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Apple

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QUESTION 97
You want to use Picture Package to automate the placement of different images into a new document. What should you do?
A. open the images to be placed; choose the documents layot, size, and resolution; click OK
B. use Source to target the images folder, choose the document layout, size, and resolution, click OK
C. create a new, target, document; use Picture Package to source from the images folder, choose Layout and then click OK
D. in a picture Package choose the source, document, and Layout settings; then click in each preview section to select the different images and click OK

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
You want to apply an action to a group of images in the File Browser. What should you do?
A. select the images in the File Browser then drag and drop them onto a Droplet
B. select the images folder in the File Browser preview; then choose Automate>Create Droplet
C. target the images folder in the Filer browser; then choose Automate>Batch to select the action and choose File Browser as the source
D. select the images in the File Browser preview; then select the action and choose the File Browser as the source from the Actions palette menu

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 99
You want to create a droplet from an action in Photoshop. What should you do?
A. record the action and drag it to the Desktop
B. record the action and save it to the desired location
C. record the action and choose Automate>Create Droplet
D. highlight the action and choose Create Droplet from the Actions palette menu
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 100
You want to create an action that changes the magnification of an image to 100%. What should you do?
A. from the New dialog box, click Record; choose View>Actual Pixels; then click the Stop playing/ recording button.
B. from the New Action dialog box, click Record; double-click on the Zoom tool; then click the Stop laying/ recording button
C. from the New action dialog box Record; choose Insert Menu Item from the Actions then choose View>Actual Pixels
D. from the New Action dialog box,click Record; choose Insert Menu Item from the Actions palette menu;
Choose View> Actual Pixels; then click Correct Answer: D QUESTION 101 You have deselected the anti-aliased Lasso tool option. What effect will this have when you fill a Lasso selection with a color?
A. The filled region will be blurred.
B. The filled region will be partially transparent.
C. The edges of the filled region will appear jagged.
D. The edges of the filled region will appear smooth.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 102
You want to edit a selection by using the Brush tool. What should you do?
A. edit in Quick Mask mode
B. create an Adjustment layer
C. select Exclusion as the Blending mode of Exclusion
D. choose New Channel from the Channels palette menu

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 103
You make a selection by using the magnetic lasso tool. You wan to modify the selection. Which tool or tools can you use to modify the selection?
A. any selection tool
B. only the magnetic lasso
C. lasso, magnetic lasso or polygonal lasso
D. any selection tool except the magic wand

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 104
You are creating a selection by suing the Polygonal Lasso tool. You notice that the last two segments omit areas you want to select.
What should you?
A. press ECS and start the selection again
B. choose Select> Deselect and start the selection again
C. press Delete until only the last two segments are removed from the selection
D. choose Edit>Step Backward until only the last two segments are removed from the selection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 105
Which selection tool makes a selection based on similar pixel colors?
A. lasso
B. magic wand
C. elliptical marquee
D. rectangular marquee

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
Five people are using Photoshop on the same computer. Each person uses different palettes and palette locations. You want to give each person access to their preferred workspace.
What should you do?
A. use the Preset Manager to save and load the workspace
B. save and load a preset library for their preferred palettes
C. create the palette setup each user likes; and save a workspace
D. choose Edit>Preferences>General and select Save Palette Location

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
When the Status Bar is set to display document sizes, what do the first and second numeric readouts represent?
A. the height and width in pixels
B. the height and width in units of measure
C. the flattened file size and Photoshop file size
D. the document RAM requirements and available system RAM

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 108
You have developed several layer styles that you would like to share with other Photoshop users. There are also other styles in the Styles palette that you do not want to share.
What should you do?
A. in the style, select the styles yoy want to save; then choose save styles from the Styles palette menu
B. in the style palette, select the styles you ant to save; then choose Replace styles from the Styles palette menu
C. choose the style from the preset Type pop-up menu of the preset manager; select the styles you want to save; then click save set
D. choose the style from the preset Type pop-up menu of the preset manager; select the styles you want to save; then choose Replace Styles
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
You want to dock two palettes together so they can be moved as one. What should you do?
A. drag the tab of the first palette over the title bar of the second palette until the titile bar of the second palette becomes highlighted
B. drag the title bar of the first palette over the bottom of the second palette until the bottom of the second palette becomes highlighted
C. drag the tab of the first palette over the bottom of the second palette until the bottom of the second palette becomes highlighted
D. drag the title bar of the first palette over the title bar of the second palette until the title bar of the second palette becomes highlighted
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 110
By default, which statement about the History palette is true?
A. Each history state can be saved as a separate action.
B. It is used to monitor, but not make, changes to a document.
C. It is used to record changes to one document and then apply them to other documents.
D. Each history state is an accumulation of the states before it; removing the history state will cause the removal of all subsequent edits.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 111
Exhibit.

You are editing a Drop Shadow layer style. What effect does changing the Contour curve have on the drop shadow?
A. It makes it darker.
B. It makes it lighter
C. It adjusts its color and tone
D. It add variations to its opacity.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 112
You are editing a document with many layers. You want to merge several of the layers into a selected, empty layer without losing the original content. The layers you want to merge are linked.
What should you do?
A. choose Merge linked from the Layers palette menu
B. choose Merge visible from the Layers palette menu
C. press Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS), and choose Merge linked from the Layers palette menu
D. press Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS), and choose Merge visible from the Layers palette menu Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 113
You have created a Shape layer. You want the shape to appear to have a woven texture by using a layer style.
Which layer style should you use?
A. Stain
B. Stroke
C. Lighting Effects
D. Bevel and Emboss

Correct Answer: D

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IBM Certified Solution Designer

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QUESTION 31
What is the purpose of the Identify Design Mechanisms activity?
A. to refine the analysis mechanisms and specify the exact implementation of the mechanism
B. to provide a conceptual set of services that is used by analysis objects
C. to refine analysis mechanisms into design mechanisms, based on the constraints imposed bythe implementation environment
D. to define design placeholders in the architecture so the architecting effort remains focused andis less likely to become sidetracked

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32
In a dependency, through what reference does the client class gain visibility to the supplier?
A. local reference
B. parameter reference
C. global reference
D. field reference

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 33
In which Analysis and Design activity are subsystems mapped to analysis classes?
A. Architectural Analysis
B. Identify Design Elements
C. Identify Subsystems
D. Incorporate Existing Design Elements

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which design element is used to represent a concurrent object?
A. active class
B. capsule
C. design class
D. event

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
The Describe Distribution activity is where the processes defined in the Describe the Run-time Architecture activity are allocated to _____.
A. physical nodes
B. components
C. classes
D. activities

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
During Subsystem Design, how many interaction diagrams (sequence or communication) should be created?
A. at least one interaction diagram per interface operation
B. one interaction diagram per interface realization
C. at least one interaction diagram for each use of an external interface
D. one interaction diagram for each realizing class
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
A directed graph of nodes connected by transitions is a _____ diagram.
A. communication
B. sequence
C. component
D. state machine
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Click on the exhibit button. . In the diagram, what is F?
A. fork
B. initial state
C. decision
D. transition
E. final state
F. event
G. state
H. guard condition

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 39
Use Case Design is part of which workflow detail?
A. Design Use Cases
B. Analyze Behavior
C. Design Components
D. Design Classes and Subsystems

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
When does an analysis class map directly to a design class?
A. when the analysis class uses the <entity> stereotype
B. when the analysis class represents a single logical abstraction
C. when the modeling tool supports transformation of Analysis Models to Design
D. when an analyst has strong design skills

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
What is a design subsystems primary purpose?
A. provides configuration management and model organization
B. encapsulates behavior
C. packages similar design classes together
D. represents external systems

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
What is the purpose of subsystem design?
A. finalizes the details of each interface implemented by the subsystems in an application
B. breaks the system up into subsystems in order to allocate subsystems to development teams
C. defines the behaviors specified in the subsystem’s interfaces in terms of collaborations ofcontained design elements
D. defines on which tier each subsystem will be implemented and the communicationmechanisms used between them
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
Click on the exhibit button. . In the diagram, what are C1 and C2?
A. forks
B. initial states
C. decisions
D. transitions
E. final states
F. events
G. states

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Cisco

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QUESTION 26
Which option describes the possible result of a customer configuring a server pool that contains Cisco UCS B200 M2 and B250 M2 blades?
A. A service profile cannot migrate automatically from one blade to another blade within the server pool due to hardware failure.
B. You must decommission a blade server for the associated service profile to migrate to another blade in the server pool successfully.
C. You must uncheck the Restrict Migration box in the service profile to allow service profile migration between blades in the server pool.
D. After service profile migration, the server fails in boot from SAN due to differences in PCI device IDs.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which two options occur when a server discovery policy is invoked? (Choose two.)
A. executes the qualification in the server discovery policy against the server
B. applies the scrub policy to the server
C. analyzes the inventory of the server
D. assigns the server to the selected organization, if configured
E. creates a service profile for the server with the identity burned into the server at time of manufacture

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 28
If a customer wants to maximize the capability of server mobility with the Cisco UCS deployment, what two options are Cisco recommended? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a server inheritance policy.
B. Configure a Virtual Media boot.
C. Configure a hardware-based service profile with burned-in addresses and identities.
D. Configure boot from SAN.
E. Configure service profiles with resource pools.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 29
You have a Cisco UCS B200 M2 server configured with 12 4-GB DDR3 1333-MHz dual-voltage memory DIMMs. You learned that the server memory speed is running at 1066 MHz instead. How can you configure the server to run at maximum memory speed?
A. You cannot configure memory speed of 1333 MHz. The maximum memory speed of a Cisco UCS B200 M2 server with 12 4-GB DIMM is 1066 MHz.
B. Memory speed of the ESX host is configurable on VMware vCenter.
C. Create a BIOS policy. In the RAS Memory BIOS settings, select Performance Mode for LV DDR Mode.
D. On the CIMC of the Cisco UCS B200 M2, select 1333 MHz in the Memory Speed option.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Your systems engineer has determined all of the firmware versions that the server operating system supports. What steps are taken on Cisco UCS to avoid manual firmware upgrades on the blade servers?
A. Use Cisco UCS Manager firmware management to upgrade all Cisco UCS blade servers to the same target firmware versions.
B. Configure host firmware package and management firmware package policies and associate the firmware policies with the service profiles.
C. Create a BIOS policy and define the host firmware package and management firmware package.
D. Configure host firmware package and management firmware package policies and associate the firmware policies with the server pools.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
When you create a vHBA, what will you achieve by enabling persistent binding?
A. This feature allows the binding of the SCSI targets to the vHBA, even across reboots.
B. This feature allows the binding of the same WWPN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
C. This feature allows the binding of the same WWNN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
D. This feature allows the binding of the Fibre Channel uplink to the vHBA, even across reboots.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which two tasks enable jumbo frames on a Cisco UCS system? (Choose two.)
A. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.
B. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, enable jumbo frames in Fabric A and Fabric B.
C. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the VLAN.
D. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, define a QoS system class with MTU 9000.
E. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the vNIC.
F. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the virtual machine.
G. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 33
Which three items represent some of the components to implement Cisco VM-FEX for Cisco Unified Computing System Manager B-Series blades? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco VSM VM
B. VEM installed on the VMware vCenter server
C. VEM in the VMware ESX or ESXi host
D. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager version 1.2 or higher
E. VMware vCenter server
F. Fibre Channel VMFS volume

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 34
Which three items represent some of the features that can be defined in a Cisco Unified Computing System Manager port profile? (Choose three.)
A. QoS policy
B. ACL
C. NetFlow
D. port security
E. network control policy
F. VLAN or VLANs

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 35
Which three items must be configured in the Port Profile Client in Cisco Unified Computing System Manager? (Choose three.)
A. port profile
B. DVS
C. data center
D. folder
E. VMware vCenter IP address
F. VM port group

