Index

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QUESTION 70
A company has these requirements for access to their wireless and wired corporate LANs using 802.1x:
Client devices that are corporate assets and have been joined to the Active Directory domain are allowed access.

Personal devices must not be allowed access.

Clients and access servers must be mutually authenticated.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol/Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol Version 2 with user authentication
B. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security with machine authentication
C. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security with user authentication
D. Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol/Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol Version 2 with machine authentication

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 71
You are designing a wireless LAN with the following components:

High-density indoor access point deployment

2.4-GHz and 5-GHz radios

802.11a, 802.11g, and 802.11n mode wireless LAN clients
Site survey results show negligible foreign WiFi and non-WiFi interference. What is the best method to decrease duty cycle (radio frequency utilization) and increase overall wireless LAN client performance for this design?
A. Disable all data rates below 12 Mb/s on all access points.
B. Decrease radio transmit power on all access points that report a high duty cycle.
C. Increase radio transmit power on all access points that report a high duty cycle.
D. Disable all data rates above 12 Mb/s on all access points.
E. Increase radio transmit power on all access points.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
You are designing an optical network. Your goal is to ensure that your design contains the highest degree of resiliency. In which two ways will you leverage a wavelength-switched optical network solution in your network design? (Choose two.)
A. a wavelength-switched optical network assigns routing and wavelength information
B. a wavelength-switched optical network takes linear and nonlinear optical impairment calculation into account
C. a wavelength-switched optical network guarantees restoration based strictly on the shortest path available
D. a wavelength-switched optical network eliminates the need for dispersion compensating units in a network

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 73
You are the SAN designer for the ABC Company. Due to budget constraints, there is increased pressure by management to further optimize server utilization by implementing virtualization technologies on all servers and increase virtual machines density. Faced with some SAN challenges, the server team requests your help in the design and implementation of the SAN in the new virtualized environment.
In which two ways can NPIV be used in your proposed design? (Choose two.)
A. NPIV is used to assign multiple FCIDs to a single N Port.
B. NPIV is used to define and bind multiple virtual WWNs (VIs) to a single physical pWWN.
C. You recommend NPIV so that hosts can be members of different zones.
D. NPIV can be used to allow multiple applications on the same port to use different IDs in the same VSAN.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 74
You are designing a network for a branch office. In order to improve convergence time, you are required to use the BFD feature. Which four routing protocols can you use to facilitate this? (Choose four.)
A. EIGRP
B. IS-IS
C. BGP
D. static
E. RIP
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 75
When developing an MVPN design, which performance and scalability consideration must be taken into account?
A. CE end-to-end PIM adjacency establishment
B. multicast data sent to all PE routers on the default MDT
C. RP placement in the multicast VRF
D. RP placement in the customer network
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 76
In order to meet your service level agreement, your network designer created a design solution that includes interface dampening. In which two ways will interface dampening benefit your overall network design? (Choose two.)
A. Interface dampening uses an exponential backoff algorithm to suppress event reporting to the upper-level protocols.
B. When the interface is dampened, further link events are not reported to the upper protocol modules.
C. When the interface is dampened, further link events are reported to the upper protocol module.
D. Periodic interface flapping that affects the routing system as a whole should have a period shorter than the system convergence time.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 77
A company wants to use SSM as the multicast routing protocol inside its network. Some of its multicast applications do not support IGMPv3. In which two ways can the mapping be done when these applications send IGMPv2 join messages? (Choose two.)
A. The Layer 2 switches can send a request to a DNS server.
B. The Layer 3 multicast routers can send a request to a DNS server.
C. The mapping can be done statically at the Layer 2 switches.
D. The mapping can be done statically at the Layer 3 multicast routers.
E. The Layer 2 switches can transform the IGMPv2 join to an IGMPv3lite join.
F. The Layer 3 multicast routers can transform the IGMPv2 join to an IGMPv3lite join.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 78
A company plans to use BFD between its routers to detect a connectivity problem inside the switched network. An IPS is transparently installed between the switches. Which packets should the IPS forward for BFD to work under all circumstances?
A. IP packets with broadcast IP source addresses
B. IP packets with identical source and destination IP addresses
C. fragmented packets with the do-not-fragment bit set
D. IP packets with the multicast IP source address
E. IP packets with the multicast IP destination address
F. IP packets with the destination IP address 0.0.0.0

