ-204 dumps offer new AZ-204 exam questions to help you get a good score on the exam easily.

On the road to Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure AZ-204 exam, if you feel lonely in the AZ-204 exam questions, then you don’t have to feel lonely anymore because Pass4itSure AZ-204 exam dumps are one of the highest-ranked AZ-204 dumps that can accompany you to do well in the AZ-204 exam questions.

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Because the Microsoft Azure AZ-204 exam was updated on October 18, 2023. Only the new exam questions provided by the new real AZ-204 dumps will be able to keep up with it.

Next, let’s talk about the Microsoft AZ-204 exam update in detail

The AZ-204 exam, known as Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure, is a 120-minute exam with 40-60 questions and a passing score of 700 out of 1000, which is best suited for people with 1-2 years of professional developer experience and expertise in Azure-supported languages.

If you look at the diagram below, you can see where the changes are.

The table is a comparison between the two versions of the test skills measure, and the third column describes the extent of the change.

From https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/credentials/certifications/resources/study-guides/az-204#change-log

For your convenience, we have put together some useful study materials about the exam Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure

Video Mode Source: Learn， Five in total
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-204-develop-azure-compute-solutions-1-of-5
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-204-develop-for-azure-storage-segment-2-of-5
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-204-implement-azure-security-segment-3-of-5
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-204-monitor-troubleshoot-and-optimize-azure-solutions-segment-4-of-5
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-204-connect-to-and-consume-azure-services-and-third-party-services-segment-5-of-5

Text mode
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/credentials/certifications/resources/study-guides/az-204

Practical exercises on exam sandbox https://www.starttest.com/ITDVersions/22.0.0.0/ITDStart.aspx?SVC=3c4d

It’s all about passing the exam.

Are you waiting for free AZ-204 exam questions (new)? Here it is.

Real Microsoft Azure AZ-204 dumps (2024) – new AZ-204 exam questions

Source: Pass4itSure AZ-204 Dumps
Questions: 15 (495)
Other relevant Microsoft exams

Question 1:

HOTSPOT

You are developing a ticket reservation system for an airline.

The storage solution for the application must meet the following requirements:

1. Ensure at least 99.99% availability and provide low latency.

2. Accept reservation events when localized network outages or other unforeseen failures occur.

3. Process reservations in the exact sequence as reservations are submitted to minimize overbooking or selling the same seat to multiple travelers.

4. Allow simultaneous and out-of-order reservations with a maximum five-second tolerance window.

You provision a resource group named airlineResourceGroup in the Azure South-Central US region.

You need to provision a SQL SPI Cosmos DB account to support the app.

How should you complete the Azure CLI commands? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: BoundedStaleness

Bounded staleness: The reads are guaranteed to honor the consistent prefix guarantee. The reads might lag writes by at most “K” versions (that is, “updates”) of an item or by “T” time interval. In other words, when you choose

bounded staleness, the “staleness” can be configured in two ways:

The number of versions (K) of the item

The time interval (T) by which the reads might lag behind the writes

Incorrect Answers:

Strong

Strong consistency offers a linearizability guarantee. Linearizability refers to serving requests concurrently. The reads are guaranteed to return the most recent committed version of an item. A client never sees an uncommitted or partial write.

Users are always guaranteed to read the latest committed write.

Box 2: –enable-automatic-failover true\

For multi-region Cosmos accounts that are configured with a single-write region, enable automatic failover by using Azure CLI or Azure portal. After you enable automatic failover, whenever there is a regional disaster, Cosmos DB will

automatically failover your account.

Question 2:

HOTSPOT

You are developing an Azure Function App by using Visual Studio. The app will process orders input by an Azure Web App. The web app places the order information into Azure Queue Storage.

You need to review the Azure Function App code shown below.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

ExpirationTime – The time that the message expires.

InsertionTime – The time that the message was added to the queue.

Box 2: Yes

maxDequeueCount – The number of times to try processing a message before moving it to the poison queue. The default value is 5.

Box 3: Yes

When multiple queue messages are waiting, the queue trigger retrieves a batch of messages and invokes function instances concurrently to process them. By default, the batch size is 16. When the number being processed gets down

to 8, the runtime gets another batch and starts processing those messages. So the maximum number of concurrent messages being processed per function on one virtual machine (VM) is 24.

Box 4: Yes

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-bindings-storage-queue

Question 3:

You are developing applications for a company. You plan to host the applications on Azure App Services. The company has the following requirements:

1. Every five minutes verify that the websites are responsive.

2. Verify that the websites respond within a specified time threshold. Dependent requests such as images and JavaScript files must load properly.

3. Generate alerts if a website is experiencing issues.

4. If a website fails to load, the system must attempt to reload the site three more times.

You need to implement this process with the least amount of effort.

What should you do?

A. Create a Selenium web test and configure it to run from your workstation as a scheduled task.

B. Set up a URL ping test to query the home page.

C. Create an Azure function to query the home page.

D. Create a multi-step web test to query the home page.

E. Create a Custom Track Availability Test to query the home page.

Correct Answer: D

You can monitor a recorded sequence of URLs and interactions with a website via multi-step web tests. Incorrect Answers:

A: Selenium is an umbrella project for a range of tools and libraries that enable and support the automation of web browsers.

It provides extensions to emulate user interaction with browsers, a distribution server for scaling browser allocation, and the infrastructure for implementations of the W3C WebDriver specification that lets you write interchangeable code for all major web browsers.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/availability-multistep

Question 4:

You need to correct the RequestUserApproval Function app error.

What should you do?

A. Update line RA13 to use the async keyword and return an HttpRequest object value.

B. Configure the Function app to use an App Service hosting plan. Enable the Always On setting of the hosting plan.

C. Update the function to be stateful by using Durable Functions to process the request payload.

D. Update the function timeout property of the host.json project file to 15 minutes.

Correct Answer: C

Async operation tracking

The HTTP response mentioned previously is designed to help implement long-running HTTP async APIs with Durable Functions. This pattern is sometimes referred to as the polling consumer pattern.

Both the client and server implementations of this pattern are built into the Durable Functions HTTP APIs.

Function app

You perform local testing for the RequestUserApproval function. The following error message displays:

\’Timeout value of 00:10:00 exceeded by function: RequestUserApproval\’

The same error message displays when you test the function in an Azure development environment when you run the following Kusto query:

FunctionAppLogs

| where FunctionName = = “RequestUserApproval”

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/durable/durable-functions-httpfeatures

Question 5:

HOTSPOT

You plan to deploy a new application to a Linux virtual machine (VM) that is hosted in Azure.

The entire VM must be secured at rest by using industry-standard encryption technology to address organizational security and compliance requirements.

You need to configure Azure Disk Encryption for the VM.

How should you complete the Azure CLI commands? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: key vault

Create an Azure Key Vault with az key vault and enable the Key Vault for use with disk encryption. Specify a unique Key Vault name for keyvault_name as follows:

keyvault_name=myvaultname$RANDOM

az key vault create \

–name $keyvault_name \

–resource-group $resourcegroup \

–location east us \

–enabled-for-disk-encryption True

Box 2: key vault key

The Azure platform needs to be granted access to request the cryptographic keys when the VM boots to decrypt the virtual disks. Create a cryptographic key in your Key Vault with az key vault key. The following example creates a key

named myKey:

az key vault key create \

–vault-name $keyvault_name \

–name myKey \

–protection software

Box 3: vm

Create a VM with az vm create. Only certain marketplace images support disk encryption. The following example creates a VM named myVM using an Ubuntu 16.04 LTS image:

az vm create \

–resource-group $resourcegroup \

–name myVM \

–image Canonical:UbuntuServer:16.04-LTS:latest \

–admin-username azureuser \

–generate-ssh-keys \

Box 4: vm encryption

Encrypt your VM with az vm encryption enable:

az vm encryption enable \

–resource-group $resourcegroup \

–name my VM \

–disk-encryption-key vault $keyvault_name \

–key-encryption-key myKey \

–volume-type all

Note: seems to be an error in the question. Should have enabled it instead of creating.

Box 5: all

Encrypt both data and operating system.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/virtual-machines/linux/encrypt-disks

Question 6:

HOTSPOT

You have developed a Web App for your company. The Web App provides services and must run in multiple regions.

You want to be notified whenever the Web App uses more than 85 percent of the available CPU cores over 5 minutes. Your solution must minimize costs.

Which command should you use? To answer, select the appropriate settings to the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/sv-se/cli/azure/monitor/metrics/alert

Question 7:

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You develop an HTTP-triggered Azure Function app to process Azure Storage blob data. The app is triggered using an output binding on the blob.

The app continues to time out after four minutes. The app must process the blob data.

You need to ensure the app does not time out and processes the blob data.

Solution: Pass the HTTP trigger payload into an Azure Service Bus queue to be processed by a queue trigger function and return an immediate HTTP success response.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Large, long-running functions can cause unexpected timeout issues. General best practices include:

Whenever possible, refactor large functions into smaller function sets that work together and return responses fast. For example, a webhook or HTTP trigger function might require an acknowledgment response within a certain time limit; it\’s

common for webhooks to require an immediate response. You can pass the HTTP trigger payload into a queue to be processed by a queue trigger function. This approach lets you defer the actual work and return an immediate response.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-best-practices

Question 8:

HOTSPOT

You are working for a company that designs mobile applications. They maintain a server where player records are assigned to their different games. The tracking system is new and in development.

The application uses Entity Framework to connect to an Azure Database. The database holds a Player table and a Game table.

When adding a player, the code should insert a new player record, and add a relationship between an existing game record and the new player record.