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 36
If there are four I/O module links from the Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 Blade Chassis to the Cisco Unified Computing System 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, which dynamic vNICs can be defined?
A. 9
B. 16
C. 24
D. 48
E. 54
F. 112
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 37
Which two of the listed BIOS options are required for VM-FEX in high performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. RSS
B. interrupt coherency
C. virtualization technology
D. cache validation
E. ATS support
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 38
When adding a VMware ESXi host to the Distributed Virtual Switch, what are two risks of migrating a VMNIC that is associated to vSwitch 0? (Choose two.)
A. loss of access to the management IP interface
B. duplicate IP address error
C. duplicate MAC address error
D. loss of VMware ESXi communication with VMware vCenter
E. DVS port group will not appear in the VM network settings
F. DVS port group will overwrite the port groups in vSwitch 0

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 39
Which VMware ESXi 5.0 CLI command will validate PassThru interfaces when they are available?
A. vem status -v
B. vempassthru-v
C. vemintf -v
D. vemifconfig -v
E. vempts -v

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
Which three items are supported operating systems of the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough? (Choose three.)
A. Oracle Solaris 11
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.0
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 SP3
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
E. Ubuntu Server 12.2
F. SLES 11

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 41
Which two VMware features must be turned off in the data center cluster for Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough to operate? (Choose two.)
A. VMCI
B. DRS
C. FT
D. HA
E. vMotion

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 42
Which two VMware features will not allow an adapter to transition from Cisco VM-FEX standard mode to universal passthrough mode? (Choose two.)
A. VM Snapshot
B. Volume Shadow Copy
C. Storage vMotion
D. HA
E. Resource Reservations
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 43
Which BIOS setting is required for a VMware ESXi 5.0 host to support Cisco VM-FEX universal pasthrough mode?
A. VT for Directed IO
B. ACPI 10 Support
C. VEMDPA Agent
D. Execute Disabled Bit
E. Processor C State
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
What are the three main components of the VM-FEX environment? (Choose three.)
A. Red Hat Network Satellite server
B. ESX host with Cisco UCS M81KR VIC
C. ESX host with Cisco UCS M72KR CAN
D. VMware vCenter
E. VMware Update Manager
F. Cisco UCS Manager
G. Cisco VSG
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 45
Which two policies can be configured in a port profile for VM-FEX high-performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. QoS policy
B. network control policy
C. adapter policy
D. BIOS policy
E. vNIC connection policy

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 46
Which three options are true regarding port profiles in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Port profiles define operating-system kernel parameters.
B. Port profiles are represented as a port group in vCenter.
C. Port profiles can be used by more than one DVS.
D. Port profile parameters are visible on vCenter.
E. Port profile parameters can be modified from vCenter.
F. Port profiles can be modified only from Cisco UCS Manager.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 47
Which two options are valid modes for VM-FEX in a Cisco UCS Manager port profile? (Choose two.)
A. transparent
B. bypass
C. standard
D. advanced
E. high-performance
F. low-pass

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 48
Which two elements are defined in a dynamic vNIC connection policy? (Choose two.)
A. adapter policy
B. QoS policy
C. network control policy
D. number of dynamic vNICs
E. jumbo frame size

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 49
Which adapter is capable of supporting VM-FEX?
A. VIC 1280
B. Cisco UCS M61KR-I
C. Cisco UCS M72KR
D. Cisco UCS M51KR-B

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which item represents a secure method of transmitting fault data with Cisco Call Home?
A. IPsec
B. SSL email
C. secure XML
D. Cisco Transport Gateway
E. RSA Digital Certificate
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which item is required for communication between Cisco Unified Computing System Manager and VMware vCenter?
A. VeriSign Digital Certificates
B. RSA Digital Certificates
C. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager Extension Key
D. VeriSign Plug-In
E. WMware vCenter Certificate Services

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
How many certificates does Cisco Unified Computing System Manager have to export to communicate with VMware vCenter server if the VMware ESXi hosts are all running version 5.0 or higher?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 16

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
What is the purpose of the maximum ports that are filed in the port profile?
A. determines the maximum number of uplinks that VMs can use
B. determines the maximum number of VMs that can use the DVS
C. determines the maximum number of DVSs that can use the port profile
D. determines the maximum number of dynamic vNICS on the DVS

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
What is the maximum number of ports on a VMware vCenter Distributed Virtual Switch?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 1024
D. 4096
E. 8192

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
In the Create Dynamic vNIC Connection Policy dialog box, there is a configurable field titled Protection. What is the significance of the three choices for Protection?
A. allows reserve vNICs to be allocated out of the spares pool
B. enables hardware-based failover
C. enables static binding of the VM port profile to dynamic vNICs
D. selects the primary fabric association for dynamic vNICs
E. allows dynamic vNICs to be reserved for fabric failover

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
How does a dynamic vNIC get allocated?
A. Dynamic vNICs are assigned to VMs in VMware vCenter.
B. Dynamic vNICs can only be bound to the service profile through an updating template.
C. Dynamic vNICs are bound directly to a service profile.
D. Dynamic vNICs are assigned by binding a port profile to the service profile.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
After staging a VEM file on a VMware ESXi 5.0 host in the /tmp directory, what is the correct command syntax to install the VEM?
A. esxcli software vib install d /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
B. esxcli software vib install v /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
C. esxupdate software vib install d /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
D. esxupdate software vib install v /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.vib -maintenance-mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Which network driver is required on a VMware ESXi 5.0 host for a vNIC to enter Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough mode?
A. VMXNET3
B. Vlance
C. Flexible
D. E1000e
E. VMXNET5
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
Which virtual hardware version is required for a VM to enter the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough mode?
A. Version 5
B. Version 6
C. Version 7
D. Version 8
E. Version 9
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
Which feature must be configured for Linux VMs to be able to transition from Cisco VM-FEX standard mode to universal passthrough mode?
A. RSS
B. MSI Interrupt Mode
C. VEMDPA Agent
D. Execute Disabled Bit
E. Processor C State Correct Answer: B QUESTION 61
Which of the following is true concerning the Global Chassis Discovery policy configuration on the Cisco Unified Computing System Manager when using Cisco Unified Computing System 22XX I/O modules with Cisco UCS 62XX Fabric Interconnects?
A. The link grouping preference should be set to discrete mode when the number of northbound links are not a power of 2.
B. Set the action policy-count higher than the actual number of uplinks; otherwise, the Cisco Unified Computing System servers will not be discovered.
C. For Cisco Unified Computing System implementations that mix I/O modules with different numbers of links, it is best to manually reacknowledge the chassis in order to use all available links.
D. Automatic reacknowledgement due to chassis discovery is never disruptive.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
Which of the following is the most accurate concerning the link configuration between Cisco Unified Computing System 22XX I/O modules and Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnects?
A. Port channels are always recommended when using source-dest-mac load balancing.
B. The addition of links to a port channel requires a reacknowledgement.
C. You cannot mix and match discrete links and port channeling for different chassis when using 22XX.
D. Port channels do not require a Global Chassis Discovery policy.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
Which of the following is not a feature of the Cisco Unified Computing System VIC-1280 adaptor?
A. capable of up to 256 virtual interfaces
B. supports FCoE
C. supports Cisco VM-FEX
D. compatible with the C- or B-Series Cisco Unified Computing System servers Correct Answer: D QUESTION 64
Which of the following is true with respect to recovery from failure with automatic pinning that is configured on a cluster of Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnects?
A. By default, server MAC addresses are pinned to uplink interfaces using PIN groups.
B. When a northbound fabric interconnect link goes down, the affected servers will use NIC teaming to re-establish connectivity on the second fabric interconnect.
C. When a northbound fabric interconnect link goes down, the fabric interconnect will send a gratuitous ARP to the northbound switch to announce the servers on the new port.
D. In the event that all uplink ports on the fabric interconnect lose connectivity, the 22XX I/O module shuts down all of the host ports until at least one uplink is restored.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
How does a Cisco Unified Computing System react when configured for disjoint Layer 2 domains?
A. Automatic pinning is disabled; VLAN membership must be statically pinned to the uplink ports.
B. VLANs must be divided between the fabric interconnects using PIN groups.
C. The VLAN traffic for a disjoint network can only travel along an uplink that is specifically assigned to this VLAN and is selectively excluded from all other uplinks.
D. When you configure disjoint Layer 2 networks, you must assign VLANs to uplink interfaces. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66
Which of the following is true with respect to hardware failover or NIC teaming within a Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. Hardware failover is specified by the operating system.
B. An uplink failure when using automatic pinning requires that hardware failover for the server vNIC be disabled.
C. NIC teaming is controlled by the vNIC.
D. The hardware failover option that is available for Ethernet does not affect Fibre Channel traffic.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
Which of the following is true concerning Fibre Channel communications on a Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. Each VSAN requires a dedicated VLAN to carry FCoE traffic.
B. FCoE VLANs are created like Ethernet VLANs on Cisco Unified Computing System Manager.
C. FCoE VLANs may overlap with Ethernet VLANs.
D. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager supports a maximum of 128 active VSANs. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
Which of the following are true concerning authentication within a Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. Authentication domains are used to leverage individual authentication systems.

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Oracle

Oracle 1Z0-047 PDF Dumps, Most Reliable Oracle 1Z0-047 Certification Exams With Accurate Answers

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QUESTION 36
SCOTT is a user in the database.

Evaluate the commands issued by the DBA:

1 – CREATE ROLE mgr;
2 – GRANT CREATE TABLE, SELECT
ON oe. orders
TO mgr;
3 – GRANT mgr, create table TO SCOTT;

Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above commands?

A. Statement 1 would not execute because the WITH GRANT option is missing.
B. Statement 1 would not execute because the IDENTIFIED BY <password> clause is missing.
C. Statement 3 would not execute because role and system privileges cannot be granted together in a single GRANT statement.
D. Statement 2 would not execute because system privileges and object privileges cannot be granted together in a single GRANT command.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Evaluate the following SELECT statement and view the Exhibit to examine its output:

SELECT constraint_name, constraint_type, search_condition, r_constraint_name, delete_rule, status FROM user_constraints WHERE table_name = ORDERS Which two statements are true about the output? (Choose two.)
A. In the second column, indicates a check constraint.
B. The STATUS column indicates whether the table is currently in use.
C. The R_CONSTRAINT_NAME column gives the alternative name for the constraint.
D. The column DELETE_RULE decides the state of the related rows in the child table when the corresponding row is deleted from the parent table.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 38
Evaluate the following expression using meta character for regular expression: ‘’
Which two matches would be returned by this expression? (Choose two.)
A. Alex
B. Alax
C. Alxer
D. Alaxendar
E. Alexender

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 39
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the DEPARTMENTS tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT department_id “DEPT_ID”, department_name , ‘b’ FROM departments WHERE department_id=90 UNION SELECT department_id, department_name DEPT_NAME, ‘a’ FROM departments WHERE department_id=10
Which two ORDER BY clauses can be used to sort the output of the above statement? (Choose two.)
A. ORDER BY 3;
B. ORDER BY ‘b’;
C. ORDER BY DEPT_ID;
D. ORDER BY DEPT NAME;

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 40
View the Exhibit and examine the details of the EMPLOYEES table.

Evaluate the following SQL statements:
Statement 1:
SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, manager_id FROM employees START WITH employee_id =
101
CONNECT BY PRIOR employee_id = manager_id AND manager_id != 108; Statement 2:
SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, manager_id
FROM employees
WHERE manager_id != 108
START WITH employee_id = 101
CONNECT BY PRIOR employee_id = manager_id;

Which two statements are true regarding the above SQL statements? (Choose two.)

A. Statement 2 would not execute because the WHERE clause condition is not allowed in a statement that has the START WITH clause.
B. The output for statement 1 would display the employee with MANAGERJD 108 and all the employees below him or her in the hierarchy.
C. The output of statement 1 would neither display the employee with MANAGERJD 108 nor any employee below him or her in the hierarchy.
D. The output for statement 2 would not display the employee with MANAGERJD 108 but it would display all the employees below him or her in the hierarchy.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 41
Evaluate the CREATE TABLE statement:

CREATE TABLE products
(product_id NUMBER(6) CONSTRAINT prod_id_pk PRIMARY KEY, product_name VARCHAR2(15));

Which statement is true regarding the PROD_ID_PK constraint?

