Index

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QUESTION 77
Which two items are used to help convert a lightweight AP into an autonomous AP? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP express setup on the AP
B. Cisco WCS template
C. Cisco WLC CLI
D. Windows Cisco Conversion Tool
E. image with naming convention of platform_name-k9w7-tar.default
F. image with naming convention of platform_name-rcvk9w8-tar
Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Which three AP modes of operation allow for the wIPS sub mode? (Choose three.)
A. local mode
B. bridge mode
C. monitor mode
D. H-REAP mode
E. rogue detector mode
F. SE-Connect mode
G. sniffer mode
Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
A lightweight AP has been deployed in local mode in a network that consists of 10 wireless LAN controllers in a single mobility group. The AP has been configured to use primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco WLCs. Due to a major power failure, all those Cisco WLCs are unavailable.
Which step does the AP take next?
A. The AP reboots and repeatedly attempts to join the configured primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco WLCs in that order. The process continues until one of the configured Cisco WLCs is available.
B. The AP attempts to join a Cisco WLC configured as a master controller.
C. The AP attempts to join the Cisco WLC that has the greatest capacity available.
D. The AP state transitions to AP Fallback Mode and continues to provide limited WLAN services (that is, no new client authentications) until a Cisco WLC is available.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
An AP using version 7.0 MR1 broadcasts a Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery message on the local IP subnet. Which step does the AP take next?
A. Determine if the controller responses include the primary controller.
B. Determine if the controller responses include the master controller.
C. Send a discovery request using DHCP option 43.
D. Send a discovery request using DNS.
E. Send a discovery request using locally stored information on the AP.
F. Send a discovery request using OTAP.
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
Which three Cisco Unified Wireless Network capabilities use information that is provided by Radio Resource Management neighbor messages? (Choose three.)
A. aggressive load balancing
B. dynamic channel assignment
C. hybrid remote edge access point
D. inter controller mobility (that is, mobility groups)
E. over-the-air provisioning
F. rogue AP classification
Correct Answer: BEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
A controller is connected to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch port configuration looks like this:
interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/10 switchport switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50 switchport trunk native vlan 20 switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the native VLAN interface of the Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which three options relate to event-driven RRM? (Choose three.)
A. any 802.11n AP models
B. specific AP models
C. minimum of AP and WLC
D. minimum of AP, WLC, and WCS
E. minimum of AP, WLC, WCS, and MSE
F. configurable in WLC at 802.11b/g/n > RRM > TPC
G. configurable in WLC at 802.11b/g/n > RRM > DCA
Correct Answer: BCG Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
A Cisco Aironet 1260 AP is unable to join a Cisco 2500 Series WLC that is connected through a Layer 2 switch.
Which three options help to verify the wireless network operation and locate a possible issue? (Choose three.)
A. Verify status of GUI Wireless > Country
B. Verify status of GUI Wireless > Timers
C. Verify status of GUI WLANs > ID > Advanced
D. CLI debug of dot11
E. CLI debug of DHCP
F. Verify Cisco WLC license
G. Verify Cisco WLC model
Correct Answer: AEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
An AP has been configured for personal wireless access to the Internet.
Which item should be configured on the wireless client?
A. RF channel
B. BSS
C. PSK
D. 802.1X/EAP
E. broadcast SSID

F. IBSS
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
You need to set up an ad hoc connection to another client in a conference room to exchange files using Windows 7. Which two items do you need to create this connection? (Choose two.)
A. SSID name
B. RF channel
C. 802.1X/EAP credentials
D. pre-shared key
E. Telnet
F. IBSS name
G. SSH
Correct Answer: DF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 131
How do determine what version of firewall kernel a customer is using?
A. Fw ver.
B. Cp kernel.
C. Fw ver -k.
D. Fw kernel -v.
E. Cp cu -v.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 132
When you select the Pre-Shared Secret check box in the IKE Properties window:
A. The firewall can authenticate itself by a public-key signature.
B. The firewall can authenticate itself using SecuRemote only.
C. The firewall can authenticate itself by a pre-shared secret.
D. The firewall can authenticate itself using all standard and non-standard IKE authentication methods.
E. The firewall can authenticate itself using a modified pre-shared secret key.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
What is the Check Point recommended sequence for performing the following operations?
1.
Install operating system.

2.
Finish hardening the operating system.

3.
Patch operating system.

4.
Install firewall.

5.
Patch firewall.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2.
C. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5.
D. 1, 4, 3, 5, 2.
E. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 134
To reduce the effectiveness of traffic sniffing inside the LAN, internal users should have the _______ installed in their desktop.
A. Management
B. Real Secure.
C. Enforcement
D. Policy Server.
E. Secure Client

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 135
Which of the following selections lists the three security components essential to guaranteeing the security of network connections?
A. Encryption, inspection, routing.
B. NAT, traffic control, topology.
C. Static addressing, cryptosystems, spoofing.
D. Encryption, authentication, integrity.
E. DHCP, quality of service, IP pools.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 136
If you wish to move any Secure Client files to another directory.
A. Uninstall and reinstall Secure Client first.
B. Restore the original files before uninstalling Secure Client.
C. Upgrade Secure Client, then uninstall and reinstall.
D. One of the above.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
You are installing Check Point VPN-1/Firewall-1 on a Windows NT platform. The machine will only be used
to install policies on Enforcement Modules. No other machine in the network will perform the function.
While installing the following installation screen of “VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enterprise Product” appears.
The screen shows “Please select the VPN-1/Firewall-1 Product Type you are about to install”. Which
option should you choose?

A. Enterprise Primary Management.
B. Enterprise Security Management.
C. Enforcement Module & Primary Management.
D. Enforcement Module.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 138
The ________ load balancing algorithm uses ICMP to determine the shortest time to and from the firewall and each individual physical server. It then chooses the server with the shortest time.

A. Server Load.
B. Router Load.
C. Round Trip
D. Round Robin
E. Domain

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 139
Patrick has been hired to devise a security solution for a company that provides in-home care. Visiting Nurses use Internet connections to transmit confidential patient data to a database server located at the corporate office. The visiting Nurses at the remote locations must have a secure connection to the database server to protect patient confidentiality. The database server itself must also be protected from external threats. The human resources department would like to have access to information about their Nurses access the database server. Accounting would like to offer Nurses the option of submitting their time sheets from remote locations, provided this can be accomplished in a secure manner. Patrick proposes installing Check Point VPN/Firewall-1 at the perimeter of the corporate LAN. He recommends installing Check Point Secure Client in the laptops used by the visiting Nurses. Patrick suggests rules allowing only client-authenticated traffic to the accounting server. To reduce resource consumption, Patrick advises his customer not to log any traffic passing through the Enforcement Module. Choose the one phrase below that best describes Patrick’s proposal.
A. The proposed solution meets the required objectives and none of the desired objectives.
B. The proposed solution meets the required objectives and only one of the desired objectives.
C. The proposed solution meets the required objectives and all desired objectives.
D. The proposed solution does not meet the required objective.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 140
When using the Load Measuring Agent, you can add a new server without stopping and starting anything. Review the steps listed below and select the response demonstrating the correct order for adding a new server for Load Measuring.
1.
Install the agent on the server.

2.
Add the object for the new server to the existing rule in the Rule Base.

3.
Re-install the Security Policy.
A. 1, 2, 3.
B. 2, 1, 3.
C. 2, 3, 1.
D. 1, 3, 2.
E. 3, 2, 1.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 141
What is the purpose of cplic check?
A. Allow you to perform the license installation.
B. Verification of the license expiration data.
C. It is a alternate to the printlic command.
D. Validates a license feature.
E. Verification of the external IP address.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 142
If you have modified your network configuration by removing the firewall adapters, you can reinstall these adapters by reinstalling Secure Client.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 143
Hector is a security administrator for a large, global enterprise that is preparing to implement VPN-1/ Firewall-1. In the first phase of the rollout all Enforcement Modules will be installed at a central warehouse before being shipped to the final sites and final set-up. Site-specific information is not available to the warehouse installer. What are the MINIMUM elements Hector must configure to complete Enforcement Module installation?
A. Management Server IP address.
B. Certificate Authority.
C. Shared Secret Key.
D. One Time Password.
E. Security Servers.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 144
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. A policy Server extends security to the desktop by allowing administrators to enforce a Security Policy on desktops -both inside a LAN and connecting from the Internet -this preventing authorized connections from being compromised.
B. A Policy Server must be on a firewalled machine with CP shared installed.
C. A Policy Server supports all platforms.
D. To use Policy Server in a network, you must have Policy Server from which Secure Client obtains its Desktop Policy.
E. To use Policy Server in a network, you must have Secure Client software.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 145
Content Vectoring Protocol (CVP), by default uses which TCP? port 10101, and:
A. 80
B. 141
C. 10101
D. 18181

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 146
Paul will be installing all of the components of VPN-1/Firewall-1 on a single machine. Company growth will require moving to a distributed environment as additional Enforcement Modules are added over the next six months. While installing, which option should Paul select to facilitate the transition six months from now?
A. Enterprise Primary Management.
B. Enterprise Security Management.
C. Enforcement Module & Primary Management.
D. Enforcement Module.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 147
In the IKE properties window, you can use the Data Integrity drop-down menu to select:
A. The cryptographic checksum method to be used for ensuring data integrity.
B. The Certificate Authority to be used for ensuring data integrity.
C. The shared secret to be used for ensuring data integrity.
D. The CA checksum method to be used for ensuring data integrity.
E. The shared-secret checksum method to be used for ensuring data integrity.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 148
You must configure your firewall for Hybrid IKE Secure Client connections. Which of the following fields MUST be selected to allow backward compatibility with earlier version of the Secure Client?
A. Respond to Unauthenticated topology requests (IKE and PF1).
B. Cache static passwords on desktop.
C. Required policy for all desktops and Desktop if enforcing the required policy.
D. A and B.
E. A and C.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 149
Your Manager has requested that you implement a policy that prevents users on the network from transferring confidential files out of the intranet using FTP. You also want to check for virus signatures on those files entering the intranet. You setup an FTP resource and add it to the Service field of a rule. You have only redefined the FTP resource and selected the Get option under the Match tab. Does this meet all of the requirements of your manager?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 150
Secure Client syntax checking can be used to monitor usersc.C file parameters. The checking is used to prevent errors causing the site, to which it belongs from being deleted.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 151
The Service drop-down menu in the OPSEC Definition Properties window allows you to select a service for
communication with a server from the drop-down list.
The service contains the port number to watch the filer server listens. For UFP Server, the service is:

A. FW1_UFP
B. FW1_sam
C. UFP_FW1
D. FWNG_UFP
E. FW1_NG_UFP
Correct Answer: QUESTION 152
You are concerned that an electronically transmitted message may be intercepted and manipulated as if it came from you. This would compromise the accuracy of the communications. To secure the validity of the original message sent, you attach a _______.
A. Tag
B. Sender flag.
C. Diffie-Hellman verification.
D. Private key.
E. Digital signature.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 153
When designing your company’s content security solution, where should you place the CVP anti-virus server for the best performance?
A. On the company’s internal Web Server.
B. On the firewall itself.
C. In any server with the internal network.
D. On a server on an internal dedicated network connected to a separate NIC in the firewall.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 154
You are using Hybrid IKE. The certificate is not created in the Certificates tab of the VPN-1/Firewall-1 network object; even after “Internal CA created successfully” is displayed “fw internalca create” is displayed as having been issued. Which if the following lists the most likely cause of the problem, and the appropriate remedy?
A. The distinguished name used in the “fw internalca create” and “fw interalca certify” commands is too long. In this case, use a shorter name.
B. Perform fwstop and move the objects.sav objects.bak and other files with objects.* from $FWDIR/conf directory except the objects.c file. Perform the “fw interalca create” and “fw interalca certify” again with the -force option.
C. Under the Firewall object> VPN> IKE> Support Authentication Methods, Hybrid is unchecked. Select Hybrid and stop and start the firewall.
D. Certificate created by internal CA is somehow corrupt. Recreate the certificate with the -force option.
E. Options A and B.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 155
You are developing network between separate corporate partners, each having their own secure intranet. If you want to share among them, the type of VPN you should develop is a (n):

A. Intranet VPN.
B. Extranet VPN.
C. Site-to-Site VPN.
D. Server to Server VPN.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 156
TCP services must have a rule in the Policy Editor Rule Base to be used by TCP resources.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 157
User groups need NOT be defined to configure SecuRemote, but are required for the configuration of a Policy Server.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 158
SYNDefender Gateway sends a FIN/ACK packet in immediate response to a server’s SYN/ACK packet.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 159
What are the two types of HTTP Security Server authentication methods that may be used?
A. Transparent and UFP.
B. Transparent and Proxy.
C. Non-Transparent and Proxy.
D. Non-Transparent and CVP.
E. Transparent and CRL.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 160
You are implementing load-balancing to your Web Server using the Connect Control module. What type of logical server would you specify, if you need to load balance between servers that may not be behind the same firewall?
A. HTTP
B. Other with Persistent Server Mode -checked.
C. Both A and B.
D. None of the above, it is not possible.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 161
Below is the Log and Alert Page of the Global Properties window. Exhibit missing The Excessive log grace period field sets the minimum amount of time (in seconds) (The above not available picture showed 62 seconds) between consecutive logs of similar packets. Two packets are considered similar:
A. If they have the same source address, source port, destination port and the same service was used.
B. If they have the same source port, destination address, destination port and the same service was used.
C. If they have the same source address, source port, destination port and any service was used.
D. If they have the same destination address, source address, destination port, and the same service was used.
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 162
Which position of a URL is sent to a UFP server when using a TCP resource?
A. The full URL is forwarded.
B. Only the IP address of the remote server is forwarded to the UFP server.
C. The URL is not forwarded to the UFP Server, it is handled by the Security Servers.
D. Only the path portion of the URL is forwarded.
E. Only the host name is forwarded.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 163
For standard RFC (Request for Comments) complaint IKE VPN’s, a user’s authentication method should be defined where?
A. In the authentication tab of the user.
B. In the Encryption tab of the firewall and the Authentication tab of the user.
C. In the Encryption tab of the firewall and the Encryption tab of the user.
D. In the Authentication tab on the firewall.
E. In the Authentication tab of the firewall and the user.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 164
When you install the Management Module and GUI Client on a Windows NT Server:
A. The Windows NT Server in which you install becomes the Management Module and Authentication GUI for the Enforcement Module.
B. The Administration GUI resides on the Enforcement Module and the Management Module resides on its own machine.
C. The Windows NT Server on which you install becomes the Enforcement Module.
D. The Administration GUI only resided on the Management Module.
E. The Administration GUI communicated with the Management Module on port 257.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 165
The following steps correctly list the actions taken by a Certificate Authority (CA)
1.
Users send their public keys to a CA in a secure manner.

2.
The CA signs the public keys with its own private keys, creating CA public keys.

3.
The CA creates a certificate with its public and private keys. Receivers then authenticate senders’ public keys, by matching the CA public keys to the CA private keys on the certificates.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 166
This picture shows a normal three-way TCP/IP handshake.