The application will call CreatePlayerWithGame with the correct game ID and the player to start the process. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Many-to-many relationships without an entity class to represent the join table are not yet supported. However, you can represent a many-to-many relationship by including an entity class for the join table and mapping two separate one-tomany relationships.

protected override void OnModelCreating(ModelBuilder modelBuilder) {

modelBuilder.Entity()

HasKey(t => new { t.PostId, t.TagId });

modelBuilder.Entity()

HasOne(pt => pt.Post)

WithMany(p => p.PostTags)

HasForeignKey(pt => pt.PostId);

modelBuilder.Entity()

HasOne(pt => pt.Tag)

WithMany(t => t.PostTags)

HasForeignKey(pt => pt.TagId);

}

}

Question 9:

You need to investigate the HTTP server log output to resolve the issue with the ContentUploadService. Which command should you use first?

A. az webapp log

B. az ams live-output

C. az monitor activity-log

D. az container attach

Correct Answer: C

Scenario: Users of the ContentUploadService report that they occasionally see HTTP 502 responses on specific pages.

“502 bad gateway” and “503 service unavailable” are common errors in your app hosted in Azure App Service.

Microsoft Azure publicizes each time there is a service interruption or performance degradation.

The az monitor activity-log command manages activity logs.

Note: Troubleshooting can be divided into three distinct tasks, in sequential order:

1. Observe and monitor application behavior

2. Collect data

3. Mitigate the issue

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cli/azure/monitor/activity-log

Question 10:

HOTSPOT

You need to configure API Management for authentication.

Which policy values should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Validate JWT

The validate-jwt policy enforces the existence and validity of a JWT extracted from either a specified HTTP Header or a specified query parameter.

Scenario: User authentication (see step 5 below)

The following steps detail the user authentication process:

1. The user selects Sign in on the website.

2. The browser redirects the user to the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) sign-in page.

3. The user signs in.

4. Azure AD redirects the user\’s session back to the web application. The URL includes an access token.

5. The web application calls an API and includes the access token in the authentication header. The application ID is sent as the audience (‘aud’) claim in the access token.

6. The back-end API validates the access token.

Incorrect Answers:

1. Limit call rate by key – Prevents API usage spikes by limiting call rate, on a per-key basis.

2. Restrict caller IPs – Filters (allows/denies) calls from specific IP addresses and/or address ranges.

3. Check HTTP header – Enforces the existence and/or value of an HTTP Header.

Box 2: Outbound

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-access-restriction-policies

Question 11:

DRAG DROP

You need to deploy a new version of the LabelMaker application to ACR.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Step 1: Build a new application image by using docker file

Step 2: Create an alias if the image with the fully qualified path to the registry

Before you can push the image to a private registry, you’ve to ensure a proper image name. This can be achieved using the docker tag command. For demonstration purposes, we’ll use Docker\’s hello-world image, rename it, and push it to

ACR.

# pulls hello-world from the public docker hub

$ docker pull hello-world

# tag the image to be able to push it to a private registry

$ docker tag hello-word /hello-world

# push the image

$ docker push /hello-world

Step 3: Log in to the registry and push the image

To push images to the newly created ACR instance, you need to login to ACR from the Docker CLI. Once logged in, you can push any existing docker image to your ACR instance.

Scenario:

Coho Winery plans to move the application to Azure and continue to support label creation.

LabelMaker app

Azure Monitor Container Health must be used to monitor the performance of workloads that are deployed to Kubernetes environments and hosted on Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS).

You must use Azure Container Registry to publish images that support the AKS deployment.

Reference:

https://thorsten-hans.com/how-to-use-a-private-azure-container-registry-with-kubernetes-9b86e67b93b6

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/container-registry/container-registry-tutorial-quick-task

Question 12:

You develop a solution that uses an Azure SQL Database to store user information for a mobile app.

The app stores sensitive information about users.

You need to hide sensitive information from developers that query the data for the mobile app.

Which three items must you identify when configuring dynamic data masking? Each correct answer presents a part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Column

B. Table

C. Trigger

D. Index

E. Schema

Correct Answer: ABE

In the Dynamic Data Masking configuration page, you may see some database columns that the recommendations engine has flagged for masking. To accept the recommendations, just click Add Mask for one or more columns and a mask is created based on the default type for this column. You can change the masking function by clicking on the masking rule and editing the masking field format to a different format of your choice.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-dynamic-data-masking-get-started-portal

---

Question 13:

HOTSPOT

You are developing an application that monitors data added to an Azure Blob storage account.

You need to process each change made to the storage account.

How should you complete the code segment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Question 14:

You are developing a software solution for an autonomous transportation system. The solution uses large data sets and Azure Batch processing to simulate navigation sets for entire fleets of vehicles.

You need to create compute nodes for the solution on Azure Batch.

Which of the following actions should you take?

A. In the Azure portal, create a Batch account

B. In Python, implement the class: JobAddParameter

C. In a .NET method, call the method: BatchClient.PoolOperations.CreateJob

D. In Python, implement the class: TaskAddParameter

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

You developed an app that allows users to upload photos and videos to Azure storage. The app uses a storage REST API call to upload the media to a blob storage account named Account1. You have blob storage containers named

Container1 and Container2.

Uploading of videos occurs on an irregular basis.

You need to copy specific blobs from Container1 to Container2 in real-time when specific requirements are met, excluding backup blob copies.

What should you do?

A. Download the blob to a virtual machine and then upload the blob to Container2.

B. Run the Azure PowerShell command Start-AzureStorageBlobCopy.

C. Copy blobs to Container2 by using the Put Blob operation of the Blob Service REST API.

D. Use AzCopy with the Snapshot switch blobs to Container2.

Correct Answer: B

The Start-AzureStorageBlobCopy cmdlet starts to copy a blob.

Example 1: Copy a named blob

C:\PS>Start-AzureStorageBlobCopy -SrcBlob “ContosoPlanning2015” -DestContainer “ContosoArchives” -SrcContainer “ContosoUploads”

This command starts the copy operation of the blob named ContosoPlanning2015 from the container named ContosoUploads to the container named ContosoArchives.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azure.storage/start-azurestorageblobcopy?view=azurermps-6.13.0

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This examination evaluates your proficiency in deploying and managing fundamental security technologies, encompassing:

• Network security
• Cloud Security
• Content security
• Endpoint protection and detection
• Secure network access
• Visibility and enforcement

Exam name:	Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)
Exam code:	350-701
Number of exam questions:	90-100
Duration:	120 min
Languages:	English and Japanese
Price:	$400 USD
Schedule an exam:	In-person (Pearson Vue), Online
Passing Score:	750-850 / 1000

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Question 1:

What are the two types of managed Intercloud Fabric deployment models? (Choose two)

A. Service Provider managed

B. Public managed

C. Hybrid managed

D. User managed

E. Enterprise managed

Correct Answer: AE

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Hybrid_Cloud/Intercloud/Intercloud_Fabric/ Intercloud_Fabric_2.html

Question 2:

Which type of data does the Cisco Stealthwatch system collect and analyze from routers, switches, and firewalls?

A. NTP

B. Syslog

C. SNMP

D. NetFlow

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

What does Cisco ISE use to collect endpoint attributes that are used in profiling?

A. probes

B. posture assessment

C. Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client

D. Cisco pxGrid

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

https://content.cisco.com/chapter.sjs?uri=/searchable/chapter/content/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-6/ admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_26/ b_ise_admin_guide_26_chapter_010100.html.xml#:~:text=Network %20probe%20is%20a%20method,in%20the%20Cisco%20ISE%20database

Question 4:

An engineer must configure Cisco AMP for Endpoints so that it contains a list of files that should not be executed by users. These files must not be quarantined. Which action meets this configuration requirement?

A. Modify the advanced custom detection list to include these files.

B. Add a list for simple custom detection.

C. Identify the network IPs and place them in a blocked list.

D. Create an application control blocked applications list.

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

Based on the NIST 800-145 guide, cloud architecture may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of the organizations in the community, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises.

A. hybrid cloud

B. private cloud

C. public cloud

D. community cloud

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

An engineer is configuring Cisco Umbrella and has an identity that references two different policies. Which action ensures that the policy that the identity must use takes precedence over the second one?

A. Configure the default policy to redirect the requests to the correct policy

B. Place the policy with the most specific configuration last in the policy order

C. Configure only the policy with the most recently changed timestamp

D. Make the correct policy first in the policy order

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

What is managed by the Cisco Security Manager?

A. Cisco WLC

B. Cisco ESA

C. Cisco WSA

D. Cisco ASA

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/security-manager/index.html

Question 8:

Which Cisco security solution determines if an endpoint has the latest OS updates and patches installed on the system?

A. Cisco Endpoint Security Analytics

B. Cisco AMP for Endpoints

C. Endpoint Compliance Scanner

D. Security Posture Assessment Service

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en_us/about/doing_business/legal/service_descriptions/docs/Security_Posture_Assessment_SPA_Support.pdf

Question 9:

Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two)

A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.

B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.

C. C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.

D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.

E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona

Correct Answer: BD

The profiling service issues the change of authorization in the following cases:?Endpoint deleted–When an endpoint is deleted from the Endpoints page and the endpoint is disconnected or removed from the network.

An exception action is configured–If you have an exception action configured per profile that leads to an unusual or unacceptable event from that endpoint.

The profiling service moves the endpoint to the corresponding static profile by issuing a CoA.?

An endpoint is profiled for the first time–When an endpoint is not statically assigned and profiled for the first time; for example, the profile changes from an unknown to a known profile.+ An endpoint identity group has changed–When an endpoint is added or removed from an endpoint identity group that is used by an authorization policy.

The profiling service issues a CoA when there is any change in an endpoint identity group, and the endpoint identity group is used in the authorization policy for the following:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2- 1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010100.html

Question 10:

Which configuration method provides the options to prevent physical and virtual endpoint devices that are in the same base EPG or user from being able to communicate with each other with Vmware VDS or Microsoft vSwitch?