A. It would be created only if a unique index is manually created first.
B. It would be created and would use an automatically created unique index.
C. It would be created and would use an automatically created nonunique index.
D. It would be created and remains in a disabled state because no index is specified in the command.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table.
You have to display ORDER_ID, ORDER_DATE, and CUSTOMER_ID for all those orders that were placed after the last order placed by the customer whose CUSTOMER_ID is 101 Which query would give you the desired output?

A. SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders WHERE order_date > ALL (SELECT MAX(order_date) FROM orders) ANDCustomer_id = 101;
B. SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders WHERE order_date > ANY (SELECT order_date FROM ordersWHERE customer_id = 101);
C. SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders WHERE order_date > ALL (SELECT order_date FROM ordersWHERE customer_id = 101);
D. SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders WHERE order_date IN (SELECT order_date FROM ordersWHERE customer id = 101);

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
You need to load information about new customers from the NEW_CUST table into the tables CUST and CUST_SPECIAL If a new customer has a credit limit greater than 10,000, then the details have to be inserted into CUST_SPECIAL All new customer details have to be inserted into the CUST table. Which technique should be used to load the data most efficiently?
A. external table
B. the MERGE command
C. the multitable INSERT command
D. INSERT using WITH CHECK OPTION
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statement: SELECT employee_id, department_id FROM employees WHERE department_id= 50 ORDER BY department_id UNION SELECT employee_id, department_id FROM employees WHERE department_id= 90 UNION SELECT employee_id, department_id FROM employees WHERE department_id= 10;
What would be the outcome of the above SQL statement?
A. The statement would execute successfully and display all the rows in the ascending order of DEPARTMENT_ID.
B. The statement would execute successfully but it will ignore the ORDER BY clause and display the rows in random order.
C. The statement would not execute because the positional notation instead of the column name should be used with the ORDER BY clause.
D. The statement would not execute because the ORDER BY clause should appear only at the end of the SQL statement, that is, in the last SELECT statement.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Evaluate the following command:
CREATE TABLE employees
(employee_id NUMBER(2) PRIMARY KEY,
last_name VARCHAR2(25) NOT NULL,
department_id NUMBER(2), job_id VARCHAR2(8),
salary NUMBER(10,2));

You issue the following command to create a view that displays the IDs and last names of the sales staff in
the organization:

CREATE OR REPLACE VIEW sales_staff_vu AS
SELECT employee_id, last_name job_id

FROM employees
WHERE job_id LIKE ‘SA_%’ WITH CHECK OPTION;

Which statements are true regarding the above view? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It allows you to insert details of all new staff into the EMPLOYEES table.
B. It allows you to delete the details of the existing sales staff from the EMPLOYEES table.
C. It allows you to update the job ids of the existing sales staff to any other job id in the EMPLOYEES table.
D. It allows you to insert the IDs, last names and job ids of the sales staff from the view if it is used in multitable INSERT statements.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 46
View the Exhibit and examine the data in EMPLOYEES and

DEPARTMENTS tables. In the EMPLOYEES table EMPLOYEE_ID is the PRIMARY KEY and
DEPARTMENT_ID is the FOREIGN KEY. In the DEPARTMENTS table DEPARTMENT_ID is the
PRIMARY KEY.

Evaluate the following UPDATE statement:

UPDATE employees a
SET department_jd =
(SELECT department_id
FROM departments
WHERE location_id = `2100′),
(salary, commission_pct) =
(SELECT 1.1*AVG(salary), 1.5*AVG(commission_pct)
FROM employees b
WHERE a. department_jd = b. department_id)
WHERE first_name|| ‘||last_name = ‘Amit Banda’;

What would be the outcome of the above statement?

A. It would execute successfully and update the relevant data.
B. It would not execute successfully because there is no LOCATION_ID 2100 in the DEPARTMENTS table.
C. It would not execute successfully because the condition specified with the concatenation operator is not valid.
D. It would not execute successfully because multiple columns (SALARY,COMMISSION_PCT)cannot be used in an UPDATE statement.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the ORDERS table.

Your manager asked you to get the SALES_REP_ID and the total numbers of orders placed by each of the sales representatives. Which statement would provide the desired result?
A. SELECT sales_rep_id, COUNT(order_id) total_orders FROM ordersGROUP BY sales_rep_id;
B. SELECT sales_rep_id, COUNT(order_id) total_orders FROM ordersGROUP BY sales_rep_id, total_orders;
C. SELECT sales_rep_id, COUNT(order_id) total_orders FROM orders;
D. SELECT sales_rep_id, COUNT(order_id) total_orders FROM ordersWHERE sales_rep_id IS NOT NULL;

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table.

You want to display the expiration date of the warranty for a product. Which SQL statement would you execute?
A. SELECT product_id, SYSDATE + warranty_period FROM product_information;
B. SELECT product_jd, TO_YMINTERVAL(warranty_period) FROM product_information;
C. SELECT product_id, TO_YMINTERVAL(SYSDATE) + warranty_period FROM product_information;
D. SELECT product_jd, TO_YMINTERVAL(SYSDATE + warranty_period) FROM product_information;

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS and ORDER_ITEMS tables. In the ORDERS table, ORDER_ID is the PRIMARY KEY and ORDER_DATE has the DEFAULT value as SYSDATE.

Evaluate the following statement: UPDATE orders SET order_date=DEFAULT WHERE order_id IN (SELECT order_id FROM order_items WHERE qty IS NULL);
What would be the outcome of the above statement?
A. The UPDATE statement would not work because the main query and the subquery use different tables.
B. The UPDATE statement would not work because the DEFAULT value can be used only in INSERT statements.
C. The UPDATE statement would change all ORDER_DATE values to SYSDATE provided the current ORDER_DATE is NOT NULL and QTY is NULL
D. The UPDATE statement would change all the ORDER_DATE values to SYSDATE irrespective of what the current ORDER_DATE value is for all orders where QTY is NULL

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCT INFORMATION table.

Which two queries would work? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT product_nameFROM product_informationWHERE list_price = (SELECT AVG(list_price) FROM product_information);
B. SELECT product_statusFROM product_informationGROUP BY product_statusWHERE list_price < (SELECT AVG(list_price)FROM product_information);
C. SELECT product_statusFROM product_informationGROUP BY product_statusHAVING list_price > (SELECT AVG(list_price)FROM product_information);
D. SELECT product_name FROM product_jnformation WHERE list_price < ANY(SELECT AVG(list_price) FROM product_jnformation GROUP BY product_status);

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 51
Which two statements best describe the benefits of using the WITH clause? (Choose two.)
A. It enables users to store the results of a query permanently.
B. It enables users to store the query block permanently in the memory and use it to create complex queries.
C. It enables users to reuse the same query block in a SELECT statement, if it occurs more than once in a complex query.
D. It can improve the performance of a large query by storing the result of a query block having the WITH clause in the user’s temporary tablespace.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 52
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT 2 col1,ycol2 FROM dual UNION SELECT 1 ,’x’ FROM dual
UNION SELECT 3 .NULL FROM dual ORDER BY 2;
Which statement is true regarding the output of the SQL statement?
A. It would execute and the order of the values in the first column would be 3,2,1.
B. It would execute and the order of the values in the first column would be 1,2,3.
C. It would not execute because the column alias name has not been used in the ORDER BY clause.
D. It would not execute because the number 2 in the ORDER BY clause would conflict with the value 2 in the first SELECT statement.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PRODUCTS table.

Which statement would add a column called PRICE, which cannot contain NULL?
A. ALTER TABLE productsADD price NUMBER(8,2) NOT NULL;
B. ALTER TABLE productsADD price NUMBER(8,2) DEFAULT NOT NULL;
C. ALTER TABLE productsADD price NUMBER(8,2) DEFAULT 0 NOT NULL;
D. ALTER TABLE productsADD price NUMBER(8,2) DEFAULT CONSTRAINT p_nn NOT NULL;

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
CREATE INDEX upper_name_idx
ON product_information(UPPER(product_name));
Which query would use the UPPER_NAME_IDX index?
A. SELECT UPPER(product_name) FROM product_information WHERE product_jd = 2254;
B. SELECT UPPER(product_name) FROM product_jnformation;
C. SELECT product_id FROM product_jnformationWHERE UPPER(product_name) IN (‘LASERPRO’, ‘Cable);
D. SELECT product_jd, UPPER(product_name) FROM product_informationWHERE UPPER (product_name)=’LASERPRO’ OR list_price > 1000;

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
View the Exhibit and examine the details for the CATEGORIES_TAB table. Evaluate the following incomplete SQL statement:

SELECT category_name ,category_description FROM categories_tab You want to display only the rows that have ‘harddisks’ as part of the string in the CATEGORY_DESCRIPTION column.
Which two WHERE clause options can give you the desired result? (Choose two.)
A. WHERE REGEXPJJKE (category_description, ‘hard+.s’);
B. WHERE REGEXPJJKE (category_description, `^H|hard+.s’);
C. WHERE REGEXPJJKE (category_description, ‘^H|hard+.s$’);
D. WHERE REGEXPJJKE (category_description, ‘’);

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 56
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table.

Your company decided to give a monthly bonus of $50 to all the employees who have completed five years in the company. The following statement is written to display the LAST_NAME, DEPARTMENT_ID, and the total annual salary:
SELECT last_name, departmentjd, salary450*12 “Annual Compensation” FROM employees WHERE MONTHS_BETWEEN(SYSDATE, hire_date)/12 >= 5;
When you execute the statement, the “Annual Compensation” is not computed correctly. What changes would you make to the query to calculate the annual compensation correctly?
A. Change the SELECT clause to SELECT last_name, department_id, salary*12+50 “Annual Compensation”.
B. Change the SELECT clause to SELECT last_name, department_id, salary+(50*12) “Annual Compensation”.
C. Change the SELECT clause to SELECT last_name, department_id, (salary +50)*12 “Annual Compensation”.
D. Change the SELECT clause to SELECT last_name, department_id, (salary*12)+50 “Annual Compensation”.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the ORDERS table.

Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT order_id, customer_id FROM orders WHERE order_date > ‘June 30 2001’;
Which statement is true regarding the execution of this SQL statement?
A. It would not execute because ‘June 30 2001’ in the WHERE condition is not enclosed within double quotation marks.
B. It would execute and would return ORDER_ID and CUSTOMER_ID for all records having ORDER_DATE greater than ‘June 30 2001’.
C. It would not execute because ‘June 30 2001’ in the WHERE condition cannot be converted implicitly and needs the use of the TO_DATE conversion function for proper execution.
D. It would not execute because ‘June 30 2001′ in the WHERE condition cannot be converted implicitly and needs the use of the TO_CHAR conversion function for proper execution.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which statement correctly differentiates a system privilege from an object privilege?
A. System privileges can be granted only by the DBA whereas object privileges can be granted by DBAs or the owner of the object.
B. System privileges give the rights to only create user schemas whereas object privileges give rights to manipulate objects in a schema.
C. Users require system privileges to gain access to the database whereas they require object privileges to create objects in the database.
D. A system privilege is the right to perform specific activities in a database whereas an object privilege is a right to perform activities on a specific object in the database.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 59
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.