Which of the following will cause VPN-1/Firewall-1 to reset TCP connections with a server protected by SYNDefender?
A. The client never completes the handshake with an SYN packet.
B. The client never completes the handshake with an SYN/ACK packet.
C. The server never completes the handshake with an SYN packet.
D. The client never completes the handshake with an ACK packet
E. The server never completes the handshake with an ACK packet.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 167
With Secure Client, if you have more than one network adapter: (Choose all that apply)
A. VPN-1/Firewall-1 adapters can be bound to all of them.
B. In Windows 3x, the binding is static and takes place when Secure Client is installed.
C. On Windows NT, the binding is dynamic and takes place upon reboot.
D. On Windows 2000, the binding is static and takes place when Secure Client is installed.
E. A, B and C.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 168
Which load-balancing method chooses the physical server closest to the client, based on DNS?
A. Round Trip.
B. Server Load.
C. Round Robin.
D. Random
E. Domain

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 169
On which the following operating systems does Check Point support installation of the VPN-1/Firewall-1 Management Server?
A. Windows NT Server 4.0 SP6A.
B. Windows NT Workstation 4.0 SP6A
C. Free BSD.
D. Solaris 2.5.
E. IOS

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 170
SYN flood attacks are used in the Denial-of-Service (Dos) attacks, or in conjunction with other exploits to block access to a server network.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 171
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Alter commands are executed by the alertd process, running on the single gateway (stand-alone) installation.
B. If logs are being sent to more than one machine, each alertd process will execute the alert commands.
C. The alert condition id detected on the firewall module, then the Management Server is notified and executes the alert.
D. Alert commands are executed on the Alert Module, running on the Management Server.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 172
Which command is used to export a group of users from VPN-1/Firewall?
A. Fw dbexport.
B. Ldapmodify
C. Ldabsearch
D. Ldap export.
E. fwm dbimport

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 173
You are using Hybrid IKE. SecuRemote produces the error “Certificate is badly signed”. Which of the following lists the most likely cause of the problem, and the appropriate remedy?
A. The distinguished name used in the “fw interalca create” and “fw interalca certify” commands is too long. In this case, use a shorter name.
B. Under the Firewall object> VPN> IKE> Support Authentication Methods, Hybrid is unchecked. Select Hybrid and stop and start the firewall.
C. The Certificate created by internal CA is corrupt. Recreate the certificate with the -force option.
D. SecuRemote version is lower then 4.1 SP1. Upgrade SecuRemote.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 174
The “Man in the Middle” threat consists of the possibility of a third party intercepting the private keys of you and another correspondent, even though you think you’re communicating directly with each other.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 175
If you do not configure any groups during Solaris installation, ONLY the Super-User will be able to access and execute the VPN-1/Firewall-1 Module.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: QUESTION 176
When you conduct a distributed installation of VPN-1/Firewall-1:
A. The SVN Foundation component is installed on all modules.
B. The Enforcement Module is distributed among VPN-1/Firewall-1 Modules.
C. All VPN-1/Firewall-1 files are installed on multiple machines.
D. Any Windows NT server on which you install Check Point VPN-1/Firewall-1 becomes the Enforcement Module.
E. You do not need Windows NT administrative privileges. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 177
If the Persistent Server mode check box is selected in the Logical Server Properties window, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Once a client is connected to a physical server, the client will continue to connect to that server for the duration of the session.
B. Once the server is connected to a client, the server will continue to connect to that client for the duration defined in the Logical Server Properties window.
C. Once the client is connected to a physical sever, the client will only connect to that server for a single session.
D. After a client has connected to a physical server, the client disconnects from the server.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 178
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. A SYN flood attack is an attack against a service designed to make a server unavailable.
B. A SYN flood attack exploits the limitations of the TCP/IP protocol.
C. During SYN flood attack, a client sends a SYN/NACK to a server and data exchange begins.
D. During a SYN flood attack, a server replies with a SYN/ACK identified by the source IP address in an IP header.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 179
When a user leaves an organization or when a key is compromised, a certificate must be revoked. The Certificate Authority does this by using and distributing a:
A. Certification Invocation List (CIL).
B. Revocation of Certification (ROC).
C. Authority Certification List (ACL).
D. Certification Revocation List (CRL).
E. Certification Key List (CKL).

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 180
The internal program, know as alertf, allows an operator to define how many events with in a defined number of seconds before the script is executed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 181
When you connect to a site referenced in your database SecuRemote:
1.
Holds the first packet without transmitting it.

2.
Examines the packet to determine responsible firewall.

3.
Encrypts the packet and then transmits it.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 182
You are the VPN-1/Firewall-1 administrator for a company WAN. You want all users to communicate across WAN securely. You must use an encryption scheme that does not change packet size, to allow for better network performance. You must also be able to define the Certificate Authority from your local VPN-1/Firewall-1 Management Module. Which encryption scheme do you choose?
A. Rgindal
B. FWZ
C. IKE
D. Triple DES.
E. Manual IPSec.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 183
SecuRemote operates between the _______and the ______.
A. TCP/IP Protocol, hardware card.
B. Network, hardware card.
C. TCP/IP Protocol, NIC Driver.
D. NIC Driver, Hardware Card.
E. TCP/IP Protocol, network.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 184
By default where does VPN-1/Firewall-1 look for a user-defined tracking script?
A. $FWDIR/root directory on the GUI client.
B. $FWDIR/local directory on the firewall.
C. $FWDIR/bin directory on the Management Server.
D. $FWVPN/bin directory on the firewall.
E. $FWDIR/bin/base directory on the Management Server.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 185
Which parameter, of TRUE, will automatically initiate an RDP status query with a gateway to check if it is still alive?
A. Keepalive
B. Dns_xplate
C. Active_resolver
D. Resolver_session_interval

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 124
What is the command to see the licenses of the Security Gateway Certkiller from your SmartCenter Server?
A. print Certkiller
B. fw licprint Certkiller
C. fw tab -t fwlic Certkiller
D. cplic print Certkiller
E. fw lic print Certkiller
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125

Ophelia is the security Administrator for a shipping company. Her company uses a custom application to update the distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateways Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Ophelia needs to be notified, via atext message to her cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following options is MOST appropriate for Ophelia’s requirement?
A. User-defined alert script
B. Logging implied rules
C. SmartViewMonitor
D. Pop-up API
E. SNMP trap
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 126
Which of the following is the final step in an NGXbackup?
A. Test restoration in a non-production environment, using the upgrade_import command
B. Move the *.tgz file to another location
C. Run the upgrade_export command
D. Copy the conf directory to another location
E. Run the cpstop command
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 127
Which mechanism is used to export Check Point logs to third party applications?
A. OPSE
B. CPLogManager
C. LEA
D. SmartViewTracker
E. ELA

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 128
In NGX, what happens if a Distinguished Name (ON) is NOT found in LADP?
A. NGX takes the common-name value from the Certificate subject, and searches the LADP account unit for a matching user id
B. NGX searches the internal database for the username
C. The Security Gateway uses the subject of the Certificate as the ON for the initial lookup
D. If the first request fails or if branches do not match, NGX tries to map the identity to the user id attribute
E. When users authenticate with valid Certificates, the Security Gateway tries to map the identities with users registered in the extemal LADP user database
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 129
Which command allows you to view the contents of an NGX table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>-
B. fw tab -t <tablename>-
C. fw tab -u <tablename>-
D. fw tab -a <tablename>-
E. fw tab -x <tablename>-

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 130
The following is cphaprobstate command output from a New Mode High Availability cluster member:

Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2,since its number is 2
B. 192.168.1.1,because its number is 1
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority
D. 192.168.1.2, because its state is active
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 131
What do you use to view an NGX Security Gateway’s status, including CPU use, amount of virtual memory, percent of free hard-disk space, and version?
A. SmartLSM
B. SmartViewTracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartViewMonitor
E. SmartViewStatus

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 132
Which of the following commands is used to restore NGX configuration information?
A. cpcontig
B. cpinfo-i
C. restore
D. fwm dbimport
E. upgrade_import
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 133
Which of the following commands shows full synchronizalion status?
A. cphaprob -i list
B. cphastop
C. fw ctl pstat
D. cphaprob -a if
E. fw hastat

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 134
Which VPN Community object is used to configure VPN routing within the SmartDashboard?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Map
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 135
If you are experiencing LDAP issues, which of the following should you check?
A. Secure lnternal Cornrnunicalions(SIC)
B. VPN tunneling
C. Overlapping VPN Domains
D. NGX connectivity
E. VPN Load Balancing
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 136
Which operating system is not supported byVPN-1 SecureClient?
A. IPS0 3.9
B. Windows XP SP2
C. Windows 2000 Professional
D. RedHat Linux 7 0
E. MacOS X

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 137
Which Check Point QoS feature issued to dynamically allocate relative portions of available bandwidth?
A. Guarantees
B. Differentiated Services
C. Limits
D. Weighted Fair Queueing
E. Low Latency Queueinq
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 138
You are running a VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence R54 SecurePlatform VPN-1 Pro Gateway. The Gateway also serves as a Policy Server. When you run patch add cd from the NGX CD, what does this command allow you to upgrade?
A. Only VPN-1 Pro Security Gateway
B. Both the operating system (OS) and all Check Point products
C. All products, except the Policy Server
D. On~ the patch utility is upgraded using this command
E. Only the OS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 139
Amanda is compiling traffic statistics for Certkiller .com’s Internet activity during production hours. How could she use SmartView Monitor to find this information? By
A. using the “Traffic Counters” settings and SmartView Monitor to generate a graph showing the total HTTP traffic for the day
B. -monitoring each specific user’s Web traffic use.
C. Viewing total packets passed through the Security Gateway
D. selecting the “Tunnels” view, and generating a report on the statistics
E. configuring a Suspicious Activity Rule which triggers an alert when HTTP traffic passes through the Gateway

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 140
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for a software-development company. To isolate the corporate
network from the developer’s network, Certkiller installs an internal Security Gateway. Jack wants to
optimize the performance of this Gateway.
Which of the following actions is most likely to improve the Gateway’s performance?

A. Remove unused Security Policies from Policy Packages
B. Clear all Global Properties check boxes, and use explicit rules
C. Use groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D. Put the least-used rules at the top of the Rule Base
E. Use domain objects in rules, where possible

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 141
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for a chain of grocery stores. Each grocery store is protected by a Security Gateway. Certkiller is generating a report for the information-technology audit department. The report must include the name of the Security Policy installed on each remote Security Gateway, the date and time the Security Policy was installed, and general performance statistics (CPU Use, average CPU time, active real memory, etc.). Which SmartConsole application should Certkiller use to gather this information?
A. SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Tracker
D. SmartLSM
E. SmartView Monitor
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 142
How can you reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic_reset to reinitialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the SmartCenter Server. Then retype the activation key on the
Security-Gateway from SmartDashboard
B. From cpconfig on the SmartCenter Server, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the actrvation key Next, retype the same key in the gateway object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize Secure Internal Communications (SIC)
C. From the SmartCenter Server’s command line type fw putkey -p <shared key>- <IP Address of SmartCenter Server>-.
D. From the SmartCenter Server’s command line type fw putkey -p <shared key>- <IP Address of security Gateway>-.
E. Re-install the Security Gateway

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 143
Which NGX feature or command allows Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the Security Policy without changing object configurations?
A. upgrade_export/upgrade_import
B. Policy Package management
C. fwm dbexport/fwm dbimport
D. cpconfig
E. Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 144
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for Certkiller .com’s large geographically distributed network. The internet connection at one of her remote sites failed during the weekend, and the Security Gateway logged locally for over 48 hours. Certkiller is concerned that the logs may have consumed most of the free space on the Gateway’s hard disk. Which SmartConsole application should Certkiller use, to view the percent of free hard-disk space on the remote Security Gateway?
A. SmartView Status
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Monitor
E. SmartLSM

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
Certkiller is recently hired as the Security Administrator for a public relations company. Certkiller’s manager has asked her to investigate ways to improve the performance of the firm’s perimeter Security Gateway. Certkiller must propose a plan based on the following required and desired results
Required Result #1: Do not purchase new hardware Required Result #2: Use configuration changes that do not reduce security Desired Result #1: Reduce the number of explicit rules in the Rule Base Desired Result #2: Reduce the volume of logs Desired Result #3: Improve the Gateway’s performance Proposed Solution: Certkiller recommends the following changes to the Gateway’s configuration:
1.
Replace all domain objects with network and group objects.

2.
Stop logging Domain Name over UDP (queries) 3. Use Global Properties, instead of explicit rules, to
control ICMP. VRRP, and RIP.
Does Certkiller’s proposed solution meet the required and desired result s?

A. The solution meets the required results, and two of the desired results

B. The solution does not meet the required results

C. The solution meets all required results, and none of the desired results

D. The solution meets all required and desired results

E. The solution meets the required results, and one of the desired results
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 146
What is a Consolidation Policy?
A. The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and SmartDefense Policies
B. The specific Policy used by Eventia Reporter to configure log-management practices
C. The state of the Policy once installed on a Security Gateway
D. A Policy created by Eventia Reporter to generate logs
E. The collective name of the logs generated by Eventia Reporter

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 147
To change an existing ClusterXL cluster object from Multicast to Unicast mode, what configuration change must be made?
A. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on the cluster object Reinstall the Security Policy
B. Reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) on the cluster-member objects. Reinstall the Security Policy
C. Run cpstop and cpstart, to reenable High Availability on both objects. Select Pivot mode in cpconfig
D. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on the cluster-member object
E. Switch the internal network’s default Security Gateway to the pivot machine’s IP address
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 157
How will you install a rule base? Choose the best answer.
A. After defining your rules in SmartDashboard, choose install from File menu
B. After defining your rules in SmartDashboard, choose Install from Policy menu
C. Before defining your rules in SmartDashboard, choose Install from View menu
D. After defining your rules in SmartDashboard, choose install from View menu
E. Before defining your rules in SmartDashboard, choose Install from Policy menu

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 158
You would use the Hide Rule feature to:
A. Make rules invisible to incoming packets.
B. View only a few rules without the distraction of others
C. Hide rules from read-only administrators
D. Hide rules from a SYN/ACK attack.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 159
You need to plan the company’s new security system. The company needs a very high level of security and also high performance and high through put for their applications. You need to turn on most of the integrated IPS checks while maintain high throughput. What would be the best solution for this scenario?
A. The IPS does not run when Core XL is enabled
B. You need to buy a strong multi-core machine and run R71 or later on Secure Platform with CoreXL technology enabled.
C. The IPS system does not affect the firewall performance and CoreXL is not needed in this scenario.
D. Bad luck, both together can not be achieved.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 160
Match each of the following command to there correct correct function. Each command has one function only listed.