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
What is a design aspect regarding multicast transport for MPLS Layer 3 VPNs using the Rosen Draft implementation?
A. LDP is the multicast control plane protocol.
B. Multicast traffic is forwarded over GRE tunnels.
C. Multicast traffic is forwarded over LDP or RSVP signaled LSPs.
D. Using the MDT SAFI in BGP ensures that PIM can be disabled in the core.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
A network designer wants to improve a company network design due to multiple network crashes. Which technology would allow for the restore of a network connection without informing the Layer 3 protocol?
A. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
B. automatic protection switching
C. UniDirectional Link Detection
D. Ethernet OAM

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
ACME Corporation is integrating IPv6 into their network, which relies heavily on multicast distribution of data. Which two IPv6 integration technologies support IPv6 multicast? (Choose two.)
A. 6VPE
B. 6PE
C. dual stack
D. ISATAP
E. 6to4
F. IPv6INIP

Correct Answer: CF  https://www.itcertlab.com/cisco-352-001-pdf.html
QUESTION 82
Network designers plan to interconnect two geographically separated data centers using an Ethernet-over-MPLS pseudowire. Within that design, the link between the sites is stable, there are no apparent loops in the topology, and the root bridges for the respective VLANs are stable and unchanging. What additional aspect of the design should be adjusted to mitigate the chance of connectivity issues to the peer data center when the connection takes place?
A. Enable 802.1d on one data center, and 802.1w on the other.
B. Ensure that the spanning tree diameter for one or more VLANs is not too large.
C. Enable UDLD on the link between the data centers.
D. Enable root guard on the link between the data centers.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
You are the lead IP/MPLS network designer of a service provider called XYZ. You are leading a design discussion regarding IPv6 implementation in the XYZ

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NO.1 Which protocol reachability is advertised by OSPFv2?
A. IPv5
B. IPv4
C. IPv6
D. ISO
Answer: B

NO.2 Which option is a valid IPv6 multicast address?
A. ff01:cgfc:345:22::226:8ff:fee4:bf6f
B. ::172.16.0.5 /126
C. ff03:365:ba::23
D. fe80::205:8640:471:3200/ 64
Answer: C

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JNCIP-ENT Exam Objectives (Exam: JN0-643 and JN0-646)

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Cisco Unified Communications (UC) solutions. A candidate is tested on knowledge of administrator and end-user interfaces, telephony and mobility features, and Cisco 210-060  UC solutions maintenance.

http://www.leads4pass.com/210-060.html

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 210-060
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices (CICD)
Version: Demo
QUESTION 1
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
F. Cisco Expressway

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.

When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.

Emergency calls from a Branch router phone is failing. From the router configuration information provided, why is this call failing?
A. The dial-peer port assignment is incorrect
B. the digit string prefix is missing
C. The destination pattern is incorrect
D. digit stripping needs to be performed

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.

International calls are also failing. Using the router configuration supplied, why are international calls failing?
A. Prefix should be 00
B. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
C. The port should be 0/0/0:12
D. The destination pattern is missing a “0”

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.

Calls to National numbers are failing. Using the Branch router configuration, correctly determine why these calls are not successful
A. The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B. The destination pattern should be 90T
C. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D. The digit prefix should be “00”

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11

Read more: http://www.itcertlab.com/cisco-352-001–pdf.html
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.
CICD Exam – The Cisco Learning Network: https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/community/certifications/ccna-collaboration/cicd
https://www.leads4pass.com/210-060.html

QUESTION 81
Hotspot Questions Select three options which are security issues with the current configuration of SwitchA . (Choose three.)

A. privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password
B. inappropriate wording in banner message
C. virtual terminal lines are protected only by a password requirement
D. both the username and password are weak
E. telnet connections can be used to remotely manage the switch
F. cisco user will be granted privilege level 15 by default

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(This answer can be done by simulation only, don’t know user name password and banner message etc)

QUESTION 82
Hotspot Questions

Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.)
A. at least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported
C. remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed D. console line connections will nevertime out due to inactivity
E. since DHCP is not used on FaO/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The IP address can accommodate 5 hosts at least, telnet can be accessed on the router

QUESTION 83
Hotspot Questions
Cisco 100-101 Exam Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Ssh login requires a user name and password always while other conditions may or may not be true.
Cisco 100-101 Exam

QUESTION 84
Lab Questions
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The IP address assigned to FA0/1 is 192.168.8.9/29, making 192.168.8.15 the broadcast address.
Cisco 100-101 Exam

Answer: 6
Explanation:
This is a /29 address, so there are 6 usable IP’s on this subnet.
Cisco 100-101 Exam
Answer: Router1(conf)# interface fa0/1
Router1(conf0if)# no shutdown
Explanation:
Do a “show ip int brief” and you will see that Fa0/1 has an IP address assigned, but it is shut down.

QUESTION 85
Refer to the output of the corporate router routing table shown in the graphic. The corporate router receives an IP packet with a source IP address of 192.168.214.20 and a destination address of
192.168.22.3. What will the router do with this packet?

A. It will encapsulate the packet as Frame Relay and forward it out interface Serial 0/0.117.
B. It will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out interface “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 60 Cisco 100-101 Exam FastEthernet 0/0.
C. It will forward the packet out interface Serial 0/1 and send an ICMP Echo Reply message out interface serial 0/0.102.
D. It will change the IP packet to an ARP frame and forward it out FastEthernet 0/0.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?
A. IP address: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
B. IP address: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
D. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
E. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
E. 130
F. 170

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A. 172.19.20.0
B. 172.19.20.15
C. 172.19.20.16
D. 172.19.20.20 “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 61 Cisco 100-101 Exam
E. 172.19.20.32

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
The network administrator has found the following problem. The remote networks 172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0 are accessed through the Central router’s serial 0/0 interface. No users are able to access 172.16.20.0. After reviewing the command output shown in the graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. no gateway of last resort on Central
B. Central router’s not receiving 172.16.20.0 update
C. incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0
D. 172.16.20.0 not located in Central’s routing table

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit. The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router.
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 62 Cisco 100-101 Exam

A. A Core router.
B. The HQ Internet gateway router.
C. The WAN router at the central site.
D. Remote stub router at a remote site.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91

To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two.)
A. R2(config-if)#clock rate
B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth
C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority
E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 74 Cisco 100-101 Exam

A. No messages are exchanged
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos
are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the default
is 30 seconds.
Although OSPF is a link-state protocol but the full database from each router is sent every 30 minutes (not
seconds) -> C and D are not correct.

QUESTION 93
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?

“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 75 Cisco 100-101 Exam
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?

A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 172.16.2.1
D. 172.16.2.225

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router and is chosen using the following
sequence:

+
The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. + If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router’s physical interfaces will be chosen.

+
The router ID can be manually assigned In this case, because a loopback interface is not configured so the highest active IP address 192.168.0.1 is chosen as the router ID.

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To obtain a professional certificate, you are first required to select a certificate that is in alignment with your abilities and skills. You are then required to prepare for the 700-505 certificate exam. You must bear in mind that effective preparation is necessary for you to clear Cisco 700-505 exam in the first attempt.

QUESTION 1
Which option is an online conferencing solution that allows participants to see; hear and share
content and applications in real time?