A. inter-EPG isolation

B. inter-VLAN security

C. intra-EPG isolation

D. placement in separate EPGs

Correct Answer: C

C. Intra-EPG Intra-EPG Isolation for VMware VDS or Microsoft Hyper-V Virtual Switch

Intra-EPG Isolation is an option to prevent physical or virtual endpoint devices that are in the same base EPG or microsegmented (uSeg) EPG from communicating with each other.

By default, endpoint devices included in the same EPG are allowed to communicate with one another.

However, conditions exist in which total isolation of the endpoint devices from one another within an EPG is desirable. For example, you may want to enforce intra-EPG isolation if the endpoint VMs in the same EPG belong to multiple tenants or to prevent

Question 11:

Which solution provides end-to-end visibility of applications and insights about application performance?

A. Cisco AppDynamics

B. Cisco Tetration

C. Cisco Secure Cloud Analytics

D. Cisco Cloudlock

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

In a PaaS model, which layer is the tenant responsible for maintaining and patching?

A. hypervisor

B. virtual machine

C. network

D. application

Correct Answer: D

https://www.bmc.com/blogs/saas-vs-paas-vs-iaas-whats-the-difference-and-how-to-choose/

Question 13:

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco ESA?

A. webadvancedconfig

B. web security advanced config

C. outbreak config

D. web security config

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Which feature of Cisco ASA allows VPN users to be postured against Cisco ISE without requiring an inline posture node?

A. RADIUS Change of Authorization

B. device tracking

C. DHCP snooping

D. VLAN hopping

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

Which feature within Cisco ISE verifies the compliance of an endpoint before providing access to the network?

A. Posture

B. Profiling

C. pxGrid

D. MAB

Correct Answer: A

…

---

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From	Number of exam questions	Type	Online download
Pass4itsure	15	Exam questions and answers	220-1101 PDF

Question 1:

A technician needs to add storage to a workstation. The workstation does not have room to add any internal storage, so the technician plans to add an external storage device. Which of the following connection types should the technician MOST likely use?

A. SCSI

B. eSATA

C. PCIe

D. NVMe

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag each mobile technology to the description of its use. Some answers will not be used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

A user submits a help desk ticket regarding a smartphone that will no longer accept its charging cable. The assigned technician notices the phone does not have a protective case, and the user constantly transports the phone in a pocket. The technician attempts to use a secondary charger, but the cable falls out of the phone. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The phone requires a firmware update to address charging issues.

B. The charge port contains foreign objects, such as lint.

C. The phone\’s battery has swelled, preventing the utilization of the charge port.

D. The phone has experienced water damage, thus the battery is not charging.

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

A technician installed a Cat 5 UTP cable approximately 275ft (84m) from a network switch in an office to a workstation located on a factory floor The technician sees both a flashing green LED and a flashing orange LED on the workstation\’s NIC. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?

A. Check the RJ45 end connectors, the jacks, and the ends of the run of the Cat 5 UTP cable for loose connections, pinched bends, and visible damage.

B. Install a powered hub as close as possible to the halfway point in the Cat 5 UTP cable run.

C. Replace the entire run of the Cat 5 UTP cable with Cat 5 STP cable.

D. Upgrade the entire cable run to multimode fiber.

Correct Answer: A

The flashing green LED on the NIC indicates that the NIC is receiving power, and the flashing orange LED indicates that the NIC is attempting to establish a network connection. Since the technician installed a Cat 5 UTP cable for this connection, the issue is most likely related to the cable or the connectors. Therefore, the technician should first check the RJ45 end connectors, the jacks, and the ends of the run of the Cat 5 UTP cable for loose connections, pinched bends, and visible damage.

Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the IP address next to the appropriate description.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 6:

A user accidentally spills liquid on a laptop. The user wants the device to be fixed and would like to know how much it will cost. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT to verify if the device is repairable before committing to a price? (Choose two.)

A. Remove the case and organize the parts.

B. Document the screw locations.

C. Search the Internet for repair tutorials.

D. Consult colleagues for advice.

E. Place the device in rice for a few days.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 7:

A network administrator receives a ticket following a power outage that states the wireless network is down. The administrator discovers the SSID is broadcasting, but data is not being transmitted. Which of the following should the network administrator do FIRST?

A. Restart the access point

B. Reset the access point to the default

C. Change the access point\’s frequency

D. Replace the access point\’s patch cable

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

A technician is adding one more line at the demarcation point. Which of the following tools would be MOST useful to accomplish this task?

A. Toner

B. Punchdown

C. Network tap

D. Crimper

Correct Answer: B

Punchdown tools are used to connect wires to keystone jacks, patch panels and other communication hardware. When adding a new line at the demarcation point, a technician would use a punch-down tool to punch the wire into the keystone jack or patch panel, completing the connection.

Question 9:

Which of the following would MOST likely be used to connect one or more devices to the Internet in a SOHO?

A. Hub

B. Ethernet gateway

C. Wireless access point

D. Router

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.professormesser.com/free-a-plus-training/220-1001/installing-a-soho-network/

Question 10:

A technician responds to a help desk ticket that indicates a user\’s workstation is not booting. The technician initially suspects a failed hard drive. The technician performs diagnostics and confirms the hard drive is fully operational.

Which of the following steps should the technician complete NEXT?

A. Reinstall the operating system.

B. Configure a new RAID array.

C. Report the status of the drive and close the ticket.

D. Consider another possible cause of the issue.

E. Restore the latest backup of the system.

Correct Answer: E

Since the hard drive appears to be functioning normally, the technician should investigate other potential causes of the issue. This could include checking the BIOS settings, verifying the connections to the hard drive, and testing the RAM. Once these steps have been completed, the technician can then take the necessary steps to resolve the issue.

Question 11:

A technician is troubleshooting a point-of-sale primer that Is printing blank receipts. Which o(following should the technician do to resolve the Issue?

A. Verify the correct type of paper is loaded.

B. Install the latest print driver.

C. Check to see if the default printer has been changed.

D. Ensure the printer is connected to power.

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

Which of the following should the data center hardware technician implement to ensure maximum uptime for customers\’ virtual machines?

A. Line conditioner

B. AC voltage regulator

C. Uninterruptible power supply

D. Cloud storage backup

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

A developer is requesting permission to utilize client-side visualization. The developer would like to write code in a setting isolated from other infrastructure to avoid the negative impacts of experimental code. Which of the following provides the BEST solution for the developer?

A. Cross-platform functionality

B. Software compatibility

C. Test case development

D. Sandbox environment

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

A customer recently moved a high-end graphics card from a known-working computer to a different computer. The computer works without issue when viewing email and web pages or when using certain applications. However, when a game with high-end graphics requirements is opened, the program will run for a few minutes before the computer shuts down. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the problem?

A. Power supply wattage

B. Video RAM

C. CPU frequency

D. Monitor resolution

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

Which of the following is the SAFEST way to replace RAM on a server that has a redundant power supply?

A. Unplug one power cable.

B. Verify the RAM temperature.

C. Utilize a grounding strap.

D. Replace the RAM while the server is running.

Correct Answer: C

Utilizing a grounding strap is the safest way to replace RAM on a server that has a redundant power supply. This ensures that no static electricity is transferred to any of the server components, which could cause permanent damage. The other options are not the correct methods for replacing RAM. Unplugging one power cable is not recommended, as it could cause the server to go offline and disrupt any services that are running. Verifying the RAM temperature is not necessary and does not provide any additional safety measures, and replacing the RAM while the server is running is not recommended, as it could cause system instability.

…

---

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Question 1:

You receive an email that contains a list of words that will be used few a sensitive information type.

You need to create a file that can be used as the source of a keyword dictionary.

In which format should you save the list?

A. an XLSX file that contains one word in each cell of the first row

B. an ISV file that contains words separated by tabs

C. a JSON file that that an element tor each word

D. a text file that has one word on each line

Correct Answer: D

Keyword dictionaries can be created either from a text file or from csv file.

Note:

There are several versions of this question in the exam. The question has two possible correct answers:

1. a CSV file that contains words separated by commas

2. a text file that has one word on each line

Other incorrect answer options you may see on the exam include the following:

1. a TSV file that contains words separated by tabs

2. a DOCX file that has one word on each line

3. an XML file that contains a keyword tag for each word

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/create-a-keyword-dictionary?view=o365-worldwide

---

Question 2:

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant.

You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site that contains employment contracts in a folder named EmploymentContracts. All the files in EmploymentContracts are marked as records.

You need to recommend a process to ensure that when a record is updated, the previous version of the record is kept as a version of the updated record.

What should you recommend?

A. Upload an updated file plan that contains the record definition.

B. Unlock the record, modify the record, and then lock the record.

C. Create a copy of the record and enter a version in the file metadata.

D. Create a new label policy associated with an event that will apply to the record.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/record-versioning?view=o365-worldwide

---

Question 3:

You have a data loss prevention (DLP) policy configured for endpoints as shown in the following exhibit.

From a computer named Computer1, 3 users can sometimes upload files to cloud services and sometimes cannot. Other users experience the same issue.

What are two possible causes of the issue? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. The Access by unallowed apps action is set to Audit only.

B. The computers are NOT onboarded to the Microsoft 365 compliance center.

C. The Copy to clipboard action is set to Audit only.

D. There are file path exclusions in the Microsoft 365 Endpoint data loss prevention (Endpoint DIP) settings.

E. The unallowed browsers in the Microsoft 365 Endpoint data loss prevention (Endpoint DLP) settings are NOT configured.

Correct Answer: AD

---

Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You plan to create a custom trainable classifier based on an organizational from template.

You need to identify which role-based access control (RBAC) role is required to create the trainable classifier and where to store the seed content for the trainable classifier. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.

What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/classifier-get-started-with?view=o365-worldwide#prepare-for-a-custom-trainable-classifier

---

Question 5:

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses 100 data loss prevention (DLP) policies.