A. C1>F2, C2>F1, C3>F6, C4>F4
B. C1>F6, C2>F4, C3>F2, C4>F5
C. C1>F2, C4>F4, C3>F1, C4>F5
D. C1>F4, C2>F6, C3>F3, C4>F2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 161
What happens hi relation to the CRL cache after a cpstop and cpstart have been initiated?
A. The Gateway retrieves a new CRL on startup, and then discards the old CRL as invalid
B. The Gateway continues to use the old CRL, as long as it is valid.
C. The Gateway continues to use the old CRL even if it is not valid, until a new CRL is cached
D. The Gateway issues a crl_zap on startup, which empties the cache and forces Certificate retrieval

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 162
NAT can be implemented on which of the following lists of objects?
A. Domain network
B. Host network
C. Host user
D. Network, Dynamic Object

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 163
Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A. fw stat
B. cpstat -gw
C. fw ver
D. tw printver
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 164
What are the approved methods of modifying objects_5_0 .c?
A. Windows WordPad
B. Windows notepad C. Dbedit
D. cpconfig

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 165
As a Security Administrator, you are required to create users for authentication. When you create a user for user authentication, the data is stored in the ______.
A. SmartUpdate repository
B. User Database
C. Rules Database
D. Objects Database

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 166
Phase 1 uses ______.
A. Conditional
B. Sequential
C. Asymmetric
D. Symmetric

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 167
A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT Client NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server?
A. Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
B. A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
C. Nothing else must be configured.
D. A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway’s upstream router.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 168
Of the following, what parameters will not be perserved when using Database Revision Control? 1) Simplified mode Rule Bases 2) Traditional mode Rule Bases 3) Secure Platform WebUI Users 4) SIC certificates 5) SmartView Tracker audit logs 6) SmartView Tracker traffic logs 7) Implied Rules 8) IPS Profiles 9) Blocked connections 10) Manual NAT rules 11) VPN communities 12) Gateway route table 13) Gateway licenses
A. 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B. 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C. 1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D. 2, 4, 7, 10, 11

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 169
What would be the benefit of upgrading from smart defense to IPS r 70?
A. The Smart Defense is replaced by the technology of IPS-1
B. The Smart defense technology expands IPS -1 to IPS R 70.
C. Completerly rewritten engine provides improved security performance and reporting.
D. There is no difference-IPS R71 is new name

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 170
What rulers send log information to Dshield.org when strom centre is configured?
A. Determine in IPS, Dshield storm center configuration. Security management server sends logs from rules with tracking set to either alert or one of the specific User Defined Alerts
B. Determine by the global properties configuration: log defined in the Log and Alerts section, rules with tracking set to account or SNMP trap
C. Determine the Web intelligence, configuration: information Disclosure is configured rules with tracking sets to User defined Alerts or SNMP trap
D. Determined by the Dshield Storm Center Logging setting in the Logs and Masters of the security Management server object rules with tracking set to Log or None

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 89
Which statements are true regarding the usage of the WITH clause in complex correlated subqueries? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It can be used only with the SELECT clause.
B. The WITH clause can hold more than one query.
C. If the query block name and the table name were the same, then the table name would take precedence.
D. The query name in the WITH clause is visible to other query blocks in the WITH clause as well as to the main query block.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 90
OE and SCOTT are the users in the database. The ORDERS table is owned by OE. Evaluate the
statements issued by the DBA in the following sequence:

CREATE ROLE r1;
GRANT SELECT, INSERT ON oe. orders TO r1;
GRANT r1 TO scott;
GRANT SELECT ON oe. orders TO scott;
REVOKE SELECT ON oe.orders FROM scott;

What would be the outcome after executing the statements?

A. SCOTT would be able to query the OE.ORDERS table.
B. SCOTT would not be able to query the OE.ORDERS table.
C. The REVOKE statement would remove the SELECT privilege from SCOTT as well as from the role R1.
D. The REVOKE statement would give an error because the SELECT privilege has been granted to the role R1

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 91
Which statements are true? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The data dictionary is created and maintained by the database administrator.
B. The data dictionary views can consist of joins of dictionary base tables and user-defined tables.
C. The usernames of all the users including the database administrators are stored in the data dictionary.
D. The USER_CONS_COLUMNS view should be queried to find the names of the columns to which a constraint applies.
E. Both USER_ODBJECTS and CAT views provide the same information about all the objects that are owned by the user.
F. Views with the same name but different prefixes, such as DBA, ALL and USER, use the same base tables from the data dictionary

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 92
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Only one LONG column can be used per table.
B. ATIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
C. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
D. The minimum column width that can be specified for a varchar2 data type column is one.
E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 93
Which statement best describes the GROUPING function?
A. It is used to set the order for the groups to be used for calculating the grand totals and subtotals.
B. It is used to form various groups to calculate total and subtotals created using ROLLUP and CUBE operators.
C. It is used to identify if the NULL value in an expression is a stored NULL value or created by ROLLUP or CUBE.
D. It is used to specify the concatenated group expressions to be used for calculating the grand totals and subtotals.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the DEPARTMENTS and EMPLOYEES tables.

To retrieve data for all the employees for their EMPLOYEE_ID, FIRST_NAME, and DEPARTMENT NAME,
the following SQL statement was written:

SELECT employee_id, first_name, department_name
FROM employees NATURAL JOIN departments;
The desired output is not obtained after executing the above SQL statement. What could be the reason for
this?

A. The NATURAL JOIN clause is missing the USING clause.
B. The table prefix is missing for the column names in the SELECT clause.
C. The DEPARTMENTS table is not used before the EMPLOYEES table in the FROM clause.
D. The EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables have more than one column with the same column name and data type.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of EMPLOYEES and JOB_HISTORY tables. The EMPLOYEES table maintains the most recent information regarding salary, department, and job for all the employees. The JOB_HISTORY table maintains the record for all the job changes for the employees. You want to delete all the records from the JOB_HISTORY table that are repeated in the EMPLOYEES table.

Which two SQL statements can you execute to accomplish the task? (Choose two.)
A. DELETEFROM job_history jWHERE employee_id =(SELECT employee_idFROM employees eWHERE j.employee_id = e.employee_id)AND job_id = (SELECT job_idFROM employees eWHERE j.job_id = e.job_id);
B. DELETEFROM job_history jWHERE (employee_id, job_id) = ALL(SELECT employee_id, job_idFROM employees eWHERE j.employee_id = e.employee_id and j.job_id = e.job_id)
C. DELETEFROM job_history jWHERE employee_id =(SELECT employee_idFROM employees eWHERE j.employee_id = e.employee_id and j.job_id = e.job_id)
D. DELETEFROM job_history jWHERE (employee_id, job_id) =(SELECT employee_id, job_idFROM employees eWHERE j.employee_id = e.employee_id and j.job_id = e.job_id)

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 96
View the Exhibit and examine PRODUCTS and ORDER_ITEMS tables.
You executed the following query to display PRODUCT_NAME and the number of times the product has been ordered:
SELECT p.product_name, i.item_cnt FROM (SELECT product_id, COUNT (*) item_cnt FROM order_items GROUP BY product_id) i RIGHT OUTER JOIN products p ON i.product_id = p.product_id;

What would happen when the above statement is executed?
A. The statement would execute successfully to produce the required output.
B. The statement would not execute because inline views and outer joins cannot be used together.
C. The statement would not execute because the ITEM_CNT alias cannot be displayed in the outer query.
D. The statement would not execute because the GROUP BY clause cannot be used in the inline view.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 97
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table.
You want to display the EMPLOYEE_ID, FIRST_NAME, and DEPARTMENT_ID for all the employees who work in the same department and have the same manager as that of the employee having EMPLOYEE_ID
104. To accomplish the task, you execute the following SQL statement:
SELECT employee_id, first_name, department_id FROM employees WHERE (manager_id, department_id) =(SELECT department_id, manager_id FROM employees WHERE employee_id = 104) AND employee_id <> 104; When you execute the statement it does not produce the desired output. What is the reason for this?

A. The WHERE clause condition in the main query is using the = comparison operator, instead of EXISTS.
B. The WHERE clause condition in the main query is using the = comparison operator, instead of the IN operator.
C. The WHERE clause condition in the main query is using the = comparison operator, instead of the = ANY operator.
D. The columns in the WHERE clause condition of the main query and the columns selected in the subquery should be in the same order.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMP table.

You executed the following command to add a primary key to the EMP table:
ALTER TABLE emp
ADD CONSTRAINT emp_id_pk PRIMARY KEY (emp_id)
USING INDEX emp_id_idx;
Which statement is true regarding the effect of the command?
A. The PRIMARY KEY is created along with a new index.
B. The PRIMARY KEY is created and it would use an existing unique index.
C. The PRIMARY KEY would be created in a disabled state because it is using an existing index.
D. The statement produces an error because the USING clause is permitted only in the CREATE TABLE command.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 99
View the Exhibitl and examine the descriptions of the EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables.

The following SQL statement was executed:
SELECT e.department_id, e.job_id, d.location_id, sum(e.salary) total, GROUPING(e.department_id)
GRP_DEPT,
GROUPING(e.job_id) GRPJOB,
GROUPING(d. location_id) GRP_LOC
FROM employees e JOIN departments d
ON e.department_id = d.department_id
GROUP BY ROLLUP (e.department_id, e.job_id, d.location_id); View the Exhibit2 and examine the output
of the command.
Which two statements are true regarding the output? (Choose two.)
A. The value 1 in GRP_LOC means that the LOCATION_ID column is taken into account to generate the
subtotal.
B. The value 1 in GRP_JOB and GRP_LOC means that JOB_ID and LOCATION_ID columns are not taken into account to generate the subtotal.
C. The value 1 in GRP_JOB and GRP_LOC means that the NULL value in JOB_ID and LOCATIONJD columns are taken into account to generate the subtotal.
D. The value 0 in GRP_DEPT, GRPJOB, and GRP_LOC means that DEPARTMENT_ID, JOB_ID, and LOCATION_ID columns are taken into account to generate the subtotal

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 100
Which statements are correct regarding indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When a table is dropped, the corresponding indexes are automatically dropped.
B. For each DML operation performed, the corresponding indexes are automatically updated.
C. Indexes should be created on columns that are frequently referenced as part of an expression.
D. A non-deferrable PRIMARY KEY or UNIQUE KEY constraint in a table automatically creates a unique index.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 101
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORD table.

Evaluate the following SQL statements that are executed in a user session in the specified order:

CREATE SEQUENCE ord_seq;
SELECT ord_seq.nextval FROM dual;
INSERT INTO ord
VALUES (ord_seq.CURRVAL, 25-jan-2007′,101);
UPDATE ord
SET ord_no= ord_seq.NEXTVAL
WHERE cust_id =101;

What would be the outcome of the above statements?

A. All the statements would execute successfully and the ORD_NO column would contain the value 2 for the CUSTJD 101.
B. The CREATE SEQUENCE command would not execute because the minimum value and maximum value for the sequence have not been specified.
C. The CREATE SEQUENCE command would not execute because the starting value of the sequence and the increment value have not been specified.
D. All the statements would execute successfully and the ORD_NO column would have the value 20 for the CUST_ID 101 because the default CACHE value is 20.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 102
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the ORDERS table. Which two WHERE clause conditions demonstrate the correct usage of conversion functions? (Choose two.)

A. WHERE order_date > TO_DATE(‘JUL 10 2006’,’MON DD YYYY)
B. WHERE TO_CHAR(order_date,’MON DD YYYY) = ‘JAN 20 2003’
C. WHERE order_date > TO_CHAR(ADD_MONTHS(SYSDATE,6),’MON DD YYYY”)
D. WHERE order_date IN (TO_DATE(‘Oct 21 2003’,’Mon DD YYYY”), TO_CHAR(‘NOV 21 2003′,’Mon DD YYYY”))

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 103
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.
You want to display all employees and their managers having 100 as the MANAGER_ID. You want the output in two columns: the first column would have the LAST_NAME of the managers and the second column would have LAST_NAME of the employees.

Which SQL statement would you execute?
A. SELECT m.last_name “Manager”, e.last_name “Employee” FROM employees m JOIN employees eON m.employee_id = e.manager_id WHERE m.manager_id=100;
B. SELECT m.last_name “Manager”, e.last_name “Employee” FROM employees m JOIN employees eON m.employee_id = e.manager_id WHERE e.managerjd=100;
C. SELECT m.last_name “Manager”, e.last_name “Employee” FROM employees m JOIN employees eON e.employee_id = m.manager_id WHERE m.manager_id=100;
D. SELECT m.last_name “Manager”, e.last_name “Employee” FROM employees m JOIN employees eWHERE m.employee_id = e.manager_id AND e.managerjd=100;

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 104
Which two statements are true about the GROUPING function? (Choose two.)
A. It is used to find the groups forming the subtotal in a row.
B. It is used to identify the NULL value in the aggregate functions.
C. It is used to form the group sets involved in generating the totals and subtotals.
D. It can only be used with ROLLUP and CUBE operators specified in the GROUP BY clause.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 105
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.

Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, manager_id FROM employees START WITH employee_id = 101 CONNECT BY PRIOR employee_id=manager_id;
Which statement is true regarding the output for this command?
A. It would return a hierarchical output starting with the employee whose EMPLOYEE_ID is 101, followed by his or her peers.
B. It would return a hierarchical output starting with the employee whose EMPLOYEE_ID is 101, followed by the employee to whom he or she reports.
C. It would return a hierarchical output starting with the employee whose EMPLOYEE_ID is 101, followed by employees below him or her in the hierarchy.
D. It would return a hierarchical output starting with the employee whose EMPLOYEE_ID is101, followed by employees up to one level below him or her in the hierarchy.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 106
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUST table.

Evaluate the following SQL statements executed in the given order:
ALTER TABLE cust ADD CONSTRAINT cust_id_pk PRIMARY KEY(cust_id) DEFERRABLE INITIALLY DEFERRED; INSERT INTO cust VALUES (1,’RAJ1); –row 1
INSERT INTO cust VALUES (1,’SAM); –row 2 COMMIT;
SET CONSTRAINT cust_id_pk IMMEDIATE;
INSERT INTO cust VALUES (1,’LATA’); –row 3 INSERT INTO cust VALUES (2,’KING’); –row 4 COMMIT;
Which rows would be made permanent in the CUST table?
A. row 4 only
B. rows 2 and 4
C. rows 3 and 4
D. rows 1 and 4

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 107
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES and JOB_HISTORY tables.

The query should display the employee IDs of all the employees who have held the job SA_MAN at any
time during their tenure.
Choose the correct SET operator to fill in the blank space and complete the following query.

SELECT employee_id
FROM employees
WHERE job_id = ‘SA_MAN’

SELECT employee_id FROMjob_history WHERE job_id=’SA_MAN’
A. UNION
B. MINUS
C. INTERSECT
D. UNION ALL
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 108
View the Exhibit and examine the details for the CATEGORIES_TAB table.

Evaluate the following incomplete SQL statement:
SELECT category_name ,category_description FROM categories_tab You want to display only the rows that have ‘harddisks’ as part of the string in the CATEGORY_DESCRIPTION column.
Which two WHERE clause options can give you the desired result? (Choose two.)
A. WHERE REGEXP_LIKE (category_description, ‘hard+.s’);
B. WHERE REGEXP_LIKE (category_description, `^H|hard+.s’);
C. WHERE REGEXP_LIKE (category_description, ‘^H|hard+.s$’);
D. WHERE REGEXP_LIKE (category_description, ‘’);
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 109
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the LOCATIONS and DEPARTMENTS tables.

Which SET operator should be used in the blank space in the following SQL statement to display the cities that have departments located in them?
SELECT location_id, city FROM locations
SELECT location_id, city FROM locations JOIN departments USING(location_id);
A. UNION
B. MINUS
C. INTERSECT
D. UNION ALL

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 110
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of ORDERS and ORDER_ITEMS tables. ORDER__ID is the primary key in the ORDERS table. It is also the foreign key in the ORDER_ITEMS table wherein it is created with the ON DELETE CASCADE option.