You want to retrieve hierarchical data of the employees using the top-down hierarchy. Which SQL clause would let you choose the direction to walk through the hierarchy tree?
A. WHERE
B. HAVING
C. GROUP BY
D. START WITH
E. CONNECT BY PRIOR

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:
CREATE TABLE order_item (order_id NUMBER(3), item_id NUMBER(2), qty NUMBER(4),
CONSTRAINT ord_itm_id_pk PRIMARY KEY (order_id item_id) USING INDEX (CREATE INDEX ord_itm_idx ON order_item(order_id,item_id)));
Which statement is true regarding the above SOL statement?
A. It would execute successfully and only ORD_ITM_IDX index would be created.
B. It would give an error because the USING INDEX clause cannot be used on a composite primary key.
C. It would execute successfully and two indexes ORD_ITM_IDX and ORD_ITM_ID_PK would be created.
D. It would give an error because the USING INDEX clause is not permitted in the CREATE TABLE command.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Which two statements best describe the benefits of using the WITH clause? (Choose two.)
A. It enables users to store the results of a query permanently.
B. It enables users to store the query block permanently in the memory and use it to create complex queries.
C. It enables users to reuse the same query block in a SELECT statement, if it occurs more than once in a complex query.
D. It can improve the performance of a large query by storing the result of a query block having the WITH clause in the user’s temporary tablespace.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 62
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the ORDERS table.

The orders in the ORDERS table are placed through sales representatives only. You are given the task to get the SALES_REP_ID from the ORDERS table of those sales representatives who have successfully referred more than 10 customers. Which statement would achieve this purpose?
A. SELECT sales_rep_id, COUNT(customer_id) “Total” FROM orders “HAVING COUNT(customer_id) > 10;
B. SELECT sales_rep_id, COUNT(customer_id) “Total” FROM orders “WHERE COUNT(customer_id) > 10 GROUP BY sales_rep_id;
C. SELECT sales_rep_id, COUNT(customer_id) “Total” FROM orders “GROUP BY sales_rep_id HAVING total > 10;
D. SELECT sales_rep_id, COUNT(customer_id) “Total” FROM orders “GROUP BY sales_rep_idHAVING COUNT(customer_id) > 10;

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table.

Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, manager_id, LEVEL FROM employees
START WITH employee_id = 101
CONNECT BY PRIOR employee_id=manager_id ;

Which two statements are true regarding the output of this command? (Choose two.)

A. The output would be in top-down hierarchy starting with EMPLOYEE_ID having value 101.
B. The output would be in bottom-up hierarchy starting with EMPLOYEE_ID having value 101.
C. The LEVEL column displays the number of employees in the hierarchy under the employee having the EMPLOYEE_ID 101.
D. The LEVEL column displays the level in the hierarchy at which the employee is placed under the employee having the EMPLOYEE_ID 101
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 64
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of ORD and ORD_ITEMS tables.

In the ORD table, the PRIMARY KEY is ORD_NO and in the ORD_ITEMS tables the composite PRIMARY KEY is (ORD_NO, ITEM_NO).
Which two CREATE INDEX statements are valid? (Choose two.)
A. CREATE INDEX ord_idx ON ord(ord_no);
B. CREATE INDEX ord_idx ON ord_items(ord_no);
C. CREATE INDEX ord_idx ON ord_items(item_no);
D. CREATE INDEX ord_idxON ord,ord_items(ord_no, ord_date,qty);

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 65
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table.

Evaluate the following SQL statement:

SELECT first_name, employee_id, NEXr_DAY(ADD_MONTHS(hire_date, 6), 1) “Review” FROM
employees;
The query was written to retrieve the FIRST_NAME, EMPLOYEE_ID, and review date for employees.
The review date is the first Monday after the completion of six months of the hiring. The NLS_TERRITORY

parameter is set to AMERICA in the session.
Which statement is true regarding this query?

A. The query would execute to give the desired output.
B. The query would not execute because date functions cannot be nested.
C. The query would execute but the output would give review dates that are Sundays.
D. The query would not execute because the NEXT_DAY function accepts a string as argument.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66
View the Exhibit and examine the table structure of DEPARTMENTS and LOCATIONS tables.

You want to display all the cities that have no departments and the departments that have not been allocated cities.
Which type of join between DEPARTMENTS and LOCATIONS tables would produce this information as part of its output?
A. NATURAL JOIN
B. FULL OUTER JOIN
C. LEFT OUTER JOIN
D. RIGHT OUTER JOIN

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 67
View the Exhibit and examine DEPARTMENTS and the LOCATIONS tables.

Evaluate the following SOL statement:
SELECT location_id, city FROM locations I WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT location_id FROM departments WHERE location_id <> I. location_id);
This statement was written to display LOCATIONJD and CITY where there are no departments located. Which statement is true regarding the execution and output of the command?
A. The statement would execute and would return the desired results.
B. The statement would not execute because the = comparison operator is missing in the WHERE clause of the outer query.
C. The statement would execute but it will return zero rows because the WHERE clause in the inner query should have the = operator instead of <>.
D. The statement would not execute because the WHERE clause in the outer query is missing the column name for comparison with the inner query result.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
View the Exhibit and examine PRODUCTS and ORDER_ITEMS tables.

You executed the following query to display PRODUCT_NAME and the number of times the product has been ordered:
SELECT p.product_name, i.item_cnt FROM (SELECT product_id, COUNT (*) item_cnt FROM order_items GROUP BY product_id) i RIGHT OUTER JOIN products p ON i.product_id = p.product_id; What would happen when the above statement is executed?
A. The statement would execute successfully to produce the required output.
B. The statement would not execute because inline views and outer joins cannot be used together.
C. The statement would not execute because the ITEM_CNT alias cannot be displayed in the outer query.
D. The statement would not execute because the GROUP BY clause cannot be used in the inline view.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
View the Exhibit and examine the details of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table.

You have the requirement to display PRODUCT_NAME and LIST_PRICE from the table where the CATEGORYJD column has values 12 or 13, and the SUPPLIER_ID column has the value 102088. You executed the following SQL statement:
SELECT product_name, list_price FROM product_information WHERE (category_id = 12 AND category_id = 13) AND supplier_id = 102088;
Which statement is true regarding the execution of the query?
A. It would execute but the output would return no rows.
B. It would execute and the output would display the desired result.
C. It would not execute because the entire WHERE clause condition is not enclosed within the parentheses.
D. It would not execute because the same column has been used in both sides of the AND logical operator to form the condition.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Given below is a list of functions and the tasks performed by using these functions, in random order. Function Usage 1) LPAD a) Used to truncate a column, expression, or value to n decimal places 2) TRUNC b) Used to remove heading or trailing or both characters from the character string 3) DECODE c) Pads the character value right-justified to a total width of n character positions 4) TRIM d) Used to return the numeric value for position of a named character from the character string 5) INSTR e) Used to translate an expression after comparing it with each search value
Which option correctly matches the function names with their usage?
A. 1-c, 2-b, 3-e, 4-a, 5-d
B. 1-e, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a, 5-d
C. 1-e, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d, 5-b
D. 1-c, 2-a, 3-e, 4-b, 5-d

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 71
Which statements are true regarding the hierarchical query in Oracle Database 10g? (Choose all that apply.
A. It is possible to retrieve data only in top-down hierarchy.
B. It is possible to retrieve data in top-down or bottom-up hierarchy.
C. It is possible to remove an entire branch from the output of the hierarchical query.
D. You cannot specify conditions when you retrieve data by using a hierarchical query.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 72
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the LOCATIONS and DEPARTMENTS tables.

Which SET operator should be used in the blank space in the following SQL statement to display the cities that have departments located in them?
SELECT location_id, city FROM locations
SELECT location_id, city FROM locations JOIN departments USING(location_id);
A. UNION
B. MINUS
C. INTERSECT
D. UNION ALL

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
The details of the order ID, order date, order total, and customer ID are obtained from the ORDERS table. If the order value is more than 30000, the details have to be added to the LARGE_DRDERS table. The order ID, order date, and order total should be added to the ORDER_HISTORY table, and order ID and customer ID should be added to the CUST_HISTORY table. Which multitable INSERT statement would you use?
A. Pivoting INSERT
B. Unconditional INSERT
C. Conditional ALL INSERT
D. Conditional FIRST INSERT

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 74
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of ORDERS and CUSTOMERS tables.

Which INSERT statement should be used to add a row into the ORDERS table for the customer whose CUST LAST NAME is Roberts and CREDIT LIMIT is 600?
A. INSERT INTO orders VALUES (1,’10-mar-2007’, ‘direct’, (SELECT customer_idFROM customersWHERE cust_last_name=’Roberts’ ANDcredit_limit=600), 1000);
B. INSERT INTO orders (order_id,order_date,order_mode, (SELECT customer_idFROM customersWHERE cust_last_name=’Roberts’ ANDcredit_limit=600) .order_total)VALUES(1 ,’10-mar-2007′, ‘direct’, &&customer_id, 1000);
C. INSERT INTO orders (order_id.order_date.order_mode, (SELECT customer_idFROM customersWHERE cust_last_name=’Roberts’ ANDcredit _limit=600) .order_total)VALUES(1 ,’IO-mar-2007′, ‘direct’, &customer_id, 1000);
D. INSERT INTO(SELECT o.order_id, o.order_date.o.orde_mode.c.customer_id, o.order_total FROM orders o, customers cWHERE o.customer_id = c.customer_idAND c.cust_last_name=’Roberts’ANDc. Credit_limit=600)VALUES (1,’10-mar-2007′, ‘direct’,(SELECT customer_idFROM customersWHERE cust_last_name=’Roberts’ ANDCredit_limit=600), 1000);

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table. The columns ORDER_MODE and ORDER_TOTAL have the default values ‘direct’ and 0 respectively.

Which two INSERT statements are valid? (Choose two.)
A. INSERT INTO ordersVALUES (1, O9-mar-2007′, ‘online’,”,1000);
B. INSERT INTO orders(order_id ,order_date ,order_mode,customer_id ,order_total)VALUES(1 ,TO_DATE(NULL), ‘online’, 101, NULL);
C. INSERT INTO(SELECT order_id ,order_date .customer_idFROM orders)VALUES (1,O9-mar- 2007′, 101);
D. INSERT INTO ordersVALUES (1,09-mar-2007′, DEFAULT, 101, DEFAULT);
E. INSERT INTO orders(order_id ,order_date ,order_mode .order_total) VALUES (1 ,’10-mar-2007′,’online’,1000);

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 76
View the Exhibit and examine the details of the EMPLOYEES table.

You want to generate a hierarchical report for all the employees who report to the employee whose EMPLOYEE_ID is 100.
Which SQL clauses would you require to accomplish the task? (Choose all that apply.)
A. WHERE
B. HAVING
C. GROUP BY
D. START WITH
E. CONNECT BY

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 77
A subquery is called a single-row subquery when A. the inner query returns a single value to the main query
B. the inner query uses an aggregate function and returns one or more values
C. there is only one inner query in the main query and the inner query returns one or more values
D. the inner query returns one or more values and the main query returns a single value as output

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.

You want to know the FIRST_NAME and SALARY for all employees who have the same manager as that of the employee with the first name ‘Neena’ and have salary equal to or greater than that of’Neena’.
Which SQL statement would give you the desired result?
A. SELECTfirst_name, salary FROM employeesWHERE (manager_id, salary) >= ALL (SELECT manager_id, salary FROM employees WHERE first_name = ‘Neena’) AND first_name <> ‘Neena’;
B. SELECTfirst_name, salary FROM employeesWHERE (manager_id, salary) >= (SELECT manager_id, salaryFROM employeesWHERE first_name = ‘Neena’)AND first_name <> ‘Neena’;
C. SELECT first_name, salary FROM employeesWHERE (manager_id, salary) >= ANY (SELECT manager_id, salary FROM employees WHERE first_name = ‘Neena’ AND first_name <> ‘Neena’;
D. SELECT first_name, salary FROM employeesWHERE (manager_id = (SELECT manager_idFROM employeesWHERE first_name = ‘Neena’)AND salary >= (SELECT salaryFROM employeesWHERE first_name = ‘Neena’))AND first name <> ‘Neena’;

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
View the Exhibit and examine the data in EMP and DEPT tables.