A Microsoft Exchange administrator frequently investigates emails that were blocked due to DLP policy violations.

You need to recommend which DLP report the Exchange administrator can use to identify how many messages were blocked based on each DLP policy.

Which report should you recommend?

A. Third-party DLP policy matches

B. DLP policy matches

C. DLP incidents

D. False positive and override

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/dlp-learn-about-dlp?view=o365-worldwide

---

Question 6:

You have a new Microsoft 365 tenant.

You need to ensure that custom trainable classifiers can be created in the tenant.

To which role should you be assigned to perform the configuration?

A. Security Administrator

B. Security operator

C. Global administrator

D. Compliance administrator

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/classifier-get-started-with?view=o365-worldwide

---

Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You enable archive mailboxes for all the users at your company.

The Default MRM Policy is shown in the MRM exhibit.

A Microsoft 365 retention label policy is shown in the Label Policy exhibit.

You need to identify the following:

How many years until an email is archived?

What should you modify to change the retention period for archiving?

What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

---

Question 8:

HOTSPOT

You are implementing Microsoft Office 365 Message Encryption (OME) for a Microsoft 365 tenant named contoso.com.

You need to meet the following requirements:

1. All emails to a domain named fabrikam.com must be encrypted automatically.

2. Encrypted emails must expire seven days after they are sent.

What should you configure for each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/email-encryption?view=o365-worldwide https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/ome-advanced-expiration?view=o365-worldwide

---

Question 9:

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses the following sensitivity labels:

1. Confidential

2. Internal

3. External

The labels are published by using a label policy named Policy1.

Users report that Microsoft Office for the web apps does not display the Sensitivity button. The Sensitivity button appears in Microsoft 365 Apps that are installed locally.

You need to ensure that the users can apply sensitivity labels to content when they use Office for web apps.

Solution: You modify the scope of the Confidential label.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

---

Question 10:

HOTSPOT

You have the files shown in the following table.

You configure a retention policy as shown in the following exhibit.

The current date is January 1, 2021.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

---

Question 11:

You are evaluating the technical requirements for the DLP reports. Which user can currently view the DLP reports?

A. Admin4

B. Admin1

C. Admin5

D. Admin2

E. Admin3

Correct Answer: E

---

Question 12:

You need to automatically apply a sensitivity label to documents that contain information about your company\’s network including computer names, IP addresses, and configuration information.

Which two objects should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. (Choose two.)

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. an Information protection auto-labeling policy

B. a custom trainable classifier

C. a sensitive info type that uses a regular expression

D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy

E. a sensitive info type that uses keywords

F. a sensitivity label that has auto-labeling

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/classifier-learn-about?view=o365-worldwide https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/apply-sensitivity-label-automatically?view=o365-worldwide

---

Question 13:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site that contains the following files.

Users are assigned roles for the site as shown in the following table.

Which files can User1 and User2 view? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

---

Question 14:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft E5 365 tenant.

You need to ensure that you can use sensitivity labels to declare regulatory records.

Which PowerShell cmdlet should you run, and which type of policy should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/declare-records?view=o365-worldwide https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/get-started-with-sensitivity-labels?view=o365-worldwide

---

Question 15:

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses trainable classifiers.

You are creating a custom trainable classifier.

You collect 300 sample file types from various geographical locations to use as seed content. Some of the file samples are encrypted.

You organize the files into categories as shown in the following table.

Which file categories can be used as seed content?

A. Category2, Category3, and Category5 only

B. Category1 and Category3 only

C. Category4 and Category6 only

D. Category4 and Category5 only

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/classifier-get-started-with?view=o365- worldwide https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/technical-reference/default-crawled-file-name-extensions-and-parsed-file-types

---

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Question 1:

A friend of yours tells you that he downloaded and executed a file that was sent to him by a coworker. Since the file did nothing when executed, he asks you for help because he suspects that he may have installed a trojan on his computer.

what tests would you perform to determine whether his computer Is Infected?

A. Use ExifTool and check for malicious content.

B. You do not check; rather, you immediately restore a previous snapshot of the operating system.

C. Upload the file to VirusTotal.

D. Use netstat and check for outgoing connections to strange IP addresses or domains.

Correct Answer: D

---

Question 2:

Identify the UDP port that Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses as its primary means of communication.

A. 113

B. 69

C. 123

D. 161

Correct Answer: C

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Network_Time_Protocol The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is a networking protocol for clock synchronization between computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks. NTP is intended to synchronize all participating computers within a few milliseconds of Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).

It uses the intersection algorithm, a modified version of Marzullo\’s algorithm, to select accurate time servers and is designed to mitigate variable network latency effects. NTP can usually maintain time to within tens of milliseconds over the public Internet and achieve better than one-millisecond accuracy in local area networks.

Asymmetric routes and network congestion can cause errors of 100 ms or more. The protocol is usually described in terms of a client-server model but can easily be used in peer-to-peer relationships where both peers consider the other to be a potential time source.

Implementations send and receive timestamps using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) on port number 123.

---

Question 3:

Leverox Solutions hired Arnold, a security professional, for the threat intelligence process. Arnold collected information about specific threats against the organization. From this information, he retrieved contextual information about security events and incidents that helped him disclose potential risks and gain insight into attacker methodologies. He collected the information from sources such as humans, social media, and chat rooms as well as from events that resulted in cyberattacks. In this process, he also prepared a report that includes identified malicious activities, recommended courses of action, and warnings for emerging attacks. What is the type of threat intelligence collected by Arnold in the above scenario?

A. Strategic threat intelligence

B. Tactical threat intelligence

C. Operational threat intelligence

D. Technical threat intelligence

Correct Answer: C

---

Question 4:

A company\’s security policy states that all Web browsers must automatically delete their HTTP browser cookies upon terminating. What sort of security breach is this policy attempting to mitigate?

A. Attempts by attackers to access the user and password information stored in the company\’s SQL database.

B. Attempts by attackers to access Web sites that trust the Web browser user by stealing the user\’s authentication credentials.

C. Attempts by attackers to access passwords stored on the user\’s computer without the user\’s knowledge.

D. Attempts by attackers to determine the user\’s Web browser usage patterns, including when sites were visited and for how long.

Correct Answer: B

---

Question 5:

Morris, a professional hacker, performed a vulnerability scan on a target organization by sniffing the traffic on the network to identify the active systems, network services, applications, and vulnerabilities.

He also obtained the list of the users who are currently accessing the network. What is the type of vulnerability assessment that Morris performed on the target organization?

A. internal assessment

B. Passive assessment

C. External assessment

D. Credentialed assessment

Correct Answer: B

Passive Assessment Passive assessments sniff the traffic present on the network to identify the active systems, network services, applications, and vulnerabilities. Passive assessments also provide a list of the users who are currently accessing the network.

---

Question 6:

What is the following command used for?

net use \targetipc$ “/u:” A. Grabbing the etc/passwd file

B. Grabbing the SAM

C. Connecting to a Linux computer through Samba.

D. This command is used to connect as a null session

E. Enumeration of Cisco routers

Correct Answer: D

---

Question 7:

Which of the following is the least-likely physical characteristic to be used in biometric control that supports a large company?

A. Iris patterns

B. Voice

C. Height and Weight

D. Fingerprints

Correct Answer: C

---

Question 8:

What piece of hardware on a computer\’s motherboard generates encryption keys and only releases a part of the key so that decrypting a disk on a new piece of hardware is not possible?

A. CPU

B. GPU

C. UEFI

D. TPM

Correct Answer: D

The TPM is a chip that\’s part of your computer\’s motherboard — if you bought an off-the-shelf PC, it\’s soldered onto the motherboard.

If you built your own computer, you can buy one as an add-on module if your motherboard supports it. The TPM generates encryption keys, keeping part of the key to itself.

---

Question 9:

What is the least important information when you analyze a public IP address in a security alert?

A. DNS

B. Whois

C. Geolocation

D. ARP

Correct Answer: D

---

Question 10:

Steven connected his iPhone to a public computer that had been infected by Clark, an attacker. After establishing the connection with the public computer, Steven enabled iTunes WI-FI sync on the computer so that the device could continue communication with that computer even after being physically disconnected.

Now, Clark gains access to Steven\’s iPhone through the infected computer and is able to monitor and read all of Steven\’s activity on the iPhone, even after the device is out of the communication zone.

Which of the following attacks is performed by Clark in the above scenario?

A. IOS trustjacking

B. lOS Jailbreaking

C. Exploiting SS7 vulnerability

D. Man-in-the-disk attack

Correct Answer: A

An iPhone client\’s most noticeably terrible bad dream is to have somebody oversee his/her gadget, including the capacity to record and control all actions without waiting to be in a similar room.

In this blog entry, we present another weakness called “Trustjacking”, which permits an aggressor to do precisely that. This weakness misuses an iOS highlight called iTunes Wi-Fi sync, which permits a client to deal with their iOS gadget without genuinely interfacing it with their PC.

A solitary tap by the iOS gadget proprietor when the two are associated with a similar organization permits an assailant to oversee the gadget. Furthermore, we will stroll through past related weaknesses and show the progressions that iPhone has made to alleviate them, and why these are adequate not to forestall comparative assaults.

After interfacing an iOS gadget with another PC, the clients are found out if they trust the associated PC or not. Deciding to believe the PC permits it to speak with the iOS gadget by means of the standard iTunes APIs.

This permits the PC to get to the photographs on the gadget, perform reinforcement, introduce applications, and considerably more, without requiring another affirmation from the client and with no recognizable sign.

Besides, this permits enacting the “iTunes Wi-Fi sync” highlight, which makes it conceivable to proceed with this sort of correspondence with the gadget even after it has been detached from the PC, as long as the PC and the iOS gadget are associated with a similar organization.