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QUESTION 47
Scenario: An administrator has a single XenApp 6.5 farm with an equal number of servers in two datacenters. Datacenter 1 is used for production and Datacenter 2 is used for disaster recovery failover. Users should connect to the XenApp servers in Datacenter 2 only if all servers in Datacenter 1 are offline or are running a full load.
Which two steps should the administrator take to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Create a preferential load balancing policy.
B. Create and assign a custom load evaluator at each datacenter.
C. Create an OU, a worker group and a zone for each datacenter’s servers.
D. Create a Citrix load balancing policy with appropriate worker group preference settings.
Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Scenario: An administrator wishes to add disaster recovery capability to an existing XenApp environment. The administrator built some new servers into a disaster recovery datacenter that has a 1 GB link to the production datacenter.
How should the administrator configure the new servers for users?
A. Add the servers to the existing farm in the same zone and use a custom load evaluator.
B. Add the servers to the existing farm in the same zone and use a worker group and load balancing policy.
C. Add the servers to a new farm and use the site failover feature of Web Interface to provide access to the servers.
D. Add the servers to the existing farm into a new disaster recovery zone and use a preferential load balancing policy.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Scenario: The Senior Citrix Administrator has requested that a Junior Administrator deploy two XenApp servers using a base XenApp image that he previously created. The servers will be assigned to two different departments with additional applications that will be installed later based on department requirements.
What should the Junior Administrator do to meet these requirements?
A. Manually install XenApp on the new XenApp servers.
B. Clone the base XenApp image and deploy to new XenApp servers.
C. Use Windows Deployment Services to deploy XenApp to new XenApp servers.
D. Use Provisioning Services to stream XenApp servers in standard mode to new XenApp servers.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
A Citrix XenApp Administrator needs to create a load balancing policy and apply it to several XenApp servers.
Which two methods would require the administrator to use the least amount of effort to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Create a worker group and add targeted servers to it.
B. Create a load balancing policy and assign it to targeted servers.
C. Create a load balancing policy and assign it to the worker group.
D. Create a worker group and attach the load balancing policy to XenApp servers.
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Scenario: An administrator needs to configure scheduled restarts for half the farm at 1:00 pm and the other half at 2:00 pm. All the servers reside in the same OU.
Which two actions should the administrator take to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Go to the servers in AppCenter, and use the Logon Control options.
B. Create worker groups named 1PM and 2PM, and add servers accordingly.
C. Create two Citrix policies with settings to restart, and filter the policies by worker group.
D. Create two GPOs with settings to restart, and assign the GPOs to the OU containing the farm servers.
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Scenario: Recently, the Access Gateway Enterprise Edition (AGEE) Administrator configured access for mobile tablet devices and smartphones. Due to security concerns, the XenApp Administrator is asked to prevent these mobile devices from remotely accessing the published application belonging to the Finance department.
The AGEE Administrator provided the XenApp Administrator with the following information:
Public URL: https://access.company.com Virtual Server IP: 192.168.195.20 Virtual Server NamE. ssl_vsrv_access
The following policies and profiles are configured: sess_pol_default – default Session policy sess_pol_mobile – session policy configured for mobile devices
Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.

Based on the attached exhibit, the XenApp Administrator needs to configure the __________ as the Access Gateway Farm. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Public URL
B. Virtual Server IP
C. Virtual Server Name
D. Mobile Session policy
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator has created a Citrix policy that designates maximum compression to improve the user experience for remote users.
The Access Gateway Enterprise Edition Administrator provided the following information: · Public URL: https://access.company.com · Virtual Server IP: 192.168.195.20 · Virtual Server NamE. ssl_vsrv_access · sess_pol_default – default Session policy The XenApp Administrator needs to configure the Access Control filter to ensure that the policy only applies to the remote users and does NOT affect the internal users.
The XenApp Administrator needs to assign a (n) __________ filter and specify __________. (Select the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Client Name; the Virtual Server Name
B. Group; the remote users security group
C. Client IP; 192.168.195.20 as the client IP address
D. Access Control; the virtual server name and session policy name
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
When application App123 is configured for Session PreLaunch, what change is made to the environment?
A. File type associations are updated.
B. Maximum concurrent instances is set to 1.
C. A new application named PreLaunch-App123 is created.
D. Maximize at startup is enabled within the published application properties. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Scenario: A large number of users log on to the XenApp 6.5 farm every weekday morning at
8:00
am. An administrator decides to configure Session PreLaunch in this environment. Which additional impact will this configuration have on the environment?

A.
If changes are required to the published application, it must be recreated.

B.
Users will consume a Citrix license even when no user sessions are open.

C.
A one instance limit is automatically invoked within the application properties.

D.
Application user load based on this application cannot be used within a load evaluator. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
An administrator plans to enable session linger in a Citrix XenApp 6.5 farm. What will be the impact on the user experience?
A. Sessions will remain in an idle state until the user relaunches it.
B. Sessions will be disconnected then logged off in the background.
C. Sessions will start automatically when a user logs on to the farm.
D. Sessions will remain alive for a configurable period before termination. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
After an administrator restarts a XenApp server, the XenApp Administrator notices that the IMA Service is NOT starting.
Which two components could be causing the issue? (Choose two.)
A. RPC Service
B. Local host cache
C. Citrix Streaming Service
D. Remote Desktop Service
Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator changed the credentials used to connect to the data store. The IMA Service is NOT starting after the restart.
Which component could be causing this issue?
A. Roaming profile
B. Local host cache
C. Citrix XML Service
D. ODBC/DSN Configuration
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Scenario: Users from the Financial department need access to a critical application in order to interact with a bank Web site. This application requires Microsoft Office, which is NOT already present on the XenApp servers. The Citrix XenApp Administrator decided to stream the application. The administrator installed the application into a package, but notices that the application installed a driver and created a service. The installation needs to be restarted.
What could be a problem while trying to profile this application?
A. HTTP delivery for application streaming is NOT configured.
B. The application depends on Microsoft Office, which is NOT installed.
C. The service creation, because it is NOT possible to stream a service.
D. The drivers’ installation, because it is NOT possible to stream a driver.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Scenario: A Citrix XenApp Administrator plans to integrate a new application. This application is profiled to be streamed to a group of users and will be published to be streamed to the client. Some users are able to launch the streamed application but a few of them are NOT able to do so.
What could cause this issue?
A. The administrator did NOT install Citrix Receiver.
B. The administrator did NOT configure Citrix Receiver.
C. The administrator did NOT install the Citrix Offline Plug-in.
D. The administrator did NOT configure the Citrix Offline Plug-in.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Scenario: The XenApp Administrator is using application streaming to provide users with access to their applications. A user reports that after launching a streamed application, the application hangs during launch.
Which step should the administrator take first to resolve the issue?
A. Flush the RADE cache.
B. Reprofile the application.
C. Enable Inter-Isolation Communication.
D. Update Citrix Receiver to the latest version. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator is using Provisioning Services to deliver XenApp servers in standard mode that utilize streamed applications. The administrator noticed excessive amounts of network traffic when users launch streamed applications and users report frozen sessions occasionally.
How should the administrator address the issue?
A. Cache the application at launch time.
B. Deploy App-V for application streaming.
C. Deploy the application locally through SCOM.
D. Pre-cache the streamed application before capturing the vDisk. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Scenario: An administrator has enabled a Citrix policy called HDX Policy that enables extra compression for moving and still images for user connections greater than 400 Kbps.
Branch Repeater VPX is then deployed to all remote offices; however, users report NO appreciable benefits.
Which change should be made to HDX Policy?
A. Session Reliability should be disabled.
B. The Branch Repeater filter should be invoked.
C. Overall session bandwidth should be added to the policy.
D. The threshold value should be increased by 100-200 Kbps.
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Scenario: A company has hired 100 new call center agents at a remote office that will access XenApp applications. The WAN link upgrade will NOT be completed for several months, so maximum compression settings have been enabled for all call center users.
Call center users now report that the user experience is worse. Upon researching the issue, the administrator sees that bandwidth utilization has been reduced to less than 70% on average.
What is causing the poor user experience?
A. XenApp CPU utilization
B. XenApp memory utilization
C. Client disk space utilization
D. Server disk space utilization
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Scenario: A Citrix XenApp Administrator configured the audio quality to low in a Citrix Group Policy Object and applied it to all the XenApp servers in the farm. A few weeks later, another administrator from the team created an OU Group Policy Object and set the audio quality to high. The administrator applied the policy object to the OU that contains all the XenApp servers in the farm.
What would be the audio quality for all the XenApp servers using precedence for the resultant policy?
A. The audio quality will change every week after the weekly restart phase.
B. The audio on all the XenApp servers in the farm will be set to low quality.
C. The audio on all the XenApp servers in the farm will be set to high quality.
D. Some servers will be set to use low quality audio, and the others will be set to use high quality audio.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Scenario: A Citrix XenApp Administrator asked the Active Directory team to implement a new OU Group Policy Object to enable the Session Reliability feature. Another administrator needs to change the Session Reliability port number due to incompatibility with a financial application. To do so, the XenApp Administrator is creating a new Citrix Group Policy Object to set the value of the Session Reliability port number to TCP 2599.
What will be the resultant policy on the XenApp servers?
A. Session Reliability will be enabled, and the port number will be set to TCP 2599.
B. Session Reliability will NOT be enabled, but the port number will be set to TCP 2599.
C. Session Reliability will be disabled and the port number will remain in the default setting (TCP 2598).
D. Session Reliability will NOT be enabled, and the port number will remain in the default setting (TCP 2598).
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator implemented the pre-launch feature for a corporate email application. As the administrator monitors users’ sessions in the AppCenter, the administrator notices that no pre-launch sessions are being created. Application launch time continues to remain high.
What are two reasons why pre-launch sessions are NOT being created? (Choose two.)
A. One of the Citrix XenApp servers is reporting a full load.
B. Endpoint devices are NOT using the latest Citrix Receiver version.
C. The administrator did NOT create a pre-launch published application.
D. XenApp Enterprise Edition licenses are being used in the environment.
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator enabled session linger through policies and chose the values in the attached exhibit. Many users are complaining that when they choose to relaunch a published application, the full logon process is initiated.
Click the Exhibit button to view the exhibit.

What could be the reason for this behavior?
A. The Linger Terminate Timer Interval policy value is too long.
B. The Linger Terminate Timer Interval policy value is too short.
C. The Linger Disconnect Timer Interval policy value is too long.
D. The Linger Disconnect Timer Interval policy value is too short. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
An administrator is attempting to view information about a server process from the AppCenter console which is displayed in the attached exhibit.
Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.

Which communication process is malfunctioning?
A. ICA

B. IMA
C. SSL
D. XML Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Scenario: A XenApp farm has two servers. The administrator discovers that users are only being directed to one server. The administrator investigates the issue and receives the output in the attached exhibit.
Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.

What is the reason that users are only being directed to one server?
A. There is an IMA communication problem.
B. There is an XML communication problem.
C. An EdgeSight update is currently in progress.
D. The problem server cannot contact the data store.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Scenario: The XenApp farm consists of two zones each located in a different datacenter. Last night, the network team conducted maintenance on the firewalls and this morning, the administrator discovers that load balancing is NOT working. The administrator asks the network team for a copy of the firewall rules. A few lines of the firewall rules are shown below.
access-list 102 deny tcp any any eq 2512 access-list 102 deny tcp any any eq 1494 access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq 2598 access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq 80 access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq 1433 access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq 1161
What is most likely the cause for the load balancing issues?
A. There is an IMA communication problem.
B. There is an XML communication problem.
C. There is a data store communication problem.
D. There is a Session Reliability communication problem.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Scenario: The XenApp farm consists of two zones, each located in a different datacenter. After some recent maintenance by the network team, the administrator discovers that the load balancing across the datacenters is NOT working.
The most likely cause for the load balancing issue is that the firewall has started blocking the __________. (Complete the sentence with the correct option.)
A. IMA traffic between the datacenters
B. XML traffic between the datacenters
C. data store traffic between the datacenters
D. Session Reliability traffic between the datacenters
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator noticed an issue that is affecting all XenApp servers in a farm. The local host cache of each server is too large for the system drive, and it causes IMA Services to stop. The administrator attempted to restart the IMA Service, and the error in the attached exhibit occurred.
Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.

Which option could explain the cause of the issue?
A. The data store is corrupt. The administrator needs to restore the local host cache, restart all the servers and restore the latest data store backup.
B. The data store is corrupt. The administrator needs to restore the latest data store backup, recreate the local host cache and restart all the servers.
C. The local host cache is corrupt. The administrator needs to restart all the servers, recreate the local host cache and restore the latest data collector backup.
D. The local host cache is corrupt. The administrator needs to force restore the latest data collector backup, recreate the local host cache and restart all the servers.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Scenario: A Citrix XenApp Administrator notices that one Citrix XenApp server is hanging during the weekly restart phase. The IMA Service appears to hang during startup.
Which two options could explain the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)
A. The data store is corrupt.
B. The local host cache is corrupt.
C. The server restarted only one time.
D. A data collector election has occurred.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Users complain that it is taking longer to access applications now than it did last week.
What is the best way to determine what changed from last week to this week?
A. Review Configuration Logging data
B. Review EdgeSight troubleshooting data
C. Review EdgeSight Active Application Monitoring data
D. Review published application properties from a previous version of the data store with the current version
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
Users complain that their main application, Mission-Critical App, takes longer to start than their other applications.
Click the Exhibit button to view a screenshot of the properties of the mission critical application.

Based on the published application properties shown in the Exhibit, which two settings should be altered to decrease application launch time? (Choose two.)
A. Pre-launch
B. Window size
C. Enable legacy audio
D. Start without printers
E. File type associations
F. Maximum concurrent instances
Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Scenario: Pilot users have reported that the Aero-like capabilities provided by Dynamic Windows Preview within the XenApp 6.5 hosted desktop provides an excellent user experience. However, it is NOT visible under all circumstances. What can the administrator do to correctly deploy the Dynamic Windows Preview?
A. Install Citrix Receiver 3.0 or higher.
B. Ensure a WAN link of 30 ms or less.
C. Configure a Pre-launch hosted desktop.
D. Require users to only use Windows or Macintosh user devices.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Scenario: Users report that immediately after logging onto a hosted desktop, their sessions disconnect. The administrator enables auto-client reconnect logging in order to troubleshoot the issue.
Where are the logging events retained?
A. Data store
B. Server system log
C. EdgeSight database
D. Configuration logging database
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Scenario: When configuring a Web Interface site, an administrator configures port 8000 for Citrix XML Service communications. During internal testing, the administrator sees that application enumeration does NOT occur.
Where else does the administrator need to configure the Citrix XML Service port?
A. Farm properties
B. Citrix Computer policy
C. Worker Group properties
D. Citrix Receiver properties
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Scenario: A group of users with thin clients connect to a hosted desktop in XenApp and then launch their published applications from within the desktop. When users log in to their hosted desktop, the dialogue shown in the attached exhibit appears.
Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.

Which two actions should the XenApp Administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Install the Citrix Single sign-on agent.
B. Verify that the XenApp Services site is configured with pass-through authentication.
C. Apply a Group policy to the XenApp servers that uses the icaclient.ADM file and enable pass- through for the Citrix Reciever.
D. Apply a Group policy to the user workstation that uses the icaclient.ADM file and enable pass-through for the Citrix Reciever.
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
Scenario: Users access their published applications through an Access Gateway Enterprise Edition configured in ICA Proxy mode. The XenApp Web site is configured as shown in the first exhibit.
Since a change by the Junior Administrator, remote users are experiencing issues while connecting to any published applications. Upon researching the issue, the XenApp Administrator notes that four different STAs are configured. These are shown in the second exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibits. Use the tabs to switch the displayed exhibit.