In the DEPT table, DEPTNO is the PRIMARY KEY.
In the EMP table, EMPNO is the PRIMARY KEY and DEPTNO is the FOREIGN KEY referencing the DEPTNO column in the DEPT table.
What would be the outcome of the following statements executed in the given sequence?
DROP TABLE emp;
FLASHBACK TABLE emp TO BEFORE DROP;
INSERT INTO emp VALUES (2,COTT 10); INSERT INTO emp VALUES (3,ING 55);
A. Both the INSERT statements would fail because all constraints are automatically retrieved when the table is flashed back.
B. Both the INSERT statements would succeed because none of the constraints on the table are automatically retrieved when the table is flashed back.
C. Only the first INSERT statement would succeed because all the constraints except the primary key constraint are automatically retrieved after a table is flashed back.
D. Only the second INSERT statement would succeed because all the constraints except referential integrity constraints that reference other tables are retrieved automatically after the table is flashed back.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:

CREATE TABLE order_item (order_id NUMBER(3),
Item_id NUMBER(2),
qty NUMBER(4),
CONSTRAINT ord_itm_id_pk
PRIMARY KEY (order_id jtem_id)
USING INDEX
(CREATE INDEX ord_itm_idx
ON order_item(order_id item_id)));

Which statement is true regarding the above SOL statement?

A. It would execute successfully and only ORD_ITM_IDX index would be created.
B. It would give an error because the USING INDEX clause cannot be used on a composite primary key.
C. It would execute successfully and two indexes ORD_ITM_IDX and ORD_ITM_ID_PK would be created.
D. It would give an error because the USING INDEX clause is not permitted in the CREATE TABLE command.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.

You want to add a constraint on the CUST_FIRST_NAME column of the CUSTOMERS table so that the value inserted in the column does not have numbers.
Which SOL statement would you use to accomplish the task?
A. ALTER TABLE CUSTOMERS ADD CONSTRAINT cust_f_name CHECK(REGEXP_LIKE(cust_first_name1’^A-Z ‘))NOVALIDATE;
B. ALTER TABLE CUSTOMERS ADD CONSTRAINT cust_f_name CHECK(REGEXP_LIKE(cust_first_name,’^’))NOVALIDATE;
C. ALTER TABLE CUSTOMERS ADD CONSTRAINT cust_f_name CHECK(REGEXP_LIKE(cust_first_name,']’))NOVALIDATE;
D. ALTER TABLE CUSTOMERS ADD CONSTRAINT cust_f_name CHECK(REGEXP_LIKE(cust_first_name,']’))NOVALIDATE ;
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 82
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUST table.

Evaluate the following SQL statements executed in the given order:
ALTER TABLE cust
ADD CONSTRAINT cust_id_pk PRIMARY KEY(cust_id) DEFERRABLE INITIALLY DEFERRED;

INSERT INTO cust VALUES (1 /RAJ1); –row 1 INSERT INTO cust VALUES (1 ,’SAM); –row 2 COMMIT;
SET CONSTRAINT cust_id_pk IMMEDIATE;
INSERT INTO cust VALUES (1 /LATA1); –row 3 INSERT INTO cust VALUES (2 .KING1); –row 4 COMMIT;
Which rows would be made permanent in the CUST table?
A. row 4 only
B. rows 2 and 4
C. rows 3 and 4
D. rows 1 and 4

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
You need to create a table with the following column specifications:
1.
Employee ID (numeric data type) for each employee

2.
Employee Name, (character data type) which stores the employee name

3.
Hire date, to store the date when the employee joined the organization

4.
Status (character data type). It should contain the value if no data is entered.

5.
Resume (character large object data type), which would contain the resume submitted by the employee
Which is the correct syntax to create this table?
A. CREATE TABLE EMP_1 (emp_id NUMBER(4), emp_name VARCHAR2(25), start_date DATE,e_status VARCHAR2(10) DEFAULT ACTIVE’, resume CLOB(200));
B. CREATE TABLE 1_EMP (emp_id NUMBER(4), emp_name VARCHAR2(25), start_date DATE,emp_status VARCHAR2(10) DEFAULT ACTIVE’, resume CLOB);
C. CREATE TABLE 1_EMP (emp_id NUMBER(4), emp_name VARCHAR2(25), start_date DATE,emp_status VARCHAR2(10) DEFAULT “ACTIVE”, resume CLOB);
D. CREATE TABLE EMP_1 (emp_id NUMBER, emp_name VARCHAR2(25), start_date DATE,emp_status VARCHAR2(10) DEFAULT ACTIVE’, resume CLOB);

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Which two statements are true regarding the types of table joins available in Oracle Database 10g? (Choose two.)
A. You can use the JOIN clause to join only two tables.
B. You can explicitly provide the join condition with a NATURAL JOIN.
C. You can use the USING clause to join tables on more than one column.
D. You can use the ON clause to specify multiple conditions while joining tables.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 85
Which statement is true regarding the CUBE operator in the GROUP BY clause of a SQL statement?
A. It produces only aggregates for the groups specified in the GROUP BY clause.
B. It finds all the NULL values in the superaggregates for the groups specified in the GROUP BY clause.
C. It produces 2 n possible superaggregate combinations, if the n columns and expressions are specified in the GROUP BY clause.
D. It produces n+1 possible superaggregate combinations, if the n columns and expressions are specified in the GROUP BY clause.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 86
Which two statements are true about sequences created in a single instance database? (Choose two.)
A. The numbers generated by a sequence can be used only for one table.
B. DELETE <sequencename> would remove a sequence from the database.
C. CURRVAL is used to refer to the last sequence number that has been generated.
D. When the MAXVALUE limit for a sequence is reached, you can increase the MAXVALUE limit by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement.
E. When a database instance shuts down abnormally, the sequence numbers that have been cached but not used would be available once again when the database instance is restarted.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 87
Evaluate the following SQL statements in the given order:
DROP TABLE dept;
CREATE TABLE dept
(deptno NUMBER(3) PRIMARY KEY,

deptname VARCHAR2(10));
DROP TABLE dept;
FLASHBACK TABLE dept TO BEFORE DROP;

Which statement is true regarding the above FLASHBACK operation?

A. It recovers only the first DEPT table.
B. It recovers only the second DEPT table.
C. It does not recover any of the tables because FLASHBACK is not possible in this case.
D. It recovers both the tables but the names would be changed to the ones assigned in the RECYCLEBIN.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the MARKS_DETAILS and MARKStables.

Which is the best method to load data from the MARKS DETAILStable to the MARKStable?
A. Pivoting INSERT
B. Unconditional INSERT
C. Conditional ALL INSERT
D. Conditional FIRST INSERT

Correct Answer: A

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IBM Certified Associate Business Process Analyst

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Question No : 1

Which of the following are components of the Cam Enterprise Framework? Which of the following are components of the C?am Enterprise Framework?
A. Contribution Management
B. Participant Management
C. Cam Administration SuiteC?am Administration Suite
D. Cam Intelligent Evidence GatheringC?am Intelligent Evidence Gathering
E. Evidence Management

Answer: B,C,E
Question No : 2

Which of the following are the three major components of the Cam user interface? Which of the following are the three major components of the C?am user interface?
A. Calendar icon
B. Shortcuts panel
C. Drop-down toggle
D. Application banner
E. Application tabs

Answer: B,D,E
Question No : 3

In Documentation Center, which process flow construct provides links to screen previews?
A. Rectangle containing the word User
B. Diamond containing the word Validations
C. Oval containing the word Start
D. Rectangle containing the word System
E. Circle containing the word Process

Answer: A
Question No : 4

Which of the following workflow activities require a human being to take action?
A. Start
B. Event wait
C. Manual
D. Loop
E. Decision

Answer: C,E
Question No : 5

Which of the following statements about CIARA are true?
A. It is accessible from either the Documentation Center or a stand-alone version
B. It contains release notes as well as getting started, development, deployment, and administrator guides
C. It is used to analyze the impact of a change
D. It displays design objects and their relationships
E. It is accessible from the Cam application’s Help pagesIt is accessible from the C?am application’s Help pages

Answer: A,C,D
Question No : 6

When viewing an in-progress workflow in the administration manager, which of the following actions can be taken on the workflow process instance?
A. Resume
B. Abort
C. Reserve
D. Defer
E. Suspend

Answer: A,B,E
Question No : 7

Which of the following are components of an application tab in the Cam user interface?
Which of the following are components of an application tab in the C?am user interface?

A. Page group navigation bar
B. Navigation bar
C. Modal dialog
D. Shortcuts panel
E. Context panel

Answer: A,B,E
Question No : 8

Which of the following are Cam Enterprise Modules? Which of the following are C?am Enterprise Modules?
A. Cam Provider ManagementC?am Provider Management
B. Cam for Child CareC?am for Child Care
C. Cam Supervisor WorkspaceC?am Supervisor Workspace
D. Cam Decision AssistC?am Decision Assist
E. Cam Case ManagementC?am Case Management

Answer: A,C,D
Question No : 9

Cam raises which of the following to inform the workflow management system that a task has been completed? C?am raises which of the following to inform the workflow management system that a task has been completed?
A. Task
B. Process instance
C. Event
D. Workflow data object
E. Activity

Answer: C
Question No : 10

Which of the following items models the data that is used by a Classic rule set to do a calculation in Cam? Which of the following items models the data that is used by a Classic rule set to do a calculation in C?am?
A. Rules Data Object
B. Loader
C. Business Process Object
D. Rule List Group
E. Objective

Answer: A
Question No : 11

Which process flow construct provides links to business process object (BPO) methods and overview information?
A. Rectangle containing the word User
B. Diamond containing the word Validations
C. Oval containing the word Start
D. Rectangle containing the word System

Answer: C
Question No : 12

Which of the following are examples of design objects in CIARA?
A. Database tables
B. Cam release notesC?am release notes
C. Code tables
D. Error messages
E. Business guides

Answer: A,C,D
Question No : 13

Which of the following terms describe the possible state of a task?
A. Available
B. Open
C. Deferred
D. Suspended
E. Postponed

Answer: A,B,C
Question No : 14

Which of the following items are Cam Enterprise Modules?Which of the following items are C?am Enterprise Modules?
A. Cam for Income SupportC?am for Income Support
B. Cam Financial ManagementC?am Financial Management
C. Cam Documentation CenterC?am Documentation Center
D. Cam VerificationC?am Verification
E. Cam WorkflowC?am Workflow
Answer: B,D

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QUESTION NO: 1
A customer has a requirement which is currently unavailable in an out-of-the-box product.
Who would be able to assist in troubleshooting the customer when developing a custom solution?
A. IBM Sales
B. IBM Support
C. IBM LAB Services
D. Raise an enhancement request with IBM
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer’s IT infrastructure includes ten different directories, one for each country branch. The customer now needs a single directory for some centralized applications. The customer would like to make as few changes in the environment as possible.
Which product do you recommend?
A. IBM Security Identity Manager
B. IBM Security Directory Server
C. IBM Security Directory Integrator
D. IBM Security Access Manager for Web
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
A company is planning to design an identity and access management solution across multiple data centers which will automate the user life cycle management and streamline their access management process.
Which two key design principles should be factored in for designing a comprehensive identity and access management solution? (Choose two.)
A. Design for integrity
B. Design with single zone
C. Design for accountability
D. Design for single layer of defense
E. Design for single data center and then extend it
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 4
Which scenario is typical for onboarding a new web application into IBM Security Access Manager for Enterprise Single Sign-On?
A. Use AccessStudio to create a profile in the test environment. Confirm the profile works and use it directly in the production environment.
B. Create a junction configuration in the test environment, confirm successful authentication, export configuration from test import into production environment.
C. Use AccessStudio directly in production environment to create a new application profile, confirm by using the test functionality in AccessStudio, and upload new application profile to production IMS server.
D. Use AccessStudio to create a new application profile. Add a condition so the profile is only available to your test users. After confirmation of the test users, remove the condition to enable the profile for all users in the production environment.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 5
A company is using IBM Security Access Manager and wants to extend the functionality of the help desk users so that they can assist the end user in troubleshooting and diagnostics.
Which WebSEAL functionality is used to allow help desk users to assume the identity of the user who is a member of the Security Access Manager Domain?
A. Switch User function
B. Switch Admin function
C. Transfer User function
D. Switch Application function
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 6