It is intriguing to take note that empowering “iTunes Wi-Fi sync” doesn’t need the casualty\’s endorsement and can be directed simply from the PC side. Getting a live stream of the gadget\’s screen should be possible effectively by consistently requesting screen captures and showing or recording them distantly.

It is imperative to take note that other than the underlying single purpose of disappointment, approving the vindictive PC, there is no other component that forestalls this proceeding with access.

Likewise, there isn’t anything that informs the clients that by approving the PC they permit admittance to their gadget even in the wake of detaching the USB link.

---

Question 11:

Sam, is a professional hacker. targeted an organization with intention of compromising AWS IAM credentials. He attempted to lure one of the employees of the organization by initiating fake calls while posing as a legitimate employee.

Moreover, he sent phishing emails to steal the AWS 1 AM credentials and further compromise the employee\’s account. What is the technique used by Sam to compromise the AWS IAM credentials?

A. Social engineering

B. insider threat

C. Password reuse

D. Reverse engineering

Correct Answer: A

Just like any other service that accepts usernames and passwords for logging in, AWS users are vulnerable to social engineering attacks from attackers. fake emails, calls, or any other method of social engineering, may find yourself with AWS users\’ credentials within the hands of an attacker.

If a user only uses API keys for accessing AWS, general phishing techniques could still use to gain access to other accounts or their pc itself, where the attacker may then pull the API keys for the aforementioned AWS user. With basic open-source intelligence (OSINT), it\’s usually simple to collect a list of workers of an organization that uses AWS on a regular basis.

This list will then be targeted with spear phishing to do and gather credentials. an easy technique may include an email that says your bill has spiked 500th within the past 24 hours, “click here for additional information”, and when they click the link, they\’re forwarded to a malicious copy of the AWS login page designed to steal their credentials.

An example of such an email will be seen in the screenshot below. it\’s exactly like an email that AWS would send to you if you were to exceed the free tier limits, except for a few little changes.

If you clicked on any of the highlighted regions within the screenshot, you\’d not be taken to the official AWS website and you\’d instead be forwarded to a pretend login page setup to steal your credentials.

These emails will get even more specific by playing a touch bit of additional OSINT before causing them out. If an attacker was ready to discover your AWS account ID online somewhere, they could use methods we at rhino have free previously to enumerate what users and roles exist in your account with no logs of contact on your side.

they could use this list to refine their target list, further as their emails to reference services they will know that you often use.

For reference, the journal post for using AWS account IDs for role enumeration will be found here and the journal post for using AWS account IDs for user enumeration will be found here.

During engagements at the rhino, we find that phishing is one of the fastest ways for us to achieve access to an AWS environment.

---

Question 12:

Annie, a cloud security engineer, uses the Docker architecture to employ a client/server model in the application she is working on. She utilizes a component that can process API requests and handle various Docker objects, such as containers, and volumes. Images, and networks.

What is the component of the Docker architecture used by Annie in the above scenario?

A. Docker client

B. Docker objects

C. Docker daemon

D. Docker registries

Correct Answer: C

Docker uses a client-server design. The docker client talks to the docker daemon, which will do the work of building, running, and distributing your Docker containers. The docker client and daemon will run on the same system, otherwise, you will connect a docker consumer to a remote docker daemon.

The docker consumer and daemon communicate using a REST API, over OS sockets or a network interface.

---

The docker daemon (docked) listens for docker API requests and manages docker objects like pictures, containers, networks, and volumes. A daemon may communicate with other daemons to manage docker services.

---

Question 13:

When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast. He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.

What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?

A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.

B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.

C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.

D. Javik\’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.

Correct Answer: C

---

Question 14:

Security administrator John Smith has noticed abnormal amounts of traffic coming from local computers at night. Upon review, he finds that user data have been exfiltrated by an attacker.

AV tools are unable to find any malicious software, and the IDS/IPS has not reported on any non-whitelisted programs, what type of malware did the attacker use to bypass the company\’s application whitelisting?

A. Phishing malware

B. Zero-day malware

C. File-less malware

D. Logic bomb malware

Correct Answer: C

https://www.mcafee.com/enterprise/en-us/security-awareness/ransomware/what-is-fileless-malware.html

---

Question 15:

Which of the following represents the initial two commands that an IRC client sends to join an IRC network?

A. USER, NICK

B. LOGIN, NICK

C. USER, PASS

D. LOGIN, USER

Correct Answer: A

---

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Question 1:

A manager can represent only a single country. You need to use row-level security (RLS) to meet the following requirements: The managers must only see the data of their respective countries.

The number of RLS roles must be minimized. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Create a single role that filters Country by using the USERNAME DAX function.

B. Create a single role that filters Country by using the USEROBJECTID DAX function.

C. For the relationship between Purchase Detail and Purchase, select Apply security filter in both directions.

D. Create one role for each country.

E. For the relationship between Purchase and Purchase Detail, change the Cross filter direction to Single.

Correct Answer: AC

In Power BI Service the username and user principal name both return the email address, it\’s only in Power BI Desktop that the username is the domain/username rather than the email address. So I agree that the user principal name is better generally as you always get the same value, the answer is correct and you can use the username as your RLS since the role will be applied in the Service.

See https://community.powerbi.com/t5/Community-Blog/USERNAME-v-s-USERPRINCIPALNAME-in-RLS-for-Power-BI-Embedded/ba-p/1867670 for more information.

---

Question 2:

You have a Power Bi report. The report contains a visual that snows gross sales by date The visual have anomaly detection enabled. No anomalies ate detected.

You need to increase the likelihood that anomaly detection will identify anomalies in the report. What should you do?

A. Add a data field to the Secondary values field weft

B. Increase the Sensitivity setting.

C. Increase the Expected range transparency setting,

D. Add a data field to the Legend field well

Correct Answer: B

If you increase the sensitivity, the algorithm is more sensitive to changes in your data. In that case, even a slight deviation is marked as an anomaly. If you decrease the sensitivity, the algorithm is more selective about what it considers an anomaly.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-anomaly-detection

---

Question 3:

You have a Power Bl workspace that contains a dataset. a report, and a dashboard. The following groups have access:

1. External users can access the dashboard.

2. Managers can access the dashboard and a manager-specific report.

3. Employees can access the dashboard and a row-level security (RLS) constrained report.

You need all users, including external users, to be able to tag workspace administrators if they identify an issue with the dashboard. The solution must ensure that other users see the issues that were raised. What should you use?

A. subscriptions

B. comments

C. alerts

D. chat in Microsoft Teams

Correct Answer: A

---

Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You need to create a visual as shown in the following exhibit.

The indicator color for Total Sales will be based on % Growth to Last Year.

The solution must use the existing calculations only. How should you configure the visual? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Background color

To format the Color column based on its field values, select Conditional formatting for the Color field, and then select the Background color or Font color.

In the Background color or Font color dialog box, select Field value from the Format by drop-down field.

Box 2: Field value

With conditional formatting for tables in Power BI Desktop, you can specify customized cell colors, including color gradients, based on field values.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/create-reports/desktop-conditional-table-formatting

---

Question 5:

You publish a Microsoft Power BI dataset to powerbi.com. The dataset appends data from an on-premises Oracle database and an Azure SQL database by using one query.

You have admin access to the workspace and permission to use an existing On-premises data gateway for which the Oracle data source is already configured.

You need to ensure that the data is updated every morning. The solution must minimize configuration effort.

Which two actions should you perform when you configure scheduled refresh? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Configure the dataset to use the existing On-premises data gateway.

B. Deploy an On-premises data gateway in personal mode.

C. Set the refresh frequency to Daily.

D. Configure the dataset to use the personal gateway.

Correct Answer: AC

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/service-gateway-personal-mode

---

Question 6:

DRAG DROP

You have a Microsoft Power BI workspace.

You need to grant the user capabilities shown in the following table.

The solution must use the principle of least privilege.

Which user role should you assign to each user? To answer, drag the appropriate roles to the correct users. Each role may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Member

Incorrect Answers:

Contributors can update the app metadata but not publish a new app or change who has permission to the app.

Box 2: Contributor

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/collaborate-share/service-new-workspaces

---

Question 7:

Your company has employees in 10 states. The company recently decided to associate each state with one of the following three regions: East, West, and North.

You have a data model that contains employee information by state. The model does NOT include region information. You have a report that shows the employees by state.

You need to view the employees by region as quickly as possible. What should you do?

A. Create a new aggregation that summarizes by the employee.

B. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to List.

C. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to Bin.

D. Create a new aggregation that summarizes by state.

Correct Answer: B

https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/4720/binning-and-grouping-data-with-power-bi/

---

Question 8:

You build a report to analyze customer transactions from a database that contains the tables shown in the following table.

You import the tables. Which relationship should you use to link the tables?

A. one-to-many from Customer to Transaction

B. one-to-one between Customer and Transaction

C. one-to-many from Transaction to Customer

D. many-to-many between Customer and Transaction

Correct Answer: A

Each customer can have many transactions.

For each transaction, there is exactly one customer.

---

Question 9:

For the sales department at your company, you publish a Power Bl report that imports data from Microsoft Excel We located it in a Microsoft SharePoint folder The data model contains several measures You need to create a Power Bl report from the existing data. The solution must minimize development efforts. Which type of data source should you use?

A. a SharePoint folder

B. Power Bl dataflows

C. an Excel workbook

D. Power Bl dataset

Correct Answer: D

the case states there is already a report published and the data model contains measures. therefore and to be able to use the measures in the data model you should connect to the existing dataset (which was created when you published the report) instead of starting from scratch with the files in the SharePoint folder.

---

Question 10:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a clustered bar chart that contains a measure named Salary as the value and a field named Employee as the axis. Salary is present in the data as a numerical amount representing US dollars.