Which URL should the administrator retain?
A. http://XenApp01/scripts/ctxsta.dll
B. http://XenApp01.company.com/scripts/ctxsta.dll
C. http://XenApp01.company.com:443/scripts/ctxsta.dll
D. http://XenApp01.company.com:8080/scripts/ctxsta.dll
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Scenario: Currently users log in to their desktop and are prompted several times for credentials while accessing XenApp published applications. The XenApp Administrator is asked to configure pass-through authentication to ensure that users only log in to their desktop and will NOT get prompted anymore. Which three components will need to be configured when setting up pass-through authentication? (Choose three.)
A. Web Interface
B. ICAClient.ADM
C. Citrix Receiver
D. XenApp Servers
E. Citrix User policy
F. Citrix Single sign-on
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator has configured Multi-stream ICA in an environment. A user reports performance issues and the administrator discovers that Multi-stream ICA is NOT active for that user’s session.
What should the administrator do to resolve this issue?
A. Change the color quality to 16-bit.
B. Ensure that port 1494 is available.
C. Adjust the progressive compression level.
D. Upgrade to the latest version of Citrix Receiver. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
A user reports that he has a poor Internet connection, and his sessions are constantly dropped.
Which two actions should the XenApp Administrator complete for the user’s session to avoid the issue described? (Choose two.)
A. Disable sound.
B. Disable printer mapping.
C. Enable CPU Optimization.
D. Disable Session Reliability. Correct Answer: AB
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
Scenario: An administrator is deploying a new server to host the latest Citrix Web Interface version. During a test, the administrator has NOT been able to authenticate and access the list of published applications.
Which two actions must the administrator take to debug the Citrix Web Interface? (Choose two.)
A. Specify a valid path to generate a log file.
B. Edit the web.config file to enable the debug feature.
C. Use the Process Monitor tool to monitor the IIS processes.
D. Use the Windows Debug tool to generate and analyze a memory dump. Correct Answer: AB
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
An executive is connecting to the corporate XenApp Web Interface site and clicks on the published application he wishes to use, but nothing happens.
What could be causing the issue?
A. The Web Interface site is NOT configured properly.
B. One XenApp server is NOT able to process the request.
C. The published application references included in the ICA file are NOT valid.
D. The zone data collector is too busy to process the launch application request. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Call center users accessing a XenApp hosted desktop by means of thin client devices are unable to see a new multi-function printer in their session.
What can the administrator do to resolve this?
A. Enable the auto-create all client printers policy.
B. Add the new printer to the session printers policy.
C. Install the correct printer drivers on the XenApp servers.
D. Verify that the new printer has been added to the default printer policy. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Users accessing a XenApp hosted desktop by means of thin client devices can see a new network printer that has been provisioned by the administrator using the session printers policy but are unable to print to this printer.
What can the administrator do to resolve this?
A. Enable the auto-create all client printers policy.
B. Add the new printer to the session printers policy.
C. Verify that the new printer has been added to the default printer policy.
D. Install the correct printer driver on the XenApp servers and the print server. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
When engineering users from the Miami office print from a published CAD application, most office users experience decreased performance.
How can the XenApp Administrator prevent such degradation?
A. Configure the Multi-stream User policy.
B. Limit the bandwidth used by client printing.
C. Specify the Printer Properties Retention policy.
D. Set the Printer Redirection Bandwidth Limit Percent policy to 90. Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Scenario: All users connect from thin clients to a XenApp hosted desktop. Recently, the Order Entry team has been printing all documents in color. A session printers policy has been created and applied to this user group.
How can the XenApp Administrator ensure that these printers default to a setting of monochrome?
A. Modify the Printer Properties Retention Policy.
B. Change the universal driver preference policy to default to PCL4.
C. Modify the existing session printing policy with the required printer settings.
D. Adjust the Citrix Universal Printer default settings in the registry of the XenApp servers.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Scenario: When users connect to their published applications, the printers configured on their workstation are mapped in their XenApp sessions. During an investigation around performance problems, the administrator discovers that a high amount of printer drivers are being installed on the XenApp servers.
What can the administrator do to prevent this from happening?
A. Disable the Auto-create client printers policy.
B. Configure the Auto-create generic universal printer policy.
C. Configure the Automatic installation of native printer drivers policy.
D. Configure the Universal Printer Driver in the Printer driver mapping and compatibility policy.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Scenario: A Citrix XenApp 6.5 environment contains user devices, a Web Interface site and a XenApp
server farm with 27 XenApp 6.5 servers.
Users complain that they can log on, see published applications and start the applications but no ICA
connection is established.

Which two options can the administrator configure in this environment so that the users can establish their
ICA sessions? (Choose two.)

A. Open the IMA port on all of the XenApp 6.5 servers.
B. Open the ICA port on all of the XenApp 6.5 servers.
C. Open the Session Reliability port on all of the XenApp 6.5 servers.
D. Open the http port between the user device and the Web Interface site.
E. Open the XML port between the Web Interface site and the data collector.
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 93
Scenario: A Citrix XenApp 6.5 environment contains several published applications. All of the published applications are installed on every XenApp 6.5 server and a customized load evaluator is assigned to two worker groups where the servers are grouped. The users connect from the Local Area Network (LAN) and normally they can work without problems.
Users complain that sometimes the ICA sessions are very slow.
How can the administrator determine which user session consumes the most server resources?
A. Utilize the PowerShell SDK to monitor server processes.
B. Run an EdgeSight report to determine which processes have the highest values.
C. Create a new load evaluator and assign it with a new policy to the existing worker groups to determine which processes have the highest values.
D. Create a new Health Monitoring policy to send an alert for sessions when they reach a threshold value for processing speed to determine which processes have the highest values.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
SIMULATION Scenario: The Xirtic environment consists of two datacenters: Tokyo and Seoul. Servers in the environment are categorized into worker groups: Engineering Apps and Office Productivity Apps. There are total of four servers in the environment.

The various offices are on the following subnets:
Tokyo
o 192.168.1.0/24 Seoul

o 172.16.1.0/24
The XenApp servers can be accesses internally or externally using the following FQDNs:

Information about application access and usage:
Engineering users need access to the Design Project application. Engineering users must access the
application through Web interface while on the corporate network and from remote locations.
Engineering users access both published and streamed applications.

Information about security:
A corporate policy mandates that separate sites are created Tokyo Engineering users and Seoul
Engineering users.
Management also wants to address given to the client to be determined by the ad- dress translation
mappings in Web Interface.

o The public domain name is Xirtic.com and the internal domain name us Xirtic.- local

o All server hostname are the same internally and externally.
Tasks:
As the XenApp Administrator, configure the necessary settings in the Web interface Management Console
to meet the requirements specified by the Xirtic management team.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Here are the step by step solution to this.

Explanation:
Web Interface without CAG/CSG
Tokyo Site (External)

-Open Citrrix Web interface Management (Adminitrative tools Citrix Man- agement Consoles) on the Tokyo Citrix Web Interface Server
-Right Client on XenApp Web Sites Select Create Site Click Next

Click Next

Click Next Click Next Enter Citrix Farm Name, Citrix XenApp server in Tokyo and the XML port configured Click Next Click Next Click Next Click Next Click Finish
Configuring Access Translation on the Web Interface Click on Secure Access

Select Translated (Translating Firewall is used) Enter the public IP that is NATted to XenApp Server (Do this step for both XenApp servers and Port 2598)
Looks like this, Click Finish

Do the same steps on Seoul Web Interface For Internal
1.
Create a new site

2.
Name the site Tokyo-Internal and Seoul-Internal (Same Steps as the above, but leave the Secure Access as Direct)
Websites:
Internal http://<servername>/Tokyo-Internal and http://<servername>/Seoul-Internal
External http://<servername>/Tokyo and http://<servername>/Seoul
QUESTION 95
SIMULATION Scenario: In the Xirtic call center environment, the IT team needs to have an easy way to dynamically provision the XenApp servers and streamline the application publishing process. The IT team also needs to ensure that users are able to access the best available resources when they connect to the environment.
All the XenApp servers are currently in a computer OU named XenApp Servers.
Tasks:
1.
Create a worker group named XenApp Servers.

2.
Create a Load evaluator to the XenApp Servers worker group.

3.
Assign the load evaluator to the XenApp Servers worker group.

4.
Provide the Active Directory Security Group named Call Center users with a published desktop of XenApp server. Name the published desktop Call Center Users.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Here are the step by step solution to this.
Explanation: Use the following Task 1:

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QUESTION 46
When using personal vDisk, where could a Citrix Administrator find the output diagnostic log in order to see any errors that are occurring?
A. Application Event Log
B. Site Monitoring database
C. Citrix Configuration Logging database
D. A file location determined by the administrator

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
A Citrix Administrator is unable to create machines in Citrix Studio. What are two possible reasons for this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The DHCP Service is NOT running.
B. The computer browser is NOT running.
C. The Machine Creation Service is NOT running.
D. The Active Directory Identity Service is NOT running.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 48
Which action could a Citrix Administrator take to roll-back changes made to virtual desktops provisioned using Machine Creation Services?
A. Disable maintenance mode in the machine catalog in Citrix Studio.
B. Revert the virtual machines to the previous snapshot in XenCenter.
C. Click the ‘Rollback Update’ option in the machine catalog in Citrix Studio.
D. Rollback to the previous version of the vDisk in the Provisioning Services Console.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
When users launch their pooled desktops from Receiver through StoreFront, the following error is
displayed:
An error occurred while making the requested connection.
Which action could the Citrix Administrator take to determine the cause of this issue?

A. Read the client event logs.
B. Restart the StoreFront server.
C. Check that the SSL certificates are correctly installed.
D. Read the Delivery Controller logs and StoreFront logs.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 50
When users attempt to log on to Receiver for Web, they receive the following error: Http/1.1 Gateway Timeout
What could be causing this error?
A. Port 2598 is blocked by a firewall.
B. The configured AppController is NOT reachable.
C. The SSL certificate installed on the StoreFront server has expired.
D. Antivirus software on client devices is blocking connections to the StoreFront server.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51
When external users attempt to access a Receiver for Web store through NetScaler, the following error
message is displayeD.

Cannot complete your request.
You can log on and try again, or contact your help desk for assistance.
What is a possible cause of this error?

A. The user licenses on the NetScaler have expired.
B. The SSL certificate on the NetScaler has expired.
C. TheStoreFront server CANNOT resolve the callback FQDN.
D. The Secure Ticket Authority has been configured incorrectly on the StoreFront server.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 52
Scenario: A company implements XenDesktop. Windows XP users are unable to launch their Windows 8
virtual desktops. They receive the following error:
Error: Please contact your help desk with the following information: Cannot validate SSL certificate.
What is a possible cause of this error?

A. Citrix Receiver needs to be updated.
B. The SSL certificate on the NetScaler has expired.
C. The server certificate is NOT installed on the computer.
D. Citrix Receiver is unable to verify the server certificate revocation.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configures Citrix Profile Management on users’ virtual desktops so that user settings can be retained between sessions. Users report that they have to set up applications every time they launch a new session.
To resolve the issue, the administrator should ensure that the __________ and the __________. (Choose the two correct phrases to complete the sentence.)
A. Profile Management path is correctly configured
B. Profile Management Service is running on the virtual desktops
C. Profile Management definition has been created in Citrix Studio
D. Profile Management .INI file has NOT been deleted from the virtual desktops

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 54
A Citrix Administrator needs to investigate issues related to Citrix Profile Management, which is configured on users’ virtual desktops. Where should the administrator enable and access logging in order to investigate these issues?
A. The Citrix Policy and view the log files on the virtual desktop
B. The Citrix Policy and view events in the System Event Log on the virtual desktop
C. The Citrix Profile Management definition in Citrix Studio and create a new definition
D. The Citrix Profile Management .INI file and view events in the System Event Log on the virtual desktop

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
A Citrix Administrator is unable to create desktop OS machines using Machine Creation Services. What is a possible cause of the issue?
A. Citrix Director is unreachable.
B. DHCP is NOT working correctly.
C. The Machine Identity Service is NOT running.
D. Antivirus software on the Delivery Controller is blocking the creation.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator enables Citrix Profile Management for virtual desktop users. These users are now reporting that their session logon times have become slow. The administrator needs to gather data to resolve the issue.
To gather information on the slow logons, the administrator could use __________ or __________. (Choose the two options to complete the sentence.)
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix Profile Management log files
D. Citrix Configuration Logging database

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 57
Scenario: Users report that they CANNOT upgrade their Citrix Receiver to the latest version. An incident
ticket has been assigned to a Citrix Administrator to resolve this issue.
What could the administrator do to resolve the issue?

A. Edit the Windows Registry.
B. Modify StoreFront Web settings.
C. Install Citrix Receiver using the administrator account.
D. Download the new configuration file using Receiver for Web.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Scenario: To ensure security, users who connect to the network from a remote location must be unable to map their client drives and printers. A Citrix Administrator creates a policy that blocks client drives and printers and configures a filter for NetScaler.
Which additional step should the administrator take to meet the requirements of the scenario?
A. Configure the user filter on the policy.
B. Add an access control filter to the policy.
C. Ensure that the client is running the latest version of Receiver.
D. Set the priority of the policy so that it is given more preference.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 59
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator receives instructions to reallocate XenDesktop licenses. After the administrator downloads the license file, users are unable to connect to the desktops. Why are users unable to connect to the desktops?
A. The administrator specified the wrong Hostname.
B. The administrator reallocated the incorrect product key.
C. The administrator specified the incorrect MAC address.
D. The administrator changed the .LIC filename prior to saving it in the MyFiles folder.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
Which two tools could a Citrix Administrator use to gather information on why users are receiving licensing errors when connecting to virtual desktops? (Choose two.)
A. License node in Citrix Studio
B. License Manager in XenCenter
C. Historical Trend Reports in Citrix Director
D. Dashboard in License Administration Console

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 61
Scenario: External users are experiencing issues connecting to Internet applications through NetScaler. Clientless Access is disabled.
Which action should a Citrix Administrator take to investigate the cause of this issue?
A. View dmesg.boot.
B. Open NetScaler Plug-in logging.
C. Configure ACL and TCP logging.
D. Configure Auditing on the NetScaler.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 62
A Citrix Administrator creates an external network in a XenServer deployment; however, virtual machines connected to the newly created external network CANNOT communicate with other devices on the same subnet as the XenServer host.
The virtual machines are unable to communicate with devices on the same subnet as the XenServer host because __________ or __________. (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)
A. the virtual machines are behind a NAT router
B. MAC filtering is enabled on the external network
C. the link status for the external NIC is disconnected
D. the virtual machines are on a VLAN that is configured incorrectly

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 63
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is modifying a vDisk. The administrator finishes making changes to the vDisk and promotes it to production. Now, only one machine is working with the new vDisk.
In which access mode should the administrator put the vDisk so that multiple target devices can boot from this vDisk?