A. Cisco Unity
B. Cisco ISR with Conferencing service module
C. Borderless Networks
D. WebEx meetings

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco Services-Ready Engine to deploy
services on demand? (Choose two.)

A. 3900 Series
B. 2900 Series
C. 2800 Series
D. 800 Series

Answer: A,B

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QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.
B. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5.
C. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.
D. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.
E. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.
F. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 52
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 38 Cisco 200-120 Exam
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit.

C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?
A. The command is rejected.
B. The port turns amber.
C. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
D. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 88 Cisco 200-120 Exam

A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?
A. The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.
B. The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.
C. At least one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate.
D. Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.
E. A router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on Sw12.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 89 Cisco 200-120 Exam Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator’s next action be?

A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC’s fa0/1 port.
B. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC’s fa0/1 port.
C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA’s fa0/2 port.
D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA’s fa0/2 port.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 58
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 92 Cisco 200-120 Exam switched LAN?
A. during high traffic periods
B. after broken links are re-established
C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D. in an improperly implemented redundant topology
E. when a dual ring topology is in use

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit.

What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 66 Cisco 200-120 Exam Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 60
Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified.
What will happen in this scenario?
A. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 61
Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?
A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Root Guard
D. BPDU Guard
E. BPDU Filter

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 62
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 82 Cisco 200-120 Exam network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 85
The core of a network has four routers connected in a square design with Gigabit Ethernet links using /30
subnets. The network is used to carry voice traffic and other applications.
Convergence time is taking more than expected. Which three actions would you take to improve OSPF
convergence time? (Choose three.)

A. Increase MTU of the interfaces to accommodate larger OSPF packets.
B. Change the network type to point-to-point on those links.
C. Reduce SPF initial timer.
D. Increase hello interval to avoid adjacency flapping.
E. Enable OSPF.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit. BGP-4 routing to the Internet, in normal behavior, may create asymmetrical routing for different prefixes. The BGP routing table indicates that traffic should follow the paths indicated in the exhibit, but packets are not going further than the border router in AS 4. What could be the cause of this problem?

A. TCP Intercept is configured in AS 4.
B. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding is configured in loose mode in this router.
C. Packets may be leaving AS 1 without the BGP routing flag set to 1.
D. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding is configured in strict mode in this router.
E. There is a missing Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding configuration.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
You replaced your Layer 3 switch, which is the default gateway of the end users. Many users cannot access anything now, including email, Internet, and other applications, although other users do not have any issues. All of the applications are hosted in an outsourced data
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
center. In order to fix the problem, which one of these actions should you take?
A. Clear the MAC address table in the switch.
B. Clear the ARP cache in the switch.
C. Clear the ARP cache in the end devices.
D. Clear the ARP cache in the application servers.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
An 802.1Q trunk is not coming up between two switches. The ports on both switches are configured as “switchport mode desirable.” Assuming that there is no physical issue, choose two possible causes. (Choose two.)
A. Incorrect VTP domain
B. Incorrect VTP password
C. Incorrect VTP mode
D. Incorrect VTP configuration revision

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. Look at the command output. What would be the most probable reason for this port-ID mismatch?

A. spanning-tree misconfiguration
B. speed mismatch configuration
C. cabling problem
D. configuration problem

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit. Look at the command output. Assume that there is no other path, and the configuration is correct. What would be the consequences of this situation?