You need to create a reference line to show which employees are above the median salary. Solution: You create a constant line and set the value to .5. Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead, create a percentile line by using the Salary measure and set the percentile to 50%.

Note: The 50th percentile is also known as the median or middle value where 50 percent of observations fall below.

Reference:

https://dash-intel.com/powerbi/statistical_functions_percentile.php

---

Question 11:

You need to create a Power BI theme that will be used in multiple reports. The theme will include corporate branding for font size, color, and bar chart formatting. What should you do?

A. From Power Bl Desktop, customize the current theme,

B. From power Bl Desktop, use a built-in report theme.

C. Create a theme as a JSON file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

D. Create a theme as a PBIVlZ file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

Correct Answer: B

---

Question 12:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You create a parameter named DataSourceExcel that holds the file name and location of a Microsoft Excel data source.

You need to update the query to reference the parameter instead of multiple hard-coded copies of the location within each query definition.

Solution: You modify the source step of the queries to use DataSourceExcel as the file path.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Parameterizing a Data Source could be used in many different use cases. From connecting to different data sources defined in Query Parameters to load different combinations of columns.

Reference: https://www.biinsight.com/power-bi-desktop-query-parameters-part-1/

---

Question 13:

HOTSPOT

You need to grant access to the business unit analysts.

What should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: The Viewer role in the workspace The Viewer role gives a read-only experience to its users. They can view dashboards, reports, or workbooks in the workspace, but can’t browse the datasets or dataflows. Use the Viewer role wherever you would previously use a classic

workspace set to “Members can only view Power BI content”.

Box 2: Build

The analysts must be able to build new reports from the dataset that contains the profit and loss data.

Scenario: The reports must be made available to the board from powerbi.com.

The analysts responsible for each business unit must see all the data the board sees, except the profit and loss data, which must be restricted to only their business unit\’s data.

The analysts must be able to build new reports from the dataset that contains the profit and loss data, but any reports that the analysts build must not be included in the quarterly reports for the board. The analysts must not be able to share the quarterly reports with anyone.

---

Question 14:

HOTSPOT

You are creating a Microsoft Power BI model that has two tables named CityData and Sales.

CityData contains only the data shown in the following table.

CityData and Sales are related using a many-to-many relationship based upon the State column in each table.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

---

Question 15:

HOTSPOT

You are creating a quick measure as shown in the following exhibit.

You need to create a monthly rolling average measure for Sales over time.

How should you configure the quick measure calculation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Total Sales We select the field Total Sales

Box 2: Date Select a date field.

Box 3: Month Monthly periods.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/transform-model/desktop-quick-measures

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New Cisco 350-601 free dumps questions 2023

New question 1

Which configuration implements static ingress replication?

A. Interface nve 1 member vni 3719035 ingress-replication protocol static peer-ip 10.0.0.4
B. Interface nve 1 member vni 3719035 ingress-replication protocol bgp
C. Interface nve 1 member vai 3719035 peer vtep 10.0.0.4
D. Interface nve 1 member vni 3719035 peer vtep 10.0.0.4 ingress-replication protocol static peer-ip 10.0.0.4

Correct Answer: A

New question 2

An engineer must apply AAA configuration on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch. The solution must meet these conditions: It must use a challenge-response authentication protocol that uses MD5 hashing with an incrementally changing identifier.

The RADIUS configuration must be automatically shared with other MDS switches in the environment. The RADIUS server is already defined. Which command set completes the configuration?

A. aaa authentication login chap enable radius to distribute radius commit
B. aaa authentication login pap enable distribute radius radius-server host 10.8.8.0 auth-port 1821
C. aaa authentication login mschapv2 enable radius to propagate radius authentication port 1821
D. aaa authentication login mishap enables radius to commit radius-server host 10.8.8.0

Correct Answer: A

New question 3

A UCS B- Series server located in B5108 chassis 1 slot 1 is currently unavailable. The server needs to be associated with a specific service profile when it becomes available. Which associate service profile option should be selected to accomplish this goal?

A. server pool
B. server
C. custom server
D. restrict migration

Correct Answer: C

https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter28.html

New question 4

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure FCoE between the N9K-A switch and the FCF-A Nexus 9000 core switch. The deployment has these characteristics:

The N9K-A and N9K-B top-of-rack switches share the domain ID of the core switches.
The hosts are equipped with converged network adapters.
The only VSAN that is used is permitted to traverse port-channel 100 is VSAN 20.

Which configuration completes the FCoE configuration on the N9K-A device?

A. N9K-A(config)# feature-set fcoe-npv N9K-A(config)# interface vfc-port-channel 100 N9K-A(config-if)# switchport mode E N9K-A(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vsan 1, 20
B. N9K-A(config)# feature-set fcoe-npv N9K-A(config)# interface vfc-port-channel 100 N9K-A(config-if)# switchport mode NP N9K-A(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vsan 20
C. N9K-A(config)# feature fcoe N9K-A(config)# feature npv N9K-A(config)# interface vfc 100 N9K-A(config-if)# bind interface port-channel 100 N9K-A(config-if)# switchport mode N N9K-A(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vsan 1, 20
D. N9K-A(config)# feature fcoe N9K-A(config)# feature npv N9K-A(config)# interface vfc 100 N9K-A(config-if)# bind interface port-channel 100 N9K-A(config-if)# switchport mode F N9K-A(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vsan 20

Correct Answer: B

New question 5

Refer to the exhibit. Software downgrade is required on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch. What is displayed when this command is executed?

A. features that are enabled automatically after the downgrade
B. impact of a software upgrade in ISSU and chassis reload
C. features and commands that are removed automatically from the configuration
D. compatibility of software in the system boot flash file

Correct Answer: B

New question 6

An engineer needs to implement a solution that will provide telemetry of MDS 9000 switches in a SAN fabric. The solution should use Cisco Data Center Network Manager (DCNIM) with SAN insights feature. Which three steps are required to deploy the solution? (Choose Three.)

A. Select a target Fabric to be monitored.
B. Activate ENTERPRISE_PKG license on target switches
C. Select the target ports to be monitored for telemetry data
D. Configure name resolution between the devices
E. Select a target VSAN to be monitored
F. Activate SAN_ANALYTICS_PKG license on target switches

Correct Answer: ACF

New question 7

Which configuration implements static ingress replication?

A. interface nve 1 member vni 2100980 ingress-replication protocol static peer-ip 10.0.0.4
B. interface nve 1 member vni 127772151 ingress-replication protocol bgp
C. interface nve 1 member vni 3126980 peervtep 10.0.0.4 ingress-replication protocol static peer-ip 10.0.0.4
D. interface nve 1 member vni 384233213 peer vtep 10.0.0.41

Correct Answer: A

New question 8

A network engineer must configure a power redundancy policy on a Cisco UCS C-Series Rack Server. The power redundancy must support two power sources being used to power the server. Which configuration should be applied to meet the requirement?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/CLI-User-Guides/ServerMgmt/3-1/b_Cisco_UCS_Manager_Server_Mgmt_CLI_Guide/power_mgmt.html The command “N+1” is invalid. The command should be “n-plus-1”

New question 9

An engineer configures the properties of a cisco UCS cisco integrated Management controller network adapter for a standalone cisco C-Series server. The Fallback Timeout in the vNIC was set to 600. When the failure occurs. The secondary must be used and then fallback when the primary interface becomes available again. Which action be taken to meet these requirements?

A. Set default VLAN on the adapters.
B. Increase Cos to 6.
C. Disable VNTAG mode.
D. Enable Uplink failover.

Correct Answer: D

New question 10

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the NAS protocols on the right.
Select and Place:

New question 11

What is the advantage of using Ansible for automation as compared to puppet and chef?

A. Ansible automates the enforcement of configuration settings.
B. Ansible performs automation without installing a software agent on the target node.
C. Ansible configures a set of CLI commands on a device by using NETCONF.
D. Ansible abstracts a scenario so that set of configuration settings can be used across multiple operating systems.

Correct Answer: B

New question 12

Refer to the exhibit. Which feature set must be used to configure switch 2 to establish a VSAN trunk between switch 1 and switch 2?

A. F Port Trunk Mode Passive
B. N Port Trunk Mode Active
C. NP Port Trunk Mode Auto
D. E Port Trunk Mode On

Correct Answer: D

New question 13

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the routing table of the leaf switch are true? (Choose two.)

A. The next hop 10.0.1.14 for route 172.16.99.0/24 is the TEP address of a border leaf in ACI.
B. 172.16.100.0/24 is a BD subnet in ACI.
C. The next hop 10.0.8.65 for route 10.20.1.0./24 is the TEP address of a border leaf in ACI.
D. The next hop 10.1.168.95 for route 172.16.100.0/24 is the TEP address of a border leaf in ACI.
E. 10.20.1.0./24 is a BD subnet in ACI.

Correct Answer: DE

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Cisco 350-401 new dumps questions – Updated 2023

Q1

Which three resources must the hypervisor make available to the virtual machine (Choose three)

A. memory
B. bandwidth
C. IP address
D. processor
E. storage
F. secure access

Correct Answer: ADE

Q2

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer tries to log in to router R1. Which configuration enables a successful login?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

Q3

What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?

A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint-to-network device relationships
B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

Correct Answer: A

Q4

Which two steps are required for a complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade? (Choose two.)

A. golden image selection
B. automation backup
C. proxy configuration
D. application updates
E. system update

Correct Answer: DE

A complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade includes “System Update” and “Application Updates”

Q5

Which two operational models enable an AP to scan one or more wireless channels for rouge access points and at the same time provide wireless services to clients? (Choose two.)