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QUESTION 135
Which criterion can be used to control the actions of supervisor workflows?
A. average talk duration
B. number of agents logged in
C. number of calls abandoned
D. duration of oldest call in queue

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
What does CSQ stand for in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Contact Skill Queue PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
B. Common Skill Queue
C. Contact Service Queue
D. Common Service Queue
E. Competence Skill Queue
F. Competence Service Queue

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment scenario is valid?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.0
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.1
C. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.5 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.3
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 5.0

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
What issues notification messages for CRS engine errors?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. syslog

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
How many languages can be installed for the Cisco Agent Desktop (CAD) and the Cisco Supervisor Desktop (CSD)?
A. one language for both the CAD and the CSD
B. one language for the CAD and a different language for the CSD
C. two languages for the CAD and one language for the CSD
D. two languages for both the CAD and the CSD

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. Caller will receive network busy treatment. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route Point in CallManager.
D. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
The CRS Installer is used to perform which functions? (Choose three.)
A. install CRS software
B. back up CRS data
C. repair a CRS installation
D. back up CallManager data
E. remove a CRS installation (uninstall)
F. activate CRS components

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 142
In a high availability scenario, what is the longest expected downtime for a Cisco Agent Desktop failover?
A. 10 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
How is the default e-mail address in the E-mail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send E-mail step as a bcc.
B. It automatically receives alarms generated by the Cisco CRS Server.
C. It is used if no e-mail contact is specified in the Create E-mail step.
D. It becomes the From address in the Send E-Mail step if no address is specified.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
In addition to writing information to a trace file, the Cisco CRS System sends standard event
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165 logging messages to a syslog server through which service?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. Win32

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group?
A. CTI Ports
B. CRS CTI Route Point
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Which three server types are supported for the installation of Cisco CRS? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco MCS 78xx servers
B. Dell PowerEdge servers
C. HP DL Cisco certified servers
D. Acer Altos servers
E. IBM xSeries Cisco certified servers
F. Apple servers

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which server or servers combine with redundant Cisco CRS engines to make a valid Cisco CRS 4.0 deployment?
A. five recording servers
B. a simplex database server
C. five simplex VoIP monitoring servers
D. two VoIP monitoring servers and three recording servers

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
Which two steps check out a database connection from the connection pool? (Choose two.)
A. DB Get
B. DB Read
C. DB Write
D. DB Release

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Where are users managed and their data stored in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. in Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
B. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
C. in Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Communications Manager Express database
D. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Communications Manager Express database

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Which three components are installed from the Cisco CRS Installer media? (Choose three.)
A. iPlanet Web Server
B. Cisco CRS Engine
C. Cisco IP Telephony Windows 2000 Server OS
D. Cisco Unified CallManager
E. Cisco Recording
F. MS SQL Server

Correct Answer: BEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
B. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
C. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Administrator
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. No special configuration is needed.
B. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile.
C. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI ports.
D. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Which two releases require physical media to be ordered and received prior to patching or upgrading Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? (Choose two.)
A. Minor Release
B. Major Release
C. Service Release
D. Engineering Special
E. Maintenance Release

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
What formula do you use to calculate the number of agents in a Call Center?
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. AHT * BHCA
D. VG ports + IVR ports

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which step library is included in the license for Cisco Unified CCX Standard?
A. ICM steps
B. e-mail steps
C. media steps
D. database steps PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 156
Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express v. 5.0?
A. a two-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Communications Manager cluster
B. a one-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Communication Manager clusters
C. a one-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Communication Manager Express router
D. two Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Communications Manager cluster

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
If an existing script is uploaded to the CRS, what does it ask?
A. Do you want to debug the script?
B. Do you want to refresh the script?
C. Do you want to save the application?
D. Do you want to return to Script Management?

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
What tool is used to estimate the hardware server resources required for an IPCC Express deployment?
A. IPC Resource Calculator
B. CTI Port Calculator
C. Configuration and Ordering Tool
D. CRS Applications Administration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
If the Call Redirect step sends a caller to a device that does not exist in the Call Manager, which branch of the step is executed?
A. Busy
B. Invalid PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
C. Successful
D. Unsuccessful
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployment?
A. 10 agents
B. 50 agents
C. 100 agents
D. 300 agents

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the purpose of the Repair button in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 Installation Wizard?
A. recover or restore a Cisco CRS system
B. reinstall the same version of Cisco CRS on top of the currently installed version
C. remove a version of Cisco CRS that the user had attempted but failed to remove previously
D. repair the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster associated with this Cisco CRS system

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
For which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 packages is the preview outbound dialer PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
available?
A. Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager packages
B. Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express packages
C. Enhanced and Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager packages
D. Enhanced and Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Unified Communications Manager Express packages

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
What does it mean for a variable in the Application Editor to be defined as a parameter?
A. The variable can be used to pass data to and from subflows.
B. The value for that variable can be supplied via Application Configuration in Application Administration
C. The value for that variable is defined by the calling application.
D. The variable can be used in conditional steps.
E. The variable can be used to pass data to and from VoiceXML applications.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Which feature is available on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployments?
A. wrap-up data
B. high availability
C. preview outbound dialer
D. barge-in on Cisco Supervisor Desktop

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
What is the Flush Input Buffer setting used for in the Input tab of the Menu step?
A. to release memory held by the prompt variable
B. to clear the value of the menu choice before the prompt is played
C. to prevent the previous value from being used again on the menu choice
D. to prevent the caller from entering a menu choice before the prompt has played
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
Which interface is used to configure debug parameters for log files?
A. Datastore Control Center
B. Alarm and Trace Configuration
C. Custom File Configuration
D. Control Center

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with three requirements: 250 configured agents 150 agents maximum logged in at any given time 30 agents able to make outbound calls How many seats should be purchased?
A. 120 seats with 30 outbound seats
B. 150 seats with 30 outbound seats
C. 180 seats with 30 outbound seats
D. 250 seats with 30 outbound seats

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
What is the maximum number of CTI ports supported by a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 Standard deployment?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 300
D. varies based on the number of expansion servers
E. varies based on the number of configured applications

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
A Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment must have the following characteristics:
High Availability Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 two remote sites agent pool split evenly

between both sites 3 concurrent supervisors 20 concurrent agents agents using Cisco IP Phone Agent and Citrix terminals silent monitoring and recording in use no historical reporting during call center open hours What is the minimum number of servers needed to support this configuration?
A. two servers
B. three servers
C. four servers PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
D. five servers
E. six servers
F. the answer depends on where the supervisors are located

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
Which step is designed to prompt a user to press or say a single-digit number to perform a specific function?
A. Menu
B. Get Digit String
C. Get Call Contact Info
D. Extended Get Digit String

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
What allows you to monitor the system performance of the Cisco CRS System (CPU, memory, etc.)?
A. Cisco Desktop Administrator
B. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
C. Microsoft Windows 2000 Performance Monitoring
D. CRS Application Administration
E. CRS Application Editor

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
Which three feature enhancements are included in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 Supervisor Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. graphical reports
B. multi-tab browsers
C. dockable windows D. URL push to agents

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?
A. a CTI port to the customer PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
B. the agent line to the customer
C. the agent’s personal line to the customer
D. a CTI port to the agent, then redirected to the customer

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option
C. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
D. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service platform
E. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
How is product licensing stored and viewed in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0?
A. stored in LDAP, viewed in Cisco CRS License Update Utility
B. stored in LDAP, viewed in Cisco CRS Application Administration
C. stored in local files, viewed in Cisco CRS License Update Utility
D. stored in local files, viewed in Cisco CRS Application Administration

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
What is the maximum number of agents supported for CCM co-resident installations?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
The use of 7845-I2 or 7845-H2 servers allows Cisco Unified CCX 5.0 to support more of which of the following?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
A. agents
B. IVR ports
C. VXML ports
D. simultaneous reporting sessions

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
An Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 deployment requires support for 20 concurrently logged-in agents. The agents are split across two remote sites, and the high-availability Cisco CRS Engine, Database Server, VoIP Monitoring, and Recording server processes run at a central data center. The agents will be using CAD with Cisco Unified IP Phone 7960G and end-point monitoring. Very little recording and silent monitoring will be performed, and no historical reporting will be done during call center open hours. Assume the minimum number of servers is desired. How many Cisco Unified Contact Center Express hardware servers would be required for this Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
What is the main function of the CRS Editor?
A. manages the CRS Server
B. creates CRS Engine reports
C. creates application scripts for call flows
D. remotely manages the LDAP Directory

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
In the Expression Editor panel of CRS Script Editor, why would you use the Java tab? (Choose three.)
A. to execute a specified method of a Java class
B. to reference a variable or invoke a method of a custom Java Object
C. to pass variables between two different workflows
D. to create an object for the purpose of executing methods on a remote computer PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
E. to get a reference to the Contact and Session states
F. to allow for arguments to be passed to a specified method

Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
What should you set the Client Configuration to when configuring the ODBC Data Source for the Database Subsystem?
A. TCP
B. IP
C. Multiprotocol
D. Named Pipes
E. NWLink IPX
F. SPX

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
In the CRS Application Editor, where do you start the debugger?
A. toolbar
B. Step palette
C. Design window
D. Variable window
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting. Then, using a keystroke macro, they want to pop the account number into the account number field in the agent’s CRM desktop application. The keystroke macro will also initiate the CRM desktop application, executing a database lookup from the CRM Database server to retrieve the customer record. Assuming the organization wants the lowest cost solution, what product does this organization need for this capability?
A. IPCC Express Standard
B. IPCC Express Enhanced
C. IPCC Express Premium
D. IPCC Enterprise
E. IP IVR

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
QUESTION 184
How can you configure the Prompt step to play different prompts following subsequent timeouts or retries?
A. Configure it as a Generated Prompt.
B. Configure it as a Random Container Prompt.
C. Configure it as an Escalating Container Prompt.
D. Configure it as a Concatenated Container Prompt.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
By which ways does remote monitoring allow the monitored call to be selected? (Choose two.)
A. Agent Name
B. Agent Extension
C. application ID
D. Media Group ID
E. CSQ ID

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Which action blocks further inbound and preview outbound calls when an agent is presented with a preview outbound call?
A. Skip
B. Reject
C. Reject-close
D. Cancel Reservation

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which phone type has the following support matrix for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? version 4.0 unsupported version 4.5 supported version 5.0 supported
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. SCCP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
QUESTION 188
Which of the following is not a CRS Telephony or Media Subsystem?
A. Cisco Media
B. JTAPI
C. VXML
D. MRCP ASR

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
You have just successfully added a JTAPI trigger in CRS Administration. Which two items are automatically configured on your CallManager?
A. CTI dialogue control port
B. CTI Route Point
C. Dialogue group
D. CTI Route Point association with JTAPI user

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 190
Which two features are added when upgrading from IPCC Express Standard to Enhanced?(Choose two.)
A. Agent Routing
B. Historical Reporting
C. Conditional Routing
D. PrioritizedQueueing

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 161
How do new connections get established through a Security Gateway with SecureXL enabled?
A. New connections are always inspected by the firewall and if they are accepted, the subsequent packets of the same connection will be passed through SecureXL
B. The new connection will be first inspected by SecureXL and if it does not match the drop table of SecureXL, then it will be passed to the firewall module for a rule match.
C. New connection packets never reach the SecureXL module.
D. If the connection matches a connection or drop template in SecureXL, it will either be established or dropped without performing a rule match, else it will be passed to the firewall module for a rule match.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 162
Which of the following commands can be used to bind a NIC to a single processor when using a Performance Pack on SecurePlatform?

A. sim affinity
B. splat proc
C. set proc
D. fw fat path nic

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 163
Your customer asks you about the Performance Pack.
You explain to him that a Performance Pack is a software acceleration product which improves the
performance of the Security Gateway.
You may enable or disable this acceleration by either:

1) The command cpconfig
2) The command fwaccel on|off

What is the difference between these two commands?

A. Both commands function identically.
B. The fwaccel command determines the default setting. The command cpconfig can dynamically change the setting, but after the reboot it reverts to the default setting.
C. The command cpconfig works on the Security Platform only. The command fwaccel can be used on all platforms.
D. The cpconfig command enables acceleration. The command fwaccel can dynamically change the setting, but after the reboot it reverts to the default setting.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 164
Your customer complains of the weak performance of his systems. He has heard that Connection Templates accelerate traffic.
How do you explain to the customer about template restrictions and how to verify that they are enabled?
A. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to “group together” all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the source port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fwaccel stat.
B. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to “group together” all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the destination port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fwacel templates.
C. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to “group together” all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the destination port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fw ctl templates.
D. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to “group together” all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the source port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fw ctl templates.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 165
Frank is concerned with performance and wants to configure the affinities settings. His gateway does not have the Performance Pack running.
What would Frank need to perform in order configure those settings?
A. Edit $FWDIR/conf/fwaffinity.conf and change the settings.
B. Edit affinity.conf and change the settings.
C. Run fw affinity and change the settings.
D. Run sim affinity and change the settings.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 166
You are concerned that the processor for your firewall running NGX R71 SecurePlatform may be overloaded.
What file would you view to determine the speed of your processor(s)?
A. cat /etc/cpuinfo
B. cat /proc/cpuinfo
C. cat /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/conf/cpuinfo
D. cat /etc/sysconfig/cpuinfo

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 167
In CoreXL, what process is responsible for processing incoming traffic from the network interfaces, securely accelerating authorized packets, and distributing non-accelerated packets among kernel instances?
A. NAD (Network Accelerator Daemon)
B. SND (Secure Network Distributor)
C. SSD (Secure System Distributor)
D. SNP (System Networking Process)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 168
Due to some recent performance issues, you are asked to add additional processors to your firewall. If you already have CoreXL enabled, how are you able to increase Kernel instances?
A. Once CoreXL is installed you cannot enable additional Kernel instances without reinstalling R75.
B. In SmartUpdate, right-click on Firewall Object and choose Add Kernel Instances.
C. Use cpconfig to reconfigure CoreXL.
D. Kernel instances are automatically added after process installed and no additional configuration is needed.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 169
Which of the following platforms does NOT support SecureXL?
A. Power-1 Appliance
B. IP Appliance
C. UTM-1 Appliance
D. UNIX

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 170
Which of the following is NOT supported by CoreXL?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. Route-based VPN
C. IPS
D. IPV4

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 171
Which of the following is NOT accelerated by SecureXL?
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. SSH
D. HTTPS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 172
To verify SecureXL statistics you would use the command ________?
A. fwaccel stats
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fwaccel top
D. cphaprob stat
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 173
How can you disable SecureXL via the command line (it does not need to survive a reboot)?
A. cphaprob off
B. fw ctl accel off
C. securexl off
D. fwaccel off
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 174
Which of these is a type of acceleration in SecureXL?
A. FTP
B. connection rate
C. GRE
D. QoS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 175
How can you verify that SecureXL is running?
A. cpstat os
B. fw ver
C. fwaccel stat
D. securexl stat

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 176
Which of the following services will cause SecureXL templates to be disabled?
A. TELNET
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. LDAP

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 177
How do you enable SecureXL (command line) on SecurePlatform?
A. fw securexl on
B. fw accel on
C. fwaccel on
D. fwsecurexl on

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 178
The following graphic illustrates which command being issued on SecurePlatform?