A company is using IBM Security Access Manager for Web solution for all applications.
What is the business advantage of this solution?
A. Identity management of different systems
B. Focus of all Web traffic through a single path
C. Compromise of the Internet-facing firewall results in limited security exposure.
D. Reduced cost by moving substantial amounts of Web infrastructure back into their internal networks
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 7
A company wants full visibility into network, application, and user activity events. It wants to monitor events and logs captured from various devices.
Which additional benefit will this company get after deploying the IBM Security QRadar solution?
A. Directory integration
B. Secured Web applications
C. Management of user identities
D. Rich compliance-reporting capabilities
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 8
A customer is not allowing the usage of self-signed certificates in its production environment. The customer has its own Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), and all certificates should be issued by this Certification Authority using their internal processes.
What needs to be done when going into production with the IBM Security products from the Identity and Access Assurance software bundle?
A. Configure all security components to use the PKI from the customer. Required certificates will automatically be generated and trusted during installation.
B. Use the IBM keytool to reconfigure all communication channels to use one single certificate issued by the Certification Authority of the Customer. Put the Certification Authority certificate in the truststore of the keytool.
C. Identify all communication channels using SSL, and create Certificate Signing Requests for them. After receiving the certificates, configure all secure communication channels to use these certificates, and install the Certification Authority certificate in the truststore of all involved components.
D. Identity all communication channels using SSL, and extract the involved self-signed certificates. Submit these to the Certification Authority of the customer to be cross-signed. Reconfigure the communication channels to use these new certificates and put the Certification Authority certificate in the truststore of all involved components.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
A health care facility requires its physicians and staff to complete certain courses offered through its learning management system, prior to getting accounts and access in its patient management application.
Which functional requirement aligns with this business requirement?
A. Accounts in the patient management system must be manually provisioned by Service Desk.
B. Physicians and staff must complete required training courses prior to being allowed to login to the network.
C. The learning management system must also support provisioning functions, in order to meet this business requirement.
D. During onboarding, physicians and staff must be granted login to the network and the learning management system in order to access the required courses.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 10
A company has a full deployment of the IBM Security Identity and Access Assurance software bundle.
IBM Security Access Manager for Web is configured to use IBM Directory Server as user repository. IBM Security Access Manager for Enterprise Single Sign-On is integrated with Microsoft Active Directory. IBM Security Access Manager for Web is also protecting access to the IBM Security Identity Manager Self-Service and Console web portals. IBM Security Identity Manager is using IBM Directory Server as directory store and IBM DB2 as database store. HR feed is configured through IBM Security Directory Integrator polling the HR system’s database.
Employees of this company, acting as Identity Provider in a circle of trust setup with the company as Service Provider, can no longer successfully access the B2B web portal of this company.
Which knowledge would be required to troubleshoot this problem?
A. Federation Administration, Windows Administration, Web Server fundamentals, and networking fundamentals
B. Windows Administration, LDAP Administration, Web Server fundamentals, and knowledge of ISAM ACL policies
C. Knowledge of ISAM ACL policies,Websphere fundamentals, Windows Administration, and Federation Administration
D. Websphere fundamentals, Federation Administration, knowledge of ISAM ACL policies, and networking fundamentals
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
A company hosts a number of web applications which are protected using IBM Security Access Manager. The company needs to step up authentication for some of the mission critical applications.
Which WebSEAL functionality is used to ask the user to perform additional login (re-authentication)?
A. Authorization Rules
B. Access control lists (ACL’s)
C. Protected object policy (POP)
D. External authentication interface (EAI)
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 12

A customer has multiple Active Directory sites across the globe. The customer has to provision users to these sites that are geographically dispersed.
Which policy would be appropriate to use to achieve using IBM Security Identity Manager?
A. Provisioning Policy
B. Recertification Policy
C. Service Selection Policy
D. Separation of Duty Policy
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 13
What is an example of IBM’s user-based licensing type?
A. Public user
B. Private user
C. Authorized user
D. Authenticated user
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
Which software component is relevant to an IBM Security Identity Manager deployment when considering a high-availability solution?
A. LDAP Database
B. Java Messaging service
C. Web Administration Tool (WAT)
D. Self-service user interface (SSUI)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
A company is looking for load distribution/failover option for LDAP authentication.
Which product is recommended to satisfy the need?
A. IBM Security Directory Server Proxy
B. IBM Security Federated Identity Manager
C. IBM Security Access Manager Proxy Policy Server
D. IBM Security Access Manager for Enterprise Single Sign-On
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
A customer uses IBM Security Access Manager (ISAM) for Web Application protection and Single Sign-On. Because of recent mergers and acquisitions, many more applications have been configured with ISAM and the user base has almost doubled in last two months. After the merger, a number of users reported website down issues on a daily basis.
Which two issues need to be taken into consideration after such a change in the system configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Scalability of ISAM components
B. Availability of ISAM components
C. Reduction of data handled by the ISAM components
D. Encryption of communication between ISAM components
E. Improvement in the hardware used by the users to access the websites
Answer: B,D QUESTION NO: 17

The customer is considering implementing IBM Security Identity Manager.
What is the benefit of adding IBM Security Identity Manager to the customer’s existing environment?
A. Reduced cost
B. Single Sign-On
C. Auditing of attempts to access the application
D. Eliminates the need to manage the identities at the application level
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
The CEO of a financial organization is frustrated by the number of usernames and passwords required to remember to access different applications within the enterprise. The CEO tasks his CSO to find a single sign on solution to address this issue.
Which IBM Security product would help address the CSO’s problem?
A. IBM Security Identity Manager
B. IBM Federated Identity Manager
C. IBM Security Access Manager for Web
D. IBM Security Access Manager for Enterprise Single Sign on
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
In the customer’s environment, a group of seven employees work within a room that has four PCs. The PCs have excellent hardware configurations, with considerable RAM and a fast CPU.
The employees use these PCs only when they need to access an application, which is for a short duration of time. For the rest of the time, they work with their tools on their desks.

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QUESTION 21
Additional subsystems can be discovered during Use Case Design by noting _____.
A. common subflows between objects on several sequence diagrams
B. similar objects on several sequence diagrams
C. a consistent series of state transitions for multiple classes involved in a use-case realization
D. the same design classes involved in more than one use-case realization

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
Which activities are performed during Use Case Design?
A. converting analysis classes into design classes and design subsystems
B. describing persistence-related behavior
C. describing object interactions that implement interface operations
D. simplifying sequence diagrams using design classes

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
On a sequence diagram, what is used to represent a specific subsystem?
A. an interface that the subsystem realizes
B. a subsystem proxy
C. a subsystem component
D. a subsystem class

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which UML elements are used to describe the physical architecture of a system?
A. classes and relationships
B. objects and messages
C. subsystems and dependencies
D. nodes and connectors

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Which artifact is used to describe use-case realizations?
A. textual use-case descriptions
B. communication diagrams
C. state charts
D. activity diagrams
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
What defines a subsystems responsibilities?
A. its internal class behavior
B. the operations of the interfaces it implements
C. the use-case realizations in which the subsystem appears
D. the operations on a class contained within the subsystem
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which is a design mechanism?
A. Persistency
B. ObjectStore Object-oriented Database
C. Distribution
D. Remote Method Invocation
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
To begin identifying design mechanisms, you start by categorizing analysis mechanisms. What are three steps in the process of Categorizing Analysis Mechanisms? (Choose three.)
A. identify characteristic profiles for each analysis mechanism
B. identify the clients of each analysis mechanism
C. assign a vendor implementation to each analysis mechanism
D. group clients according to their use of characteristic profiles

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 29
In Subsystem Design, what happens in the step, Distribute Subsystem Responsibilities?
A. The subsystems responsibilities are allocated to its internal design elements.
B. Each subsystem is checked to ensure it has a consistent set of responsibilities and inconsistentresponsibilities are reassigned to other subsystems.
C. Libraries and external APIs are identified to realize the subsystem behavior.
D. Distribution mechanisms are detailed for exposing subsystem interfaces.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
Which entity has a well-defined boundary and identity that encapsulates state and behavior?
A. class
B. object
C. component
D. package

Correct Answer: B

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Question No : 1
A client has purchased a Flex System with a Flex System Manager (FSM) and a p260 node. Which of the following isthe most cost-effective procedure to install the VIO server?
A. Engage Lab Services to complete the installation
B. Use the external USB DVD RAM that IBM delivers with a Flex System
C. Copy the VIO ISO images onto the FSM and use the installios command
D. Launch the Remote Control from the FSM and remote mount the VIO ISO images from your workstation

Answer: C
Question No : 2
A client requires the following management functions of their PureFlex environment:

Which management function is used toexecute these tasks?
A. IBM PowerSC
B. IBM SmartCloud Entry
C. IBM Flex System Manager
D. IBM Chassis Management Module

Answer: C
Question No : 3
A client has a PureFlex system and needs to upgrade their Flex System V7000 Storage
Node. Which interface would be used to accomplish this?
A. FSM
B. BIOS upgrade
C. Chassis Manager
D. Flex Node Interface GUI

Answer: A
Question No : 4
The client seeks to reduce cost and complexity in a highly virtualized x86 environment. They want the network policies to migrate automatically along with mobile virtual machines to ensure that security, performance and access remains intact as virtual machines move from server to server. VMware is their virtualization standard. Which option will provide a complete solution?
A. Switches capable to support 802.1 QBG
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V on IBM VMready Switches
C. IBM Switch-resident IBM VMready capability
D. IBM Software Defined Networking (SDN) for Virtual

Answer: D
Question No : 5

A client wants to provide a Flex solutionthat compares to a standard Power 750 running PowerVM and AIX. The client asks for a Flex System compute node with similar capacity and scalability for processor and memory. Which node should be discussed with the prospect?
A. Flex node p270
B. Flex nodep24L
C. Flex node p260
D. Flex node p460

Answer: D
Question No : 6
A client has a need for a Linux based solution that requires a large amount of memory. The application runs on either x86 or Power nodes. Which of the following nodes would provide the maximum memory configuration?
A. p460
B. x440
C. p24L
D. x240

Answer: B Question No : 7
A client has a number of Power servers that are virtualized and boot from FC SAN with dual VIO servers. The client is considering consolidation of server and networkhardware (LAN and SAN) while maximizing the return on investment by leveraging existing shared FC storage. Which option meets the client requirements?
A. Utilize FCoE to boot the VIO servers
B. Utilize iSCSI to boot the VIO servers
C. Continue to use FC SAN for the VIO servers
D. Use a pair of internal drives to provide for the VIO servers

Answer: A
Question No : 8
The IBM Flex System Interoperability Guide is a handy reference document but its information is only as accurate as of its most recentpublication date. Where would the technical expert find the latest complete information on supported FCoE configurations?
A. The FC-BB-5 standards documentation
B. IBM Flex System product development
C. Reference IBM’s ServerProven web page
D. IBM SystemStorage Interoperation Center (SSIC)

Answer: D
Question No : 9
A client wants to see how the 900 GB 10k drives would be used in a RAID 5 set to migrate their 30 TB of storage. Which tool can the technical expert use to show the layout for Flex System V7000 Storage Node?
A. Disk Magic
B. Capacity Magic
C. TCOnow! for Disk
D. IBM Flex System TCO Analysis

Answer: B
Question No : 10
A client wants a PureFlex Express configuration with an additional EN4093R 10Gb Scalable Switch module for redundancy. The Power nodes in the configuration have four-port 10Gb NICs and the client applications planned for the Power nodes will require the use of all four of those ports. What must the technical expert include in the configuration to meet this requirement?
A. An additional pair of EN4093R 10Gb Scalable Switch modules
B. IBM Flex System CN4054 Virtual Fabric Adapter Upgrade for each CN4054 adapter
C. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 1) for each switch
D. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10GbScalable Switch (Upgrade 2) for each switch

Answer: C
Question No : 11
A large enterprise client wants to perform a benchmark on a PureFlex System to compare the performance against a competitive solution. What is the best way for the client to proceed?
A. Try and Buy a PureFlex System and let the client perform the benchmark
B. Lease a PureFlex System from a Business Partner and have the Partner perform the benchmark
C. Invite the client to the local IBM Client Center (ICC) and have the ICC perform thebenchmark
D. Visit an IBM Products and Solutions Support Center (PSSC) and have the PSSC perform the benchmark

Answer: D
Question No : 12
Exhibit: In order to support the client’s requirement for FCoE with the 10Gb Virtual Fabric Ethernet LAN-on-motherboard (LOM) which optional feature must be included?