A. Users in SW1 can ping SW2 but not vice versa.
B. Users in SW2 can ping SW1 but not vice versa.
C. Users in SW1 and SW2 can ping each other.
D. Users in SW1 and SW2 cannot ping each other.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. Look at the command output. What can you use to prevent this behavior?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

A. UDLD
B. spanning-tree loopguard
C. VTP mode transparent
D. switchport mode desirable

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
When using IP SLA FTP operation, which two FTP modes are supported? (Choose two.)
A. Only the FTP PUT operation type is supported.
B. Active mode is supported.
C. Passive FTP transfer modes are supported.
D. FTP URL specified for the FTP GET operation is not supported.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 93
If a certificate authority trustpoint is not configured when enabling HTTPS and the remote HTTPS server requires client authentication, connections to the secure HTTP client will fail. Which command must be enabled for correct operation?
A. ip http client secure-ciphersuite 3des-ede-cbc-sha
B. ip https max-connections 10
C. ip http timeout-policy idle 30 life 120 requests 100
D. ip http client secure-trustpoint trustpoint-name

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 94
Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 network uses VTP to manage its VLAN database. A network designer created all VLANs on the VTP server (switch 1) and it has been advertised through VTP to all other VTP clients (switches 2 through 4). Due to network growth, a network
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
operator decided to add a new switch between switch 1 and switch 3. The network operator has been instructed to use a refurbished switch and use a VTP client. Which three of these factors should the network operator consider to minimize the impact of adding a new switch? (Choose three.)

A. Pay special attention to the VTP revision number, because the higher value takes the priority.
B. Configure all VLANs manually on the new switch in order to avoid connectivity issues.
C. A trunk should be established between the new switch and switches 1 and 3 as VTP only runs over trunk links.
D. Set at least the VTP domain name and password to get the new switch synchronized.
E. An ISL trunk should be established between the new switch and switches 1 and 3, because VTP only runs over ISL.
F. Pay special attention to the VTP revision number, because the lower value takes the priority.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 95
A request arrived on your MPLS-vpn-bgp group. Due to a security breach, your customer is experiencing DoS attacks coming from specific subnets (200.0.10.0/24, 200.0.12.0/24). You have checked all MPLS-EBGP routes being advertised to BHK from other VPN sites and found four subnets listed:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 96
0.10.0/24, 200.0.11.0/24, 200.0.12.0/24, 200.0.13.0/24. You immediately apply an outbound ACL filter using the appropriate MPLS-EBGP tool: access-list 1 deny 0.0.0.0
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 97
255.254.255 access-list 1 permit any What happens when you apply this ACL on the MPLS-EBGP connection to BHK?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
A. It blocks all routes.
B. It blocks the routes 200.0.12.0/24, 200.0.10.0/24 only.
C. It blocks the routes 200.0.12.0/24, 200.0.13.0/24 only.
D. It blocks the routes 200.0.10.0/24, 200.0.13.0/24 only.
E. Nothing happens, no routes are blocked.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
Half of your network uses RIPv2 and the other half runs OSPF. The networks do not communicate with each other. Which two of these factors describe the impact of activating EIGRP over each separate part? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP will not be accepted when configured on the actual RIPv2 routers.
B. OSPF will no longer be used in the routing table, because you only have EIGRP internal routes running.
C. OSPF will no longer be used in the routing table, because you only have EIGRP external routes running.
D. RIPv2 will populate its RIP database but not its routing table, because you only have EIGRP external routes running.
E. RIPv2 will populate its RIP database but not its routing table, because you only have EIGRP internal routes running.
F. OSPF database will have RIPv2 routes.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 99
Your company is researching a new application that runs over IPv6, but part of it must still have IPv4 support. Your company uses a traditional IPv4 network. Your plan is not to run IPv6 over the whole network, but to segment parts of the network or even to operate simultaneously with IPv6 and IPv4. You must make a brief presentation about IPv6 technology to the board of technical directors. Which three of these items could be part of your presentation? (Choose three.)
A. Tunnel IPv6 over IPv4 to connect far-end IPv6 networks.
B. Explain why configuring IPv4 and IPv6 at the same time over the same LAN interface is not possible.
C. Explain why configuring IPv4 and IPv6 at the same time over the same LAN interface is possible.
D. What is the meaning of EUI-64 and how does it work?
E. Tunnel IPv4 over IPv6 to connect far-end IPv4 networks.

Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 62
Which option is a characteristic of a stateful firewall?
A. can analyze traffic at the application layer
B. allows modification of security rule sets in real time to allow return traffic
C. will allow outbound communication, but return traffic must be explicitly permitted
D. supports user authentication

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Which statement about disabled signatures when using Cisco IOS IPS is true?
A. They do not take any actions, but do produce alerts.
B. They are not scanned or processed.
C. They still consume router resources.
D. They are considered to be “retired” signatures.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Which type of intrusion prevention technology is the primary type used by the Cisco IPS security appliances?
A. profile-based
B. rule-based
C. protocol analysis-based
D. signature-based
E. NetFlow anomaly-based
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
DRAG DROP A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 66
DRAG DROP

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 67
DRAG DROP
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 68
DRAG DROP
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 69
DRAG DROP

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 70
DRAG DROP
Match the descriptions on the left with the IKE phases on the right.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 71
DRAG DROP

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 72
DRAG DROP A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 73
CORRECT TEXT
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 74
Scenario: You are the security admin for a small company. This morning your manager has supplied you with a list of Cisco ISR and CCP configuration questions. Using CCP, your job is to navigate the pre-configured CCP in order to find answers to your business question. Which four properties are included in the inspection Cisco Map OUT_SERVICE? (Choose four)

A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. SMTP
E. P2P
F. ICMP

Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 75
Scenario:
You are the security admin for a small company. This morning your manager has supplied you with a list of
Cisco ISR and CCP configuration questions. Using CCP, your job is to navigate the pre-configured CCP in
order to find answers to your business question.
Which Class Map is used by the INBOUND Rule?
A. SERVICE_IN
B. Class-map-ccp-cls-2
C. Ccp-cts-2
D. Class-map SERVICE_IN