A. fwaccel stats
B. fw accel stats
C. fw securexl stats
D. fwsecurexl stats

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 179
After Travis added new processing cores on his server, CoreXL did not use them.
What would be the most plausible reason why? Travis did not:
A. edit the Gateway Properties and increase the kernel instances.
B. run cpconfig to increase the number of CPU cores.
C. edit the Gateway Properties and increase the number of CPU cores.
D. run cpconfig to increase the kernel instances.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 180
A SmartProvisioning Gateway could be a member of which VPN communities?
(i)
Center In Star Topology

(ii)
Satellite in Star Topology
(iii) Carter in Remote Access Community
(iv)
Meshed Community

A.
(ii) and (iii)

B.
All

C.
(i), (ii) and (iii)

D.
(ii) only

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 181
What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (OSPF, RIP, etc.) on SecurePlatform Pro?
A. gated
B. There’s no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.
C. routerd
D. arouted

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 182
What is the command to enter the router shell?
A. gated
B. routerd
C. clirouter
D. router

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 183
Which statement is TRUE for route-based VPN’s?
A. Route-based VPN’s replace domain-based VPN’s.
B. Route-based VPN’s are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain.
C. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required.
D. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each Gateway.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 184
If both domain-based and route-based VPN’s are configured, which will take precedence?
A. Must be chosen/configured manually by the Administrator in the Policy > Global Properties
B. Must be chosen/configured manually by the Administrator in the VPN community object
C. Domain-based
D. Route-based

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 185
Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. They are only supported on the IPSO Operating System.
B. VTIs cannot be assigned a proxy interface.
C. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.
D. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 186
Which of the following is TRUE concerning un-numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTIs must be assigned a proxy interface.
B. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.
C. VTIs are only supported on SecurePlatform.
D. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 187
Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured
B. VTI specific additional local and remote IP addresses are not configured
C. VTIs are only supported on SecurePlatform
D. VTIs cannot be assigned a proxy interface
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 188
Which of the following is TRUE concerning numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTIs can use an already existing physical-interface IP address
B. VTIs cannot share IP addresses
C. VTIs are supported on SecurePlatform Pro
D. VTIs are assigned only local addresses, not remote addresses
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 189
When configuring numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) in a clustered environment, what issues need to be considered?
1.
Each member must have uniqie source IP address

2.
Every interface on each member reqiures a unique IP address

3.
All VTIs going to the same remote peer must have the same name

4.
Cluster IP addresses are required
A. 1, 3, and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 190
How do you verify a VPN Tunnel Interface (VTI) is configured properly?
A. vpn shell display <VTI name> detailed
B. vpn shell show <VTI name> detailed
C. vpn shell show interface detailed <VTI name>
D. vpn shell display interface detailed <VTI name>

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 191
What is used to validate a digital certificate?
A. S/MIME
B. CRL
C. IPsec
D. PKCS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 192
You want to establish a VPN, using certificates.
Your VPN will exchange certificates with an external partner.

Which of the following activities should you do first?

A. Manually import your partner’s Access Control List.
B. Manually import your partner’s Certificate Revocation List.
C. Exchange exported CA keys and use them to create a new server object to represent your partner’s Certificate Authority (CA).
D. Create a new logical-server object to represent your partner’s CA.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 193
You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces.
You also want the traffic to exit the Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including
Remote Access Communities.

How should you configure the VPN match rule?

A. Communities > Communities
B. internal_clear > All_GwToGw
C. internal_clear > All_communities
D. Internal_clear > External_Clear

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 194
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding OSPF configuration on SecurePlatform Pro?
A. router ospf 1 creates the Router ID for the Security Gateway and should be the same ID for all Gateways.
B. router ospf 1 creates the Router ID for the Security Gateway and should be different for all Gateways.
C. router ospf 1 creates an OSPF routing instance and this process ID should be different for each Security Gateway.
D. router ospf 1 creates an OSPF routing instance and this process ID should be the same on all Gateways.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 195
If you need strong protection for the encryption of user data, what option would be the BEST choice?
A. When you need strong encryption, IPsec is not the best choice. SSL VPN’s are a better choice.
B. Use Diffie-Hellman for key construction and pre-shared keys for Quick Mode. Choose SHA in Quick Mode and encrypt with AES. Use AH protocol. Switch to Aggressive Mode.
C. Disable Diffie-Hellman by using stronger certificate based key-derivation. Use AES-256 bit on all encrypted channels and add PFS to QuickMode. Use double encryption by implementing AH and ESP as protocols.
D. Use certificates for Phase 1, SHA for all hashes, AES for all encryption and PFS, and use ESP protocol.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 196
Your organization maintains several IKE VPN’s.
Executives in your organization want to know which mechanism Security Gateway R75 uses to guarantee
the authenticity and integrity of messages.

Which technology should you explain to the executives?

A. Digital signatures
B. Certificate Revocation Lists
C. Key-exchange protocols
D. Application Intelligence

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 197
There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can:
A. Probe links for availability.
B. Use links based on Day/Time.
C. Assign links to specific VPN communities.
D. Use links based on authentication method. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 198
There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can:
A. Assign links to use Dynamic DNS.
B. Use links based on authentication method.
C. Use links based on Day/Time.
D. Use Load Sharing to distribute VPN traffic.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 199
There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can:
A. Assign links to specific VPN communities.
B. Assign links to use Dynamic DNS.
C. Use links based on services.
D. Prohibit Dynamic DNS.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 200
What type of object may be explicitly defined as a MEP (Multiple Entry Point) VPN?
A. Mesh VPN Community
B. Any VPN Community
C. Remote Access VPN Community
D. Star VPN Community

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 201
MEP (Multiple Entry Point) VPN’s use the Proprietary Probing Protocol to send special UDP RDP packets to port ____ to discover if an IP is accessible.
A. 259
B. 256
C. 264
D. 201

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 202
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP (Multiple Entry Point) VPN’s?
A. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required.
B. MEP VPN’s are not restricted to the location of the gateways.
C. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the first connection fail.
D. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 203
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP (Multiple Entry Point) VPN’s?
A. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the first
connection fail.
B. MEP Security Gateways can be managed by separate Management Servers.
C. MEP VPN’s are restricted to the location of the gateways.
D. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 204
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN’s?
A. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.
B. MEP VPN’s are restricted to the location of the gateways.
C. The VPN Client selects which Security Gateway takes over, should the first connection fail.
D. State synchronization betweened Secruity Gateways is required.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 205
You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol.
What is the correct command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf ospf network1 ospf network2
C. Enable Configure terminal Router ospf Network area
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 206
At what router prompt would you save your OSPF configuration?
A. localhost.localdomain(config)#
B. localhost.localdomain(config-if)#
C. localhost.localdomain#
D. localhost.localdomain(config-router-ospf)#

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 207
What is the router command to save your OSPF configuration?
A. save memory
B. write config
C. save
D. write mem

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 208
What is the command to show OSPF adjacencies?
A. show ospf interface
B. show ospf summary-address
C. show running-config
D. show ip ospf neighbor

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 209
Which of the following operating systems support numbered VTI’s?
A. SecurePlatform Pro
B. Solaris
C. IPSO 4.0 +
D. Windows Server 2008

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 210
You have installed SecurePlatform R75 as Security Gateway operating system. As company requirements changed, you need the VTI features of R75.
What should you do?
A. Only IPSO 3.9 supports VTI feature, so you have to replace your Security Gateway with Nokia appliances.
B. In SmartDashboard click on the OS drop down menu and choose SecurePlatform Pro. You have to reboot the Security Gateway in order for the change to take effect.
C. Type pro enable on your Security Gateway and reboot it.
D. You have to re-install your Security Gateway with SecurePlatform Pro R75, as SecurePlatform R75 does not support VTIs.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 211
Which operating system(s) support(s) unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) for route-based VPN’s?
A. Solaris 9 and higher
B. IPSO 3.9 and higher
C. Red Hat Linux
D. SecurePlatform for NGX and higher

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 212
Which of the following commands would you run to remove site-to-site IKE and IPSec Keys?
A. vpn tu
B. ikeoff
C. vpn export_p12
D. vpn accel off

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 213
What is the most common cause for a Quick mode packet 1 failing with the error “No Proposal Chosen” error?
A. The OS and patch level of one gateway does not match the other.
B. The previously established Permanent Tunnel has failed.
C. There is a network connectivity issue.
D. The encryption strength and hash settings of one peer does not match the other.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 214
Which component receives events and assigns severity levels to the events; invokes any defined automatic reactions, and adds the events to the Events Data Base?
A. SmartEvent Analysis DataServer
B. SmartEvent Client
C. SmartEvent Correlation Unit
D. SmartEvent Server

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 215
The SmartEvent Correlation Unit:
A. adds events to the events database.
B. assigns a severity level to an event.
C. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
D. displays the received events.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 216
The SmartEvent Client:
A. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
B. displays the received events.
C. adds events to the events database.
D. assigns a severity level to an event.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 200
Which of the following commands can be used to bind a NIC to a single processor when using a Performance Pack on SecurePlatform?

A. sim affinity
B. splat proc
C. set proc
D. fw fat path nic

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 201
Review the Rule Base displayed.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 78 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam For which rules will the connection templates be generated in SecureXL?
A. Rule nos. 2 and 5
B. Rule no. 2 only
C. All rules except rule no. 3
D. Rule nos. 2 to 5

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 202
Your customer asks you about the Performance Pack. You explain to him that a Performance Pack is a software acceleration product which improves the performance of the Security Gateway. You may enable or disable this acceleration by either:
1) The command cpconfig
2) The command fwaccel on　ff
What is the difference between these two commands?
A. Both commands function identically.
B. The fwaccel command determines the default setting. The command cpconfig can dynamically change the setting, but after the reboot it reverts to the default setting.
C. The command cpconfig works on the Security Platform only. The command fwaccel can be used on all platforms.
D. The cpconfig command enables acceleration. The command fwaccel can dynamically change the setting, but after the reboot it reverts to the default setting.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 203
Your customer complains of the weak performance of his systems. He has heard that Connection Templates accelerate traffic. How do you explain to the customer about template restrictions and how to verify that they are enabled?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 79 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
A. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to “group together” all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the source port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fwaccel stat.
B. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to “group together” all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the destination port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fwacel templates.
C. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to “group together” all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the destination port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fw ctl templates.
D. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to “group together” all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the source port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fw ctl templates.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 204
Frank is concerned with performance and wants to configure the affinities settings. His gateway does not have the Performance Pack running. What would Frank need to perform in order configure those settings?
A. Edit $FWDIR/conf/fwaffinity.conf and change the settings.
B. Edit affinity.conf and change the settings.
C. Run fw affinity and change the settings.
D. Run sim affinity and change the settings.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 205
You are concerned that the processor for your firewall running NGX R71 SecurePlatform may be overloaded. What file would you view to determine the speed of your processor(s)?
A. cat /etc/cpuinfo
B. cat /proc/cpuinfo
C. cat /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/conf/cpuinfo
D. cat /etc/sysconfig/cpuinfo

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 206
Which of the following is NOT a restriction for connection template generation?
A. SYN Defender
B. ISN Spoofing
C. UDP services with no protocol type or source port mentioned in advanced properties
D. VPN Connections

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 207
In CoreXL, what process is responsible for processing incoming traffic from the network interfaces, securely accelerating authorized packets, and distributing non-accelerated packets among kernel instances?
A. NAD (Network Accelerator Daemon)
B. SND (Secure Network Distributor)
C. SSD (Secure System Distributor)
D. SNP (System Networking Process)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 208
Due to some recent performance issues, you are asked to add additional processors to your firewall. If you already have CoreXL enabled, how are you able to increase Kernel instances?
A. Once CoreXL is installed you cannot enable additional Kernel instances without reinstalling R75.
B. In SmartUpdate, right-click on Firewall Object and choose Add Kernel Instances.
C. Use cpconfig to reconfigure CoreXL.
D. Kernel instances are automatically added after process installed and no additional configuration is needed.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 209
Which of the following platforms does NOT support SecureXL?
A. Power-1 Appliance
B. IP Appliance
C. UTM-1 Appliance

D. UNIX Correct Answer: D QUESTION 210
Which of the following is NOT supported by CoreXL?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. Route-based VPN
C. IPS
D. IPV4

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 211
If the number of kernel instances for CoreXL shown is 6, how many cores are in the physical machine?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 212
Which of the following is NOT accelerated by SecureXL?
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. SSH
D. HTTPS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 213
To verify SecureXL statistics you would use the command ________?
A. fwaccel stats
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fwaccel top
D. cphaprob stat
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 214
How can you disable SecureXL via the command line (it does not need to survive a reboot)?
A. cphaprob off
B. fw ctl accel off
C. securexl off
D. fwaccel off
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 215
Which of these is a type of acceleration in SecureXL?
A. FTP
B. connection rate
C. GRE
D. QoS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 216
The CoreXL SND (Secure Network Distributor) is responsible for:
A. distributing non-accelerated packets among kernel instances
B. accelerating VPN traffic
C. shutting down cores when they are not needed
D. changing routes to distribute the load across multiple firewalls

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 217
How can you verify that SecureXL is running?
A. cpstat os
B. fw ver
C. fwaccel stat
D. securexl stat

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 218
Which of the following services will cause SecureXL templates to be disabled?
A. TELNET
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. LDAP

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 219
How do you enable SecureXL (command line) on SecurePlatform?
A. fw securexl on
B. fw accel on
C. fwaccel on
D. fwsecurexl on

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 220
The following graphic illustrates which command being issued on SecurePlatform?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 85 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
A. fwaccel stats
B. fw accel stats
C. fw securexl stats
D. fwsecurexl stats

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 221
After Travis added new processing cores on his server, CoreXL did not use them. What would be the most plausible reason why? Travis did not:
A. edit the Gateway Properties and increase the kernel instances.
B. run cpconfig to increase the number of CPU cores.
C. edit the Gateway Properties and increase the number of CPU cores.
D. run cpconfig to increase the kernel instances.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 222
Steve tries to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the Match column does not have the option to see the Directional Match. Steve sees the following screen. What is the problem?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 86 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

A. Steve must enable directional_match(true) in the objects_5_0.C file on SmartCenter Server.
B. Steve must enable Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway.
C. Steve must enable VPN Directional Match on the VPN Advanced screen, in Global properties.
D. Steve must enable a dynamic routing protocol, such as OSPF, on the Gateways.
E. Steve must enable VPN Directional Match on the gateway object’s VPN tab.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 223
A SmartProvisioning Gateway could be a member of which VPN communities?
(i)
Center In Star Topology

(ii)
Satellite in Star Topology
(iii) Carter in Remote Access Community
(iv)
Meshed Community

A.
(ii) and (iii)

B.
All

C.
(i), (ii) and (iii)

D.
(ii) only

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 224
What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (OSPF, RIP, etc.) on SecurePlatform Pro?
A. gated
B. There’s no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.
C. routerd
D. arouted

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 225
What is the command to enter the router shell?
A. gated
B. routerd
C. clirouter
D. router

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 226
Which statement is TRUE for route-based VPN’s?
A. Route-based VPN’s replace domain-based VPN’s.
B. Route-based VPN’s are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain.
C. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required.
D. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each Gateway.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 227
VPN routing can also be configured by editing which file?
A. $FWDIR\conf\vpn_route.c
B. $FWDIR\bin\vpn_route.conf
C. $FWDIR\conf\vpn_route.conf
D. $FWDIR\VPN\route_conf.c

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 228
If both domain-based and route-based VPN’s are configured, which will take precedence?
A. Must be chosen/configured manually by the Administrator in the Policy > Global Properties
B. Must be chosen/configured manually by the Administrator in the VPN community object
C. Domain-based
D. Route-based
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 229
Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. They are only supported on the IPSO Operating System.
B. VTIs cannot be assigned a proxy interface.
C. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.
D. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 230
Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTIs must be assigned a proxy interface.
B. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.
C. VTIs are only supported on SecurePlatform.
D. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 231
Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured
B. VTI specific additional local and remote IP addresses are not configured
C. VTIs are only supported on SecurePlatform
D. VTIs cannot be assigned a proxy interface

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 232
Which of the following is TRUE concerning numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTIs are assigned only local addresses, not remote addresses
B. VTIs are only supported on IPSO
C. VTIs cannot share IP addresses
D. VTIs cannot use an already existing physical-interface IP address

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 233
Which of the following is TRUE concerning numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTIs can use an already existing physical-interface IP address
B. VTIs cannot share IP addresses
C. VTIs are supported on SecurePlatform Pro
D. VTIs are assigned only local addresses, not remote addresses

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 234
When configuring numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) in a clustered environment, what issues need to be considered?