A. Rouge detector
B. Sniffer
C. FlexConnect
D. Local
E. Monitor

Correct Answer: DE

+In a dense RF environment, where maximum rogue access points are suspected, the chances of detecting rogue access points by a local mode access point and FlexConnect mode access point in channel 157 or channel 161 are less when compared to other channels. To mitigate this problem, we recommend that you use dedicated monitor mode
access points.

+The local and FlexConnect mode access points are designed to serve associated clients. These access points spend relatively less time performing off-channel scanning: about 50 milliseconds on each channel. If you want to perform high rogue detection, a monitor mode access point must be used.

Alternatively, you can reduce the scan intervals from 180 seconds to a lesser value, for example, 120 or 60 seconds, ensuring that the radio goes off-channel more frequently,
which improves the chances of rogue detection. However, the access point continues to spend about 50 milliseconds on each channel.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-5/configuration-guide/b_cg75/
b_cg75_chapter_0111001.html

Q6

Which design principle should be followed in a Cisco SD-Access wireless network deployment?

A. The WLC is connected outside of the fabric
B. The WLC is part of the fabric underlay
C. The access point is connected outside of the fabric.
D. The WLC is part of the fabric overlay.

Correct Answer: A

WLC
–
WLC is connected outside Fabric (optionally directly to Border)
–
WLC needs to reside in the global routing table – to talk to CP!
–
No need for inter-VRF leaking for AP to join the WLC
–
WLC can only belong to one FD. WLC talks to one CP (two for HA)
Access Points
–
AP is directly connected to FE (or to an extended node switch)
–
AP is part of the Fabric overlay
–
AP belongs to the INFRA_VN which is mapped to the global routing table (new in DNAC 1.1)
–
AP joins the WLC in Local mode

Q7

Which activity requires access to Cisco DNA Center CLI?

A. provisioning a wireless LAN controller
B. creating a configuration template
C. upgrading the Cisco DNA Center software
D. graceful shutdown of Cisco DNA Center

Correct Answer: D

Q8

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that adds a prefix list to a route map and sets the local preference. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Q9

What is the calculation that is used to measure the radiated power of a signal after it has gone through the radio, antenna cable, and antenna?

A. EIRP
B. mW
C. dBm
D. dBi

Correct Answer: A

Q10

Refer to the exhibit.

MTU has been configured on the underlying physical topology, and no MTU command has been configured on the tunnel interfaces. What happens when a 1500-byte IPv4 packet traverses the GRE tunnel from host X to host Y, assuming the DF bit is cleared?

A. The packet arrives on router C without fragmentation.
B. The packet is discarded on router A
C. The packet is discarded on router B
D. The packet arrives on router C fragmented.

Correct Answer: D

Q11

Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be configured for RESTCONF to operate on port 8888?

A. ip http port 8888
B. restconf port 8888
C. ip http restconf port 8888
D. restconf http port 8888

Correct Answer: B

Q12

What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode?

A. The RP responds to the PIM join messes with the source of the requested multicast group
B. The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers.
C. The RP acts as a control-plane node and does not receive or forward multicast packets.
D. The RP is the multicast that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree.

Correct Answer: D

Multicast Distribution Shared Tree – Unlike source trees that have their root at the source, shared trees use a single common root placed at some chosen point in the network. This shared root is called a rendezvous point (RP).

Source:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9300/software/release/16-5/
configuration_guide/ip_mcast_rtng/b_165_ip_mcast_rtng_9300_cg/b_165_ip_mcast_rtng
_9300_9500_cg_chapter_0100.html
https://netcraftsmen.com/pim-sparse-mode/

Q13

Which data modeling language is commonly used by NETCONF?

A. REST
B. YANG
C. HTML
D. XML

Correct Answer: B

Cisco IOS XE supports the Yet Another Next Generation (YANG) data modeling language. YANG can be used with the Network Configuration Protocol (NETCONF) to provide the desired solution for automated and programmable network operations.

NETCONF(RFC6241) is an XML-based protocol that client applications use to request information from and make configuration changes to the device. YANG is primarily used to model the configuration and state data used by NETCONF operations.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9500/software/release/1
6-5/ configuration_guide/ prog/b_165_prog_9500_cg/data_models.pdf\

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NEW QUESTION 1

any company has acquired numerous companies over the past few years. The CIO for any company would like to keep the resources for each acquired company separate. The CIO also would like to enforce a chargeback model where each company pays for the AWS services it uses.

The Solutions Architect is tasked with designing an AWS architecture that allows any company to achieve the following:

1. Implementing a detailed chargeback mechanism to ensure that each company pays for the resources it uses.
2. any company can pay for AWS services for all its companies through a single invoice.
3. Developers in each acquired company have access to resources in their company only.
4. Developers in an acquired company should not be able to affect resources in their company only.
5. A single identity store is used to authenticate Developers across all companies.

Which of the following approaches would meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Create a multi-account strategy with an account per company. Use consolidated billing to ensure that any company needs to pay a single bill only.

B. Create a multi-account strategy with a virtual private cloud (VPC) for each company. Reduce impact across companies by not creating any VPC peering links. As everything is in a single account, there will be a single invoice. Use tagging to create a detailed bill for each company.

C. Create IAM users for each Developer in the account to which they require access. Create policies that allow the users access to all resources in that account. Attach the policies to the IAM user.

D. Create a federated identity store against the company\\’s Active Directory. Create IAM roles with appropriate permissions and set the trust relationships with AWS and the identity store. Use AWS STS to grant users access based on the groups they belong to in the identity store.

E. Create a multi-account strategy with an account per company. For billing purposes, use a tagging solution that uses a tag to identify the company that creates each resource.

Correct Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 2

A company wants to retire its Oracle Solaris NFS storage arrays. The company requires rapid data migration over its internet network connection to a combination of destinations for Amazon S3. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS), and Amazon FSx for Windows File Server. The company also requires a full initial copy, as well as incremental
transfers of changes until the retirement of the storage arrays. All data must be encrypted and checked for integrity.

What should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?

A. Configure CloudEndure. Create a project and deploy the CloudEndure agent and token to the storage array. Run the migration plan to start the transfer.
B. Configure AWS DataSync. Configure the DataSync agent and deploy it to the local network. Create a transfer task and start the transfer.
C. Configure the AWS S3 sync command. Configure the AWS client on the client side with credentials. Run the sync command to start the transfer.
D. Configure AWS Transfer (or FTP. Configure the FTP client with credentials. Script the client to connect and sync to start the transfer.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

A company has an environment that has a single AWS account. A solutions architect is reviewing the environment to recommend what the company could improve specifically in terms of access to the AWS Management Console. The company\’s IT support workers currently access the console for administrative tasks, authenticating with the named IAM
users that have been mapped to their job role.

The IT support workers no longer want to maintain both their Active Directory and IAM user accounts. They want to be able to access the console by using their existing Active Directory credentials. The solutions architect is using AWS Single Sign-On (AWS SSO) to implement this functionality.

Which solution will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

A. Create an organization in AWS Organizations. Turn on the AWS SSO feature in Organizations Create and configure a directory in AWS Directory Service for Microsoft Active Directory (AWS Managed Microsoft AD) with a two-way trust to the company\’s on-premises Active Directory. Configure AWS SSO and set the AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory as the identity source. Create permission sets and map them to the existing groups within the AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory.

B. Create an organization in AWS Organizations. Turn on the AWS SSO feature in Organizations Create and configure an AD Connector to connect to the company\’s on-premises Active Directory. Configure AWS SSO and select the AD Connector as the identity source. Create permission sets and map them to the existing groups within the company\’s Active Directory.

C. Create an organization in AWS Organizations. Turn on all features for the organization. Create and configure a directory in AWS Directory Service for Microsoft Active Directory (AWS Managed Microsoft AD) with a two-way trust to the company\’s on-premises Active Directory. Configure AWS SSO and select the AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory as the identity source. Create permission sets and map them to the existing groups within the AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory.

D. Create an organization in AWS Organizations. Turn on all features for the organization. Create and configure an AD Connector to connect to the company\’s on-premises Active Directory. Configure AWS SSO and select the AD Connector as the identity source. Create permission sets and map them to the existing groups within the company\’s Active Directory.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/single-sign-on/faqs/

NEW QUESTION 4

A software company hosts an application on AWS with resources in multiple AWS accounts and Regions. The application runs on a group of Amazon EC2 instances in an application VPC located in the us-east-1 Region with an IPv4 CIDR block of 10.10.0.0/16. In a different AWS account, a shared services VPC is located in the us-east-2 Region
with an IPv4 CIDR block of 10.10.10.0/24. When a cloud engineer uses AWS CloudFormation to attempt to peer the application VPC with the shared services VPC, an error message indicates a peering failure.

Which factors could cause this error? (Choose two.)

A. The IPv4 CIDR ranges of the two VPCs overlap
B. The VPCs are not in the same Region
C. One or both accounts do not have access to an Internet gateway
D. One of the VPCs was not shared through AWS Resource Access Manager
E. The IAM role in the peer accepter account does not have the correct permissions

Correct Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 5

A financial services company receives a regular data feed from its credit card servicing partner. Approximately 5,000 records are sent every 15 minutes in plaintext, delivered over HTTPS directly into an Amazon S3 bucket with server-side encryption. This feed contains sensitive credit card primary account number (PAN) data. The company needs to
automatically mask the PAN before sending the data to another S3 bucket for additional internal processing.

The company also needs to remove and merge specific fields, and then transform the record into JSON format. Additionally, extra feeds are likely to be added in the future, so any design needs to be easily expandable. Which solutions will meet these requirements?

A. Trigger an AWS Lambda function on file delivery that extracts each record and writes it to an Amazon SQS queue. Trigger another Lambda function when new messages arrive in the SQS queue to process the records, writing the results to a temporary location in Amazon S3. Trigger a final Lambda function once the SQS queue is empty to transform the records into JSON format and send the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing.