A. A second CPU that matches the first one installed
B. IBM Flex System Embedded 10Gb Virtual Fabric Upgrade
C. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 1)C.IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 1)
D. IBM Flex System Fabric CN4093 Converged Scalable Switch (Upgrade 2)D.IBM Flex System Fabric CN4093 Converged Scalable Switch (Upgrade 2)
Answer: B

Question No : 13
Exhibit:

The Managed Service Provider isconsidering a PureFlex or Flex System solution but wants to ensure that it integrates with their existing Storwize V7000 environment. They need to be able to rapidly expand their storage while continuing to manage it as a single entity. What is the best solution for this scenario?
A. PureFlex with Storwize V7000
B. Flex System with Storwize V3700
C. Flex System with Storwize V7000 Unified
D. PureFlex with Flex System V7000 Storage NodeD.PureFlex with Flex System V7000 Storage Node

Answer: A
Question No : 14
For comparing the x86 IBM Flex System offering with the Cisco UCS offering, a client wants to know how much energy the IBM Flex System will be consuming. The energy consumption based on label ratings is not sufficient. What tool would the technical expert use to determine this?
A. The IBM Power Configurator
B. The IBM System Planning Tool
C. The IBM Systems Workload Estimator
D. The IBM Systems Energy Estimator Tool

Answer: A
Question No : 15
On a PureFlex system, how can an FSM be recovered if the management software is inoperable because of misconfiguration or corruption, but the management node hardware is operational and the hard drives have not failed?
A. Call smcli restore from the FSM CLI to restore the FSM
B. Call IBM Support and request a replacement of the FSM ITE
C. Connect to the Internet, download a new FSM image and install it over the IMM connection to the FSM
D. Boot while pressing F12 and select the recovery partition as the boot device, then run a full system recovery

Answer: D
Question No : 16
The client has three independent redundant SAN fabrics: One for development, one for validation and one for production. The client will use a chassis with x240 nodes to connect these SAN fabrics. What is the best solution for the client?
A. Use two CN4054 adapters and two EN4093 switches, each with two FoD enhancements
B. Use two CN4058 adapters and two CN4093 switches, each with two FoD enhancements
C. Use two CN4058 adapters and four EN4093 switches, each with one FoD enhancement
D. Use oneCN4054 adapter, LOM, and four CN4093 switches with FoD enhancements throughout

Answer: D
Question No : 17
A client has expressed a desire to utilize an existing current model HMC to manage Power compute nodes in a Flex Chassis which also contains x86 compute nodes and an IBM Flex
System V7000 Storage Node. The client also stated the ability to have SAN zones automatically built when creating storage volumes is more important in this environment. How should a technical expert respond to these statements?
A. Use an FSM and an HMC to manage the individual tasks.
B. Utilize only an FSM to manage the entire environment.
C. An HMC used with IBM Network Advisor will satisfy both requirements.
D. Install the IBM Network Advisor Power Compute Node plugin into theHMC.

Answer: B
Question No : 18
A client has an implementation of SmartCloud Entry 2.1, and they want to install several features of Microsoft Hyper-V including Flavor management and IPv4/IPv6 network management. How can the client accomplish this?
A. Upgrade to SmartCloud Entry 2.4
B. Upgrade to SmartCloud Entry 3.1
C. Install Microsoft Hyper-V Integration Services
D. Install Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit for Hyper-V

Answer: B
Question No : 19
In a Flex System solution, what is mostlikely to prevent the cloud enablement of PowerVM workloads when leveraging SmartCloud Entry?
A. Support for Oracle workloads
B. Integration with Cisco networking
C. Sub-capacity licensing for Oracle
D. Compatibility with third party storage

Answer: D
Question No : 20
An x86 based PureFlex prospect currently has the following environment and requirements: The Fibre Channel adapter vendor they are standardized on is Emulex. The switch vendor they are standardized on is Brocade. Connectivity is 16Gbps. They need 4 ports per adapter. Which of the following combinations of switch and adapter is required for Fibre Channel connectivity?
A. Switch FC5024 and adapter FC5022
B. Switch FC5022 and adapter FC5054
C. Switch FC5044 and adapter FC5054
D. Switch FC3022 and adapter FC3022

Answer: B
Question No : 21
A cost conscious client wants to purchase a two POWER node PureFlex solution. Each node will have 16 cores, two AIX LPARs, and they need four ports of FCoE communications. A critical requirement is therecan be no single point of failure. Which solution will meet all the client’s requirements?
A. p24L
B. p460
C. p270
D. p260

Answer: B
Question No : 22
A client purchased a Flex System six months ago. They configured the management with local useraccounts in the CMMs. They recently purchased the FSM and installed it in the system. After configuring the FSM all local CMM user accounts are disabled, and a new user RECOVER_ID has been created. What is the cause of this behavior?
A. The CMM LDAP Server service is stopped on the FSM
B. The FSM LDAP Server authenticated against the company LDAP server
C. The “centralized management” feature has been activated on the FSM
D. The client tried more than 3 times to log on with a false Userid or Password

Answer: C
Question No : 23
A client wishes to provide a Flex solution that compares to a standard Intelligent Cluster x3750 M4 servers running Windows Server 2008. The client asks for a Flex System compute node with similar processor capacity and scalability. Which node should be discussed with the prospect?
A. Flex node x220
B. Flex node x222
C. Flex node x240
D. Flex node x440

Answer: D
Question No : 24
A Managed Services Partner (MSP) has multiple PureFlex racks, each with a Flex System V7000 Storage Node. They are monitoring usage and are concerned that they will soon run out of space in the storage. Floor and rack space is constrained. They have a very high number of VMs and the application infrastructure is very complex, with many multi-purpose applications. They are concerned that licensing additional features and functions on all the storage systems could be costly and ineffective. What tool can be used to find out which storage node or nodes would benefit from licensing additional features?
A. Disk Magic
B. Comprestimator
C. SAN Volume Controller
D. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center

Answer: B
Question No : 25
Which statement is true about Flex System security?
A. It can be accessed via the CMM CLI through Telnet while using the Secure securitypolicy setting.
B. The CMM only provides two levels of security policy: Legacy and Secure, which are not customizable.
C. All Flex System Compute Nodes support the Trusted Platform Module that combine secure software and hardware to create a trusted platform.
D. The CMM security policies include hardware-related communication-protocol controls, account-related access controls, and application access control.

Answer: B
Question No : 26
On a PureFlex system, how can the FSM be restored from a previous backup?
A. The FSM can be restored from a backup on the local hard drive, a supported USB device or a Secure FTP Server.
B. The FSM can only be restored from a backup on the local hard drive. This is the only location where a backup can be stored.
C. The FSMcannot be backed up completely; only specific information like EAPs can be saved. It must be reinstalled and the startup wizard run again.
D. The FSM can only be restored on a non-configured FSM. The FSM must be reinstalled/reset and then the backup can beinstalled from the local hard drive.

Answer: A
Question No : 27
A client wants to purchase a PureFlex solution. Their solution will require 24 ports per Power node to meet their I/O needs. With cost as a consideration, which node will meet the client requirements?
A. A 24-core p270 node with four CN4093 switches
B. A 32-core p460 node with four CN4093 switches
C. A 16-core p24L node with two each EN4093 and FC5022 switches
D. A 24-core p270 node with two each EN4093 and FC5022 switches

Answer: B Question No : 28
Which is an advantage of IBM SmartCloud Orchestrator as compared with IBM SmartCloud Entry?
A. Multi-tenancy, isolation
B. Workload Aware Management
C. Self Service Portal for VM Provisioning
D. Automatic Fault Tolerant hardware and software

Answer: B
Question No : 29
Exhibit:

The technical expert is designing a solution to replace the existing server environment.
What configuration will most likely be successful in a highly competitive bid scenario?

A. Flex System using existing XIV and Brocade SAN
B. PureFlex Express with Storwize V7000 used to virtualize the XIV
C. Flex System with existing XIV externally virtualized by Storwize V7000
D. PureFlex Enterprise with existing XIV externally virtualized by Flex System V7000

Answer: A
Question No : 30
Which I/O modules can support end-to-end FCoE between a compute node with a CN4054 10Gb Adapter (with the FCoE upgrade) and an IBM Flex System V7000 Storage Node?
A. Only the CN4093
B. Only the EN4093R
C. Any IBM 10Gb Ethernet I/O module
D. Any IBM Fibre Channel I/O module

Answer: A
Question No : 31
A hardware error is automatically reported to IBM. An IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093R switch with upgrade 2 needs to be replaced. The technician is going to the client with the new switch andreplaces the switch. What additional step must be taken for the new switch to be operational?
A. Configure the new switch by hand and copy the old upgrade licenses onto the new switch
B. Request a new Upgrade license key via the Features On Demand webpageand configure the switch by hand
C. Buy Upgrade 1 and Upgrade 2 again to link this with the new part number of the new switch and configure the switch by hand
D. Do nothing; the switch configuration is automatically copied from the Flex System Manager tothe switch including the upgrade licenses
Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A WebSphere Application Server cell was configured with a deployment manager node and a custom node. An operator manually changed some configuration files in the custom node, and the node became out of synch with the master repository.
The system administrator used the Synchronize button in the system administration session of the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) to try to resynchronize the node, but the node remained out of sync.
What should the administrator do to fix it?
A. Use the Full Resynchronize button.
B. Invoke “sync” operation on NodeSync MBean.
C. Recreate the custom profile with the same name without deleting the node.
D. Manually copy all the deployment manager configuration files to the custom node.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
A system administrator needs to install WebSphere Application Server using response files, so that silent install can be done. The administrator has ensured that all required prerequisites have already been installed and, has downloaded and expanded the required WebSphere Application Server installation files.
What can the administrator run to install the product?
A. install -options responsefile.xml -silent
B. install -acceptLicense -options responsefile.xml -silent
C. install -acceptLicense input responsefile.xml -log logfile.txt
D. IBMIM -acceptLicense -input responsefile.xml -log logfile.txt