A. 1, 3, and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 235
How do you verify a VPN Tunnel Interface (VTI) is configured properly?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 91 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
A. vpn shell display <VTI name> detailed
B. vpn shell show <VTI name> detailed
C. vpn shell show interface detailed <VTI name>
D. vpn shell display interface detailed <VTI name>

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 236
What is used to validate a digital certificate?
A. S/MIME
B. CRL
C. IPsec
D. PKCS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 237
Which statement defines Public Key Infrastructure? Security is provided:
A. by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and two-way symmetric-key encryption.
B. by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and public key encryption.
C. via both private and public keys, without the use of digital Certificates.
D. by authentication.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 238
Match the VPN-related terms with their definitions:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 92 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

A. A-3,B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
C. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
D. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 239
You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an external partner. Which of the following activities should you do first?
A. Manually import your partner’s Access Control List.
B. Manually import your partner’s Certificate Revocation List.
C. Exchange exported CA keys and use them to create a new server object to represent your partner’s Certificate Authority (CA).
D. Create a new logical-server object to represent your partner’s CA.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 240
You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the traffic to exit the Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities. How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Communities > Communities
B. internal_clear > All_GwToGw
C. internal_clear > All_communities
D. Internal_clear > External_Clear “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 93 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 241
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding OSPF configuration on SecurePlatform Pro?
A. router ospf 1 creates the Router ID for the Security Gateway and should be the same ID for all Gateways.
B. router ospf 1 creates the Router ID for the Security Gateway and should be different for all Gateways.
C. router ospf 1 creates an OSPF routing instance and this process ID should be different for each Security Gateway.
D. router ospf 1 creates an OSPF routing instance and this process ID should be the same on all Gateways.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 242
If you need strong protection for the encryption of user data, what option would be the BEST choice?
A. When you need strong encryption, IPsec is not the best choice. SSL VPN’s are a better choice.
B. Use Diffie-Hellman for key construction and pre-shared keys for Quick Mode. Choose SHA in Quick Mode and encrypt with AES. Use AH protocol. Switch to Aggressive Mode.
C. Disable Diffie-Hellman by using stronger certificate based key-derivation. Use AES-256 bit on all encrypted channels and add PFS to QuickMode. Use double encryption by implementing AH and ESP as protocols.
D. Use certificates for Phase 1, SHA for all hashes, AES for all encryption and PFS, and use ESP protocol.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 243
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 94 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Review the following list of actions that Security Gateway R75 can take when it controls packets. The Policy Package has been configured for Simplified Mode VPN. Select the response below that includes the available actions:
A. Accept, Drop, Encrypt, Session Auth
B. Accept, Drop, Reject, Client Auth
C. Accept, Hold, Reject, Proxy
D. Accept, Reject, Encrypt, Drop
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 244
Your organization maintains several IKE VPN’s. Executives in your organization want to know which mechanism Security Gateway R75 uses to guarantee the authenticity and integrity of messages. Which technology should you explain to the executives?
A. Digital signatures
B. Certificate Revocation Lists
C. Key-exchange protocols
D. Application Intelligence

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 245
There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can:
A. Probe links for availability.
B. Use links based on Day/Time.
C. Assign links to specific VPN communities.
D. Use links based on authentication method.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 246
There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can:
A. Assign links to use Dynamic DNS.
B. Use links based on authentication method.
C. Use links based on Day/Time.
D. Use Load Sharing to distribute VPN traffic.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 247
There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can:
A. Assign links to specific VPN communities.
B. Assign links to use Dynamic DNS.
C. Use links based on services.
D. Prohibit Dynamic DNS.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 248
There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can:
A. Use links based on Day/Time.
B. Set up links for Remote Access.
C. Assign links to specific VPN communities.
D. Assign links to use Dynamic DNS.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 249
What type of object may be explicitly defined as a MEP VPN?
A. Mesh VPN Community
B. Any VPN Community
C. Remote Access VPN Community
D. Star VPN Community

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 250
MEP VPN’s use the Proprietary Probing Protocol to send special UDP RDP packets to port ____ to discover if an IP is accessible.
A. 259
B. 256
C. 264
D. 201

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 251
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN’s?
A. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required.
B. MEP VPN’s are not restricted to the location of the gateways.
C. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the first connection fail.
D. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 252
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN’s?
A. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the first connection fail.
B. MEP Security Gateways can be managed by separate Management Servers.
C. MEP VPN’s are restricted to the location of the gateways.
D. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 253
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN’s?
A. State synchronization between Security Gateways is NOT required.
B. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.
C. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the first connection fail.
D. MEP VPN’s are restricted to the location of the gateways.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 254
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN’s?
A. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.
B. MEP VPN’s are restricted to the location of the gateways.
C. The VPN Client selects which Security Gateway takes over, should the first connection fail.
D. State synchronization betweened Secruity Gateways is required.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 255
You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf ospf network1 ospf network2
C. Enable Configure terminal Router ospf Network area
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 256
At what router prompt would you save your OSPF configuration?
A. localhost.localdomain(config)#
B. localhost.localdomain(config-if)#
C. localhost.localdomain#
D. localhost.localdomain(config-router-ospf)#

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 257
What is the router command to save your OSPF configuration?
A. save memory
B. write config
C. save
D. write mem

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 258
What is the command to show OSPF adjacencies?
A. show ospf interface
B. show ospf summary-address
C. show running-config
D. show ip ospf neighbor

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 259
A VPN Tunnel Interface (VTI) is defined on SecurePlatform Pro as: vpn shell interface add numbered 10.10.0.1 10.10.0.2 madrid.cp What do you know about this VTI?
A. 10.10.0.1 is the local Gateway’s internal interface, and 10.10.0.2 is the internal interface of the remote Gateway.
B. The peer Security Gateway’s name is madrid.cp.
C. The VTI name is madrid.cp.
D. The local Gateway’s object name is madrid.cp.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 260
Which of the following operating systems support numbered VTI’s?
A. SecurePlatform Pro
B. Solaris
C. IPSO 4.0 +
D. Windows Server 2008

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 261
Which type of routing relies on a VPN Tunnel Interface (VTI) to route traffic?
A. Domain-based VPN
B. Route-based VPN
C. Subnet-based VPN
D. Host-based VPN

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 262
You have installed SecurePlatform R75 as Security Gateway operating system. As company requirements changed, you need the VTI features of R75. What should you do?
A. Only IPSO 3.9 supports VTI feature, so you have to replace your Security Gateway with Nokia appliances.
B. In SmartDashboard click on the OS drop down menu and choose SecurePlatform Pro. You have to reboot the Security Gateway in order for the change to take effect.
C. Type pro enable on your Security Gateway and reboot it.
D. You have to re-install your Security Gateway with SecurePlatform Pro R75, as SecurePlatform R75 does not support VTIs.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 263
Which operating system(s) support(s) unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) for route-based VPN’s?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 101 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
A. Solaris 9 and higher
B. IPSO 3.9 and higher
C. Red Hat Linux
D. SecurePlatform for NGX and higher

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 264
You have three Gateways in a mesh community. Each gateway’s VPN Domain is their internal network as defined on the Topology tab setting All IP Addresses behind Gateway based on Topology information.
You want to test the route-based VPN, so you created VTIs among the Gateways and created static route entries for the VTIs. However, when you test the VPN, you find out the VPN still go through the regular domain IPsec tunnels instead of the routed VTI tunnels.
What is the problem and how do you make the VPN use the VTI tunnels?
A. Domain VPN takes precedence over the route-based VTI. To make the VPN go through VTI, remove the Gateways out of the mesh community and replace with a star community
B. Route-based VTI takes precedence over the Domain VPN. Troubleshoot the static route entries to insure that they are correctly pointing to the VTI gateway IP.
C. Route-based VTI takes precedence over the Domain VPN. To make the VPN go through VTI, use dynamic-routing protocol like OSPF or BGP to route the VTI address to the peer instead of static routes
D. Domain VPN takes precedence over the route-based VTI. To make the VPN go through VTI, use an empty group object as each Gateway’s VPN Domain

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 265
When configuring a Permanent Tunnel between two gateways in a Meshed VPN community, in what object is the tunnel managed?
A. VPN Community object
B. Each participating Security Gateway object
C. Security Management Server “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 102 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
D. Only the local Security Gateway object

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 266
Which of the following commands would you run to remove site-to-site IKE and IPSec Keys?
A. vpn tu
B. ikeoff
C. vpn export_p12
D. vpn accel off
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 267
Which of the following log files contains information about the negotiation process for encryption?
A. ike.elg
B. iked.elg
C. vpnd.elg
D. vpn.elg

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 268
Which of the following log files contains verbose information regarding the negotiation process and other encryption failures?
A. iked.elg
B. ike.elg
C. vpn.elg
D. vpnd.elg
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 269
What is the most common cause for a Quick mode packet 1 failing with the error “No Proposal Chosen” error?
A. The OS and patch level of one gateway does not match the other.
B. The previously established Permanent Tunnel has failed.
C. There is a network connectivity issue.
D. The encryption strength and hash settings of one peer does not match the other.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 270
Which component receives events and assigns severity levels to the events; invokes any defined automatic reactions, and adds the events to the Events Data Base?
A. SmartEvent Analysis DataServer
B. SmartEvent Client
C. SmartEvent Correlation Unit
D. SmartEvent Server

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 271
The ______________ contains the Events Data Base.
A. SmartEvent Client
B. SmartEvent Correlation Unit
C. SmartEvent DataServer
D. SmartEvent Server

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 272
The SmartEvent Correlation Unit:
A. adds events to the events database.
B. assigns a severity level to an event.
C. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
D. displays the received events.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 273
The SmartEvent Server:
A. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
B. displays the received events.
C. forwards what is known as an event to the SmartEvent Server.
D. assigns a severity level to an event.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 274
The SmartEvent Client:
A. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
B. displays the received events.
C. adds events to the events database.
D. assigns a severity level to an event.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 275
The SmartEvent Correlation Unit:
A. adds events to the events database.
B. displaya the received events.
C. looks for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
D. assigns a severity level to an event.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 276
The SmartEvent Correlation Unit:
A. adds events to the events database.
B. assigns a severity level to an event.
C. forwards what is identified as an event to the SmartEvent server.
D. displays the received events.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 277
The SmartEvent Server:
A. displays the received events
B. adds events to the events database
C. invokes defined automatic reactions
D. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 278
What are the 3 main components of the SmartEvent Software Blade?

A. i. ii. iii
B. iv, v, vi
C. i, iv, v
D. i, iii, iv

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 279
How many Events can be shown at one time in the Event preview pane?
A. 5,000
B. 30,000 C. 15,000
D. 1,000

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 280
You are reviewing computer information collected in ClientInfo. You can NOT:
A. Enter new credential for accessing the computer information.
B. Save the information in the active tab to an .exe file.
C. Copy the contents of the selected cells.
D. Run Google.com search using the contents of the selected cell. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 107 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 281
Which of the following is NOT a SmartEvent Permission Profile type?
A. Events Database
B. View
C. No Access
D. Read/Write

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 282
What is the SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s function?
A. Assign severity levels to events.
B. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy.
C. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
D. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 283
What is the SmartEvent Analyzer’s function?
A. Assign severity levels to events.
B. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy.
D. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 284
What is the SmartEvent Client’s function?
A. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy.
B. Generate a threat analysis report from the Reporter database.
C. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database.
D. Assign severity levels to events. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 285
A tracked SmartEvent Candidate in a Candidate Pool becomes an Event. What does NOT happen in the Analyzer Server?
A. SmartEvent provides the beginning and end time of the Event.
B. The Correlation Unit keeps adding matching logs to the Event.
C. The Event is kept open, but condenses many instances into one Event.
D. SmartEvent stops tracking logs related to the Candidate.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 286
How many pre-defined exclusions are included by default in SmartEvent R75 as part of the product installation?
A. 3
B. 0
C. 5
D. 10

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 287
What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions included with SmartEvent R75?
A. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition; a scenario that may occur in deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R71.
B. To allow SmartEvent R75 to function properly with all other R71 devices.
C. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.
D. As a base for starting and building exclusions.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 288
What is the benefit to running SmartEvent in Learning Mode?
A. There is no SmartEvent Learning Mode
B. To run SmartEvent with preloaded sample data in a test environment
C. To run SmartEvent, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purposes
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 289
______________ is NOT an SmartEvent event-triggered Automatic Reaction.
A. SNMP Trap
B. Mail
C. Block Access
D. External Script

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 290
For best performance in Event Correlation, you should use:
A. IP address ranges
B. Large groups
C. Nothing slows down Event Correlation
D. Many objects

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 291
What access level cannot be assigned to an Administrator in SmartEvent?
A. No Access
B. Write only
C. Read only
D. Events Database

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 292
_______________ manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic uploads of reports to a central FTP server.
A. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
B. SmartReporter
C. Security Management Server
D. SmartReporter Database

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 293
_____________ generates a SmartEvent Report from its SQL database.
A. SmartEvent Client
B. Security Management Server
C. SmartReporter
D. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 294
Which SmartReporter report type is generated from the SmartView Monitor history file?
A. Custom
B. Express
C. Traditional
D. Standard
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 295
Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter Client
B. Security Management Server
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. SmartEvent Server
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 296
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 112 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Which Check Point product implements a Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter
B. SmartView Monitor
C. SmartLSM
D. SmartView Tracker

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 297
You have selected the event Port Scan from Internal Network in SmartEvent, to detect an event when 30 port scans have occurred within 60 seconds. You also want to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?
A. Define the two port-scan detections as an exception.
B. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub-event.
D. You cannot set SmartEvent to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 298
When do modifications to the Event Policy take effect?
A. When saved on the Correlation Units, and pushed as a policy.
B. As soon as the Policy Tab window is closed.
C. When saved on the SmartEvent Client, and installed on the SmartEvent Server.
D. When saved on the SmartEvent Server and installed to the Correlation Units.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 299
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 113 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam To back up all events stored in the SmartEvent Server, you should back up the contents of which folder(s)?
A. $FWDIR/distrib
B. $FWDIR/distrib_db and $FWDIR/events
C. $RTDIR/distrib and $RTDIR/events_db
D. $RTDIR/events_db

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 300
To clean the system of all events, you should delete the files in which folder(s)?
A. $RTDIR/distrib and $RTDIR/events_db
B. $RTDIR/events_db
C. $FWDIR/distrib_db and $FWDIR/events
D. $FWDIR/distrib

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 301
What SmartConsole application allows you to change the Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartReporter
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartEvent Server

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 302

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