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Scenario:
You are the security admin for a small company. This morning your manager has supplied you with a list of
Cisco ISR and CCP configuration questions. Using CCP, your job is to navigate the pre-configured CCP in
order to find answers to your business question.
Which policy is assigned to Zone Pair sdm-zip-OUT-IN?
A. Sdm-cls-http
B. OUT_SERVICE
C. Ccp-policy-ccp-cls-1
D. Ccp-policy-ccp-cls-2
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 87
Which option describes why most wireless phones and tablets do not use 802.11a/n and 40 MHz channels?
A. a lack of radio range when using these radios
B. a lack of device battery capacity to operate concurrent a/b/g/n radios
C. a lack of cooling in the device necessary to operate these radios
D. These radios would require the devices to be larger.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
An AP has been configured for personal wireless access to the Internet using appropriate security and cloaking. Which two items should be configured on the wireless client? (Choose two.)
A. RF channel
B. BSS
C. PSK
D. 802.1X/EAP
E. broadcast SSID
F. manual SSID
G. IBSS
Correct Answer: CF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Neighboring APs offering the same connection type and parameters use the same name, or service set identifier (SSID, which is a simple ASCII string providing a name to the connection). Neighboring APs offering the same connection use the same SSID, but each AP identifies itself by associating its radio MAC address to the SSID string. This associated MAC address is called the basic service set identifier (BSSID), and it enables stations to know which AP offers which SSID
QUESTION 89
The introduction of consumer phones and tablets into enterprise WLANs can have an impact on 802.11a/b/g/n deployments. The Apple iPhone 4 and iPad 2 are very common examples.
Which statement best describes the abilities of these devices?
A. The Apple iPhone 4 and the iPad 2 use 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The Apple iPhone 4 uses only one spatial stream and the iPad 2 uses two spatial streams.
B. The Apple iPhone 4 uses only 2.4 GHz and the iPad 2 only uses 5 GHz. The Apple iPhone 4 uses only one spatial stream and the iPad 2 uses two spatial streams.
C. The Apple iPhone 4 uses 2.4 GHz and the iPad 2 uses 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz. The Apple iPhone 4 only uses one spatial stream and the iPad 2 uses two spatial streams.
D. The Apple iPhone 4 uses 2.4 GHz and the iPad 2 uses 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz. The Apple iPhone 4 and the iPad 2 use only one spatial stream.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Which key combination provides a detailed wireless connection status for an Apple MacBook running 10.6?
A. Command + Click the SSID of the network
B. Alt + Click the SSID of the network
C. Command + the Airport icon
D. Option + the Airport icon
E. Ctrl + the Airport Icon
F. Option + Click the SSID of the network
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
You are in a coffee shop and you have connected to their wireless hot-spot. Your Windows 7 wireless client shows five green bars with a yellow shield.
Which statement about the level of signal strength and the WLAN security that is present is true?
A. You have excellent signal strength and a secure network connection.
B. Your wireless client needs a username and password before it can connect to the WLAN.
C. You have excellent signal strength and the client is waiting for you to enter a username and password.
D. Your laptop is not receiving a signal.
E. Your laptop is receiving an excellent signal and the network security is open.
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
You are sitting in an airport preparing to use a free WLAN. When you look at the connections in your Windows 7 wireless client, you see a network name and three boxes with a yellow shield.
What does this mean?
A. You cannot connect to this WLAN.
B. An open ad hoc network is nearby.
C. The WLAN in the airport is open.
D. A secure ad hoc network is nearby.
E. A secure WLAN is in the airport.
F. You must provide a username and password to access the WLAN in the airport.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
How are application-specific devices differentiated from laptop computers in the way they support Cisco Compatible Extensions?
A. ASDs are required to support only Cisco Compatible Extensions v1 and v2 features. Laptops must support all Cisco Compatible Extensions features.
B. ASDs are required to support only Cisco Compatible Extensions v5 management features, while laptops are required to support optional features.
C. Several features that are required for laptops are not required for ASDs.
D. There is no differentiation. ASDs and laptops must both support the same Cisco Compatible Extensions features.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
Which Cisco AnyConnect module provides wireless connectivity?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers.
Which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
B. implements the validation of wireless management frames
C. requires Cisco Compatible Extensions v5
D. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
E. requires Cisco Compatible Extensions v4
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which open standard defines the combination of Extensible Authentication Protocol with Advanced Encryption Standard for providing strong wireless LAN client security?
A. IEEE 802.1X
B. IEEE 802.11i
C. WEP
D. WPA
E. WPA2
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
When a wireless client is authenticated in a controller-based wireless network, which three pieces of source identification information can be used by the controller for an Access-Request message that is sent to an external RADIUS server? (Choose three.)
A. wireless client IP address
B. controller IP address
C. AP IP address
D. wireless client MAC address
E. controller MAC address
F. AP MAC address
Correct Answer: BEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Which official port should be used when configuring external RADIUS authentication on a Cisco WLC version 7.0?
A. 49
B. 1645
C. 1646
D. 1812
E. 1813
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
How many RADIUS servers can be configured globally and per WLAN on a Cisco WLC version 7.0?
A. 7 global; additional 1 per WLAN
B. 7 global; additional 3 per WLAN
C. 17 global; additional 1 per WLAN
D. 17 global; additional 3 per WLAN
E. 7 global; reuse of up to 1 maximum per WLAN
F. 17 global; reuse of up to 1 maximum per WLAN
G. 17 global; reuse of up to 3 maximum per WLAN
Correct Answer: G Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
Which statement about the impact of configuring a single SSID to support TKIP and AES encryption simultaneously is true?
A. The overhead associated with supporting both encryption methods significantly degrades client throughput.
B. Some wireless client drivers might not handle complex SSID settings and may be unable to associate to the WLAN.
C. This configuration is unsupported and the Cisco Wireless Control System generates alarms continuously until the configuration is corrected.
D. This configuration is common for migrating from WPA to WPA2. No problem is associated with using this configuration.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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