B. Trigger an AWS Lambda function on file delivery that extracts each record and writes it to an Amazon SQS queue. Configure an AWS Fargate container application to automatically scale to a single instance when the SQS queue contains messages. Have the application process each record, and transform the record into JSON format. When the queue is empty, send the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing and scale down the AWS Fargate instance.

C. Create an AWS Glue crawler and custom classifier based on the data feed formats and build a table definition to match. Trigger an AWS Lambda function on file delivery to start an AWS Glue ETL job to transform the entire record according to the processing and transformation requirements. Define the output format as JSON. Once complete, have
the ETL job sends the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing.

D. Create an AWS Glue crawler and custom classifier based upon the data feed formats and build a table definition to match. Perform an Amazon Athena query on file delivery to start an Amazon EMR ETL job to transform the entire record、
according to the processing and transformation requirements. Define the output format as JSON. Once complete, send the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing and scale down the EMR cluster.

Correct Answer: C

You can use a Glue crawler to populate the AWS Glue Data Catalog with tables. The Lambda function can be triggered using S3 event notifications when object-create events occur. The Lambda function will then trigger the Glue ETL job to transform the records masking the sensitive data and modifying the output format to JSON. This solution meets all requirements.

Create an AWS Glue crawler and a custom classifier based on the data feed formats and build a table definition to match. Trigger an AWS Lambda function on file delivery to start an AWS Glue ETL job to transform the entire record according to the processing and transformation requirements. Define the output format as JSON. Once complete, have the ETL job send the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing.

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/glue/latest/dg/trigger-job.html https://d1.awsstatic.com/Products/productname/diagrams/product-page- diagram_Glue_Event-drivenETLPipelines.e24d59bb79a9e24cdba7f43ffd234ec0482a60e2.png

NEW QUESTION 6

A mobile gaming application publishes data continuously to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. An AWS Lambda function processes record from the data stream and write to an Amazon DynamoDB table. The DynamoDB table has an auto scaling policy enabled with the target utilization set to 70%.

For several minutes at the start and end of each day, there is a spike in traffic that often exceeds five times the normal load. The company notices the GetRecords.The IteratorAgeMilliseconds metric of the Kinesis data stream temporarily spikes to over a minute for several minutes. The AWS Lambda function writes ProvisionedThroughputExceededException messages to Amazon CloudWatch Logs during these times, and some records are redirected to the dead letter queue.

No exceptions are thrown by the Kinesis producer on the gaming application. What change should the company make to resolve this issue?

A. Use Application Auto Scaling to set a scaling schedule to scale out write capacity on the DynamoDB table during predictable load spikes.
B. Use Amazon CloudWatch Events to monitor the dead letter queue and invoke a Lambda function to automatically retry failed records.
C. Reduce the DynamoDB table auto-scaling policy\\’s target utilization to 20% to more quickly respond to load spikes.
D. Increase the number of shards in the Kinesis data stream to increase throughput capacity.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

A company prefers to limit running Amazon EC2 instances to those that were launched from AMIs preapproved by the Information Security department. The Development team has an agile continuous integration and deployment process that cannot be stalled by the solution.

Which method enforces the required controls with the LEAST impact on the development process? (Choose two.)

A. Use IAM policies to restrict the ability of users or other automated entities to launch EC2 instances based on a specific set of pre-approved AMIs, such as those tagged in a specific way by Information Security.

B. Use regular scans within Amazon Inspector with a custom assessment template to determine if the EC2 instance that the Amazon Inspector Agent is running on is based upon a pre-approved AMI. If it is not, shut down the instance and inform Information Security by email that this occurred.

C. Only allow the launching of EC2 instances using a centralized DevOps team, which is given work packages via notifications from an internal ticketing system. Users make requests for resources using this ticketing tool, which has manual information security approval steps to ensure that EC2 instances are only launched from approved AMIs.

D. Use AWS Config rules to spot any launches of EC2 instances based on non-approved AMIs, trigger an AWS Lambda function to automatically terminate the instance, and publish a message to an Amazon SNS topic to inform Information Security that this occurred.

E. Use a scheduled AWS Lambda function to scan through the list of running instances within the virtual private cloud (VPC) and determine if any of these are based on unapproved AMIs. Publish a message to an SNS topic to inform Information Security that this occurred and then shut down the instance.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/evaluate-config_developrules_gettingstarted.html

NEW QUESTION 8

A user is creating a snapshot of an EBS volume. Which of the below statements is incorrect in relation to the creation of an EBS snapshot?

A. Its incremental
B. It is a point-in-time backup of the EBS volume
C. It can be used to create an AMI
D. It is stored in the same AZ as the volume

Correct Answer: D

The EBS snapshots are a point-in-time backup of the EBS volume. It is an incremental snapshot, but is always specific to the region and never specific to a single AZ. Hence the statement “It is stored in the same AZ as the volume” is incorrect.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/EBSSnapshots.html

NEW QUESTION 9

A company is using an Amazon EMR cluster to run its big data jobs. The cluster\’s jobs are invoked by AWS Step Functions Express Workflows that consume various Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queues. The workload of this solution is variable and unpredictable. Amazon CloudWatch metrics show that the cluster\’s peak utilization is only 25% at times and the cluster sits idle the rest of the time.

A solutions architect must optimize the costs of the cluster without negatively impacting the time it takes to run the various jobs. What is the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements?

A. Modify the EMR cluster by turning on automatic scaling of the core nodes and task nodes with a custom policy that is based on cluster utilization. Purchase Reserved Instance capacity to cover the master node.

B. Modify the EMR cluster to use an instance fleet of Dedicated On-Demand Instances for the master node and core nodes, and to use Spot Instances for the task nodes. Define the target capacity for each node type to cover the load.

C. Purchase Reserved Instances for the master node and core nodes. Terminate all existing task nodes in the EMR cluster.

D. Modify the EMR cluster to use capacity-optimized Spot Instances and a diversified task fleet. Define target capacity for each node type with a mix of On-Demand Instances and Spot Instances.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about Auto Scaling?

A. Auto Scaling can launch instances in different As.
B. Auto Scaling can work with CloudWatch.
C. Auto Scaling can launch an instance at a specific time.
D. Auto Scaling can launch instances in different regions.

Correct Answer: D

Auto Scaling provides an option to scale up and scale down based on certain conditions or triggers from Cloudwatch. A user can configure such that Auto Scaling launches instances across As, but it cannot span across regions.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AutoScaling/latest/DeveloperGuide/as-dg.pdf

NEW QUESTION 11

An eCommerce website running on AWS uses an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance with General Purpose SSD storage. The developers chose an appropriate instance type based on demand and configured 100 GB of storage with a sufficient amount of free space.

The website was running smoothly for a few weeks until a marketing campaign launched. On the second day of the campaign, users reported long wait times and time-outs. Amazon CloudWatch metrics indicated that both reads and writes to the DB instance were experiencing long response times. The CloudWatch metrics show 40% to 50% CPU and
memory utilization and sufficient free storage space are still available.

The application server logs show no evidence of database connectivity issues. What could be the root cause of the issue with the marketing campaign?

A. It exhausted the I/O credit balance due to provisioning low disk storage during the setup phase.

B. It caused the data in the tables to change frequently, requiring indexes to be rebuilt to optimize queries.

C. It exhausted the maximum number of allowed connections to the database instance.

D. It exhausted the network bandwidth available to the RDS for MySQL DB instance.

Correct Answer: A

“When using General Purpose SSD storage, your DB instance receives an initial I/O credit balance of 5.4 million I/O credits. This initial credit balance is enough to sustain a burst performance of 3,000 IOPS for 30 minutes.”

https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/database/how-to-use-cloudwatch-metrics-to-decide-between-generalpurpose-orprovisioned-iops-for-your-rds-database/

NEW QUESTION 12

A company that develops consumer electronics with offices in Europe and Asia has 60 TB of software images stored on premises in Europe. The company wants to transfer the images to an Amazon S3 bucket in the ap-northeast-1 Region.

New software images are created daily and must be encrypted in transit. The company needs a solution that does not require custom development to automatically transfer all existing and new software images to Amazon S3. What is the next step in the transfer process?

A. Deploy an AWS DataSync agent and configure a task to transfer the images to the S3 bucket
B. Configure Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to transfer the images using S3 Transfer Acceleration
C. Use an AWS Snowball device to transfer the images with the S3 bucket as the target
D. Transfer the images over a Site-to-Site VPN connection using the S3 API with multipart upload

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13

A company uses AWS Organizations to manage one parent account and nine-member accounts. The number of member accounts is expected to grow as the business grows. A security engineer has requested the consolidation of AWS CloudTrail logs into the parent account for compliance purposes. Existing logs currently stored in Amazon S3 buckets in
each individual member account should not be lost. Future member accounts should comply with the logging strategy.

Which operationally efficient solution meets these requirements?

A. Create an AWS Lambda function in each member account with a cross-account role. Trigger the Lambda functions when new CloudTrail logs are created and copy the CloudTrail logs to a centralized S3 bucket. Set up an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to alert if CloudTrail is not configured properly.

B. Configure CloudTrail in each member account to deliver log events to a central S3 bucket. Ensure the central S3 bucket policy allows PutObject access from the member accounts. Migrate existing logs to the central S3 bucket. Set up an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to alert if CloudTrail is not configured properly.

C. Configure an organization-level CloudTrail in the parent account to deliver log events to a central S3 bucket. Migrate the existing CloudTrail logs from each member account to the central S3 bucket. Delete the existing CloudTrail and logs in to the member accounts.

D. Configure an organization-level CloudTrail in the parent account to deliver log events to a central S3 bucket. Configure CloudTrail in each member account to deliver log events to the central S3 bucket.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/architecture/stream-amazon-cloudwatch-logs-to-a-centralizedaccount-foraudit-and-analysis/

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