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
A system administrator needs to create a cell for a test environment. The administrator uses the Profile Management Tool (PMT) to create the deployment manager profile using the advanced profile creation option and creates a custom profile using the typical profile creation option. The administrator examines the log files for the custom profile creation and sees an INSTCONFFAIL message indicating the deployment manager was not running during the custom profile creation.
How should the administrator fix this?
A. Delete the custom profile. Start the deployment manager. Create the custom profile again.
B. Start the deployment manager. Use PMT to re-create the custom profile.
C. Use the syncNode command to synchronize the node.
D. Run the addNode command to federate the custom profile.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
A system administrator needs to install WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5.5 multiple times and would like to automate the task of installing the product. The administrator wants to create a response file based on an initial installation and use this for future installations.
How can the administrator accomplish this task?
A. Use the IBM Packaging Utility.
B. Use the Installation Manager Console mode.
C. Complete a silent installation with the -log option.
D. Start the Installation Manager GUI with the -record option.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
The installation of WebSphere Application Server did not complete successfully, and a system administrator needs to troubleshoot the installation.
What can the administrator do to identify the cause of the installation failure?
A. Run the installer command with the appropriate command line options.
B. Check the files under the Agent data location of IBM Installation Manager.
C. Check the files under the logs directory of IBM Installation Manager installation directory.
D. Check the log.txt under <WebSphere Application Server install directory><log directory>.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
The computer where a federated node was running had a failure and cannot be recovered. A system administrator wants to recreate the node with the same configurations in another computer.
Which steps should the administrator execute in order to recover the damaged node?
A. Configure the new computer with a different hostname. Create a custom profile with the same name. Federate to the cell using the command addNode with the default options.
B. Configure the new computer with a different hostname. Create a custom profile with a different name. Federate to the cell using the command addNode with the option -asExistingNode.
C. Configure the new computer with the same hostname. Create a custom profile with the same name. Federate to the cell using the command addNode with the option -asExistingNode.
D. Configure the new computer with the same hostname. Create a custom profile with the same name. Federate to the cell using the command addNode with the options -includeapps.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
A system administrator, Admin1, with Administrator privileges has archived full repository checkpoints. Another administrator, Configurator1, with Configurator privileges has copied the checkpoint contents directory from one of the archived check points to its original location. Configurator1 tries to restore the configuration using the copied archived checkpoint contents and the restore fails.
How can Configurator1 restore the configuration using the copied archived full repository checkpoint?
A. Copy the archived checkpoint metadata directory to its original location.
B. Increase the Automatic checkpoint depth to keep all the delta checkpoints.
C. Delete the delta checkpoints taken after the full repository checkpoint was taken.
D. Ask an administrator to update the privileges for Configurator1 to match Admin1.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
A system administrator completed a WebSphere Application Server installation by using the Installation Manager. During installation, all defaults were selected for the installation root directories and the shared resources directory. Over time, the administrator has updated the installation with various interim fixes and fix packs. The administrator notices that the shared resources directory is very large in size and grows larger each time the Installation Manager is run.
How can the administrator decrease the size and remove some of the content from the shared resources directory?
A. Manually delete content from the directory.
B. During an update, create a new shared resources directory.
C. Clear the Delete Saved Files option for the Installation Manager.
D. Set the preserve Downloaded Artifacts preference to false.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
A system administrator has installed WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5.5 using the silent installation process and needs to verify that the installation completed successfully.
What does the administrator need to do to verify a successful installation?
A. Launch the Installation Manager GUI, and verify the installation by going to File -> View Installed Packages.
B. Run the command IBMIM list installed Packages and check that the appropriate WebSphere Application Server package is listed.
C. Check for INSTCONFSUCCESS message at the end of the <webSphere Application Server install directory><log directory>log.txt file.
D. Use the installer command to compare the checksum of the product file to the correct checksum value in the bill-of-materials file and make sure that the checksums match.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A system administrator ran the backup Config command to backup the configuration using the -nostop option. The administrator changed the properties for the service integration environment by modifying the sib.properties file. During testing the administrator noticed Service Integration Bus related errors and wanted to restore the service integration environment. The administrator used the restore config command, but the tuning properties for the service integration environment were not restored.
How can the administrator prevent this issue?
A. Use full repository checkpoints for both the backup and the restore.
B. Use the restore config command with -nostop for the restore.
C. Use the manage profiles command for both the backup and the restore.
D. Use the backup config command without -nostop for the backup Use the restore config command without -nostop for the restore.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
A system administrator suspects that the slow performance of an application might be caused by lock contention.
To debug this further, what can the administrator do using IBM Support Assistant?
A. Analyze the running server using IBM Monitoring and Diagnostic Tools for Java -Health center.
B. Collect a java core and analyze it using IBM Monitoring and Diagnostic Tools for Java
-Health Center.
C. Collect three thread dumps at equal time intervals and analyze them using IBM Monitoring and Diagnostic Tools for Java – Dump Analyzer.
D. Collect three system dumps at equal time intervals and analyze them using IBM Monitoring and Diagnostic Tools for Java – Memory Analyzer.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
A system administrator was asked by the development team to inform them of any warning message which contains a string “Connection” on a WebSphere Application Server with High Performance Extensible Logging (HPEL) enabled.
What should the administrator do to continuously monitor logs for the required message?
A. Configure log detail levels to include filter on “Connection” string.
B. Use the Log Viewer in the administrative console with filter on “Connection” string.
C. Use the logviewer.sh or logviewer.bat command with appropriate options.
D. Use the Log Viewer in the administrative console with filter on “Connection” string and enable the ‘Refresh automatically’ feature.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
An EJB application posts a request message into a JMS destination and waits for a response message on a different JMS destination. To correlate the response message to the request message, the application uses the JMS correlation ld of the message. The application waits up to five seconds for a response before timing out the request.
A Message Driven Bean (MDB) running on a different cluster is responsible for consuming the request message, process it and post a response message.
The destinations are defined in a Service Integration Bus (SIB) within the cell.
Intermittent timeout exceptions have occurred for the requester application. How can a system administrator correlate and analyze the debug information from both requester and consumer applications?
A. Enable High Performance Extensible Logging (HPEL). Use HPEL logViewer command to see debug information.
B. Enable a diagnostic trace in both requester and consumer servers. Use the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) to set the admin=all trace. Analyze the trace.
C. Enable High Performance Extensible Logging (HPEL). Enable Cross Component Trace (XCT) to include request IDs in log and trace records. Use HPEL logViewer command with appropriate filters to see debug information.
D. Using the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC), browse the request message that has timed out and look for any key application data. Search for exceptions using the key application data in both requester and consumer in native_stderr.log and native_stdout.log.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
After collecting diagnostic trace from a server running under a cell, a system administrator noticed that the trace files contained sensitive information.
To avoid this issue in the future, what can the administrator do?
A. Configure entries in the ras.rawtracelist.properties.
B. Configure suppress Sensitive Trace in the boots trap.properties file.
C. Clear the “Disable logging and tracing of potentially sensitive data” checkbox.
D. Add the entry com.ibm.websphere.logging.RawTraceList=Off to the end of the trace string.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
A system administrator is required to monitor the application server logs for heap memory issues and determine if the heap memory usage is reaching close to 70% of the maximum heap. The application server is configured with an initial heap of 256 MB and a max heap of 1 GB.
How should the administrator determine if the application server is utilizing 70% of the max allocated heap memory?
A. Check the System logs for Out Of Memory Errors. Trigger a heap dump from the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC). Analyze the heap dump.
B. Configure WebSphere Application Server to enable verbose garbage collection. Analyze the garbage collection cycles in the native logs.
C. Configure Initial heap to be equal to the max heap. Trigger a heap dump from the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC). Analyze the heap dump.
D. Configure WebSphere Application Server to increase max heap. Trigger a heap dump from the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC). Analyze the heap dump.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
A system administrator needs to trigger a javacore only when a Java. net. Socket Timeout Exception is encountered in real time.
What does the administrator have to configure to trigger the javacore dump?
A. Configure the JAVA_DUMP_OPTS environment variable to capture javacore for ANYSIGNAL and all exceptions.
B. Configure an -Xdump:java Generic JVM argument on WebSphere Application Server with the filter for java.net.SocketTimeoutException.
C. Code wsadmin script to capture javacore and then execute it after the Java.net.SocketTimeoutException has been encountered.
D. Use the log filter in HPEL to monitor for java.net. SocketTimeoutException and then gather a javacore dump from the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC).

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
An application deployed to a multi-node cluster is reported to have slowness and hung threads. A system administrator is asked to review the logs on each node and identify if the hung threads are a false alarm.
How can the administrator determine that the hung threads are a false alarm? Analyze the:
A. ffdc logs.
B. SystemErr.log.
C. SystemOut.log.
D. native_stderr.log.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A system administrator is tasked with monitoring the overall health of the WebSphere environment to be able to tune the environment properly. Specifically, the administrator was asked to:
Monitor how much time is spent in the various parts of the environment.

Determine the concurrent usage of the site.

Identify potential memory leaks.
Which PMI modules can the administrator examine to obtain this data?
A. Number of requests, Java virtual memory. Average response time
B. Number of requests, Average response time. Web server thread pools
C. Average response time, Java virtual memory. Number of Live HTTP Sessions
D. Average response time. Web server thread pools. Number of Live HTTP Sessions

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
A system administrator decides to use the advice from the Performance and Diagnostic Advisor to identify the optimum connection pool settings for data sources. In a cell, the data source db2datasource is defined under node scope and used by two servers from that node. The administrator receives two different sets of advice for db2datasource.
. One set of advice suggests to increase the maximum connection pool size for db2datasource. . The other suggests reducing the maximum connection pool size for db2datasource.
How should the administrator configure the data sources before reusing the Performance and Diagnostic Advisor?
A. Create a data source of the same name under cell scope.
B. Create a data source of the same name under server scope for each server.
C. Increase the minimum connection pool size for the data source.
D. Decrease the maximum connection pool size for the data source.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
A system administrator in a bank was asked by business users to determine the most accessed JSP page in a web application at normal work load for marketing purpose. Which tool should the administrator use to find the most used JSP page?
A. Performance and Diagnostic Advisor
B. IBM Support Assistant Data Collector
C. High Performance Extensible Logging Log Viewer
D. Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) summary reports

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
A system administrator is asked by a development team to monitor the performance of a newly deployed EJB application. The administrator noticed that the heap size of the application server is growing.
What should the administrator do to fix the problem using ORB settings?
A. Use J2EE managed object MBeans.
B. Enable the pass by reference option.
C. Disable the application scoped resources in the application deployment descriptor.
D. Ensure that Process embedded configurations is not selected when exporting the EAR.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
A system administrator has deployed web applications to a clustered environment where database session persistence is configured. The administrator needs to improve the response time and the throughput.
How can the system administrator do this?

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Question: 1
An administrator would like to use the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) to install WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote Solaris host. The Solaris host has been updated with all the required operating system patches. What is the next step the administrator must perform?
A. Configure an installation target for the Solaris host.
B. Download Solaris interim fixes to the CIM repository.
C. Use the Job manager to create a remote installation job.
D. Copy WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 software to the Solaris host.

Answer: A
Question: 2
Data replication service (DRS) is turned on for replicating in-memory data among WebSphere processes. During peak load, the developer found an OutOfMemoryError in the log. The developer suggests turning off data replication service (DRS). What services would be impacted?
A. Stateful session EJB persistence and failover.
B. HTTP session persistence and failover.
C. JDBC data source failover.
D. Dynamic cache replication.
E. JVM in memory replication and failover.

Answer: A, B, D
Question: 3
A cluster, Cluster1, contains two servers, Server1 and Server2. Server1 has a weight of 2 and Server2 has a weight of 4. A single web server is used to route HTTP requests to Cluster1. The web server is started and receives 3 HTTP requests for an application deployed on Cluster1. Assuming no session affinity, how many requests will the plug-in route to Server2?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: C
Question: 4
A cluster with 5 servers is configured as a member of a service integration bus (SIBus) using the Scalability with high availability messaging engine policy. What are the possible numbers of messaging engines that might be running on an individual server in the cluster?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: A, B
Question: 5
Which one of the following is a true statement?

A. A cluster can run multiple messaging engines for a single service integration bus (SIBus).
B. A service integration bus (SIBus) destination can only exist on a single messaging engine
C. A single service integration bus (SIBus) can span multiple WebSphere Application Server cells.
D. A WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell can only contain a single service integration bus (SIBus).

Answer: A
Question: 6
An administrator wants to run a Web server on an unmanaged node with no administrative process. Which of the following issues result from this configuration?
A. The administrative console will not be able to generate a plug-in configuration file for this Web server.
B. Applications will not be able to use this Web server as a deployment target.
C. The plug-in configuration file must be manually propagated to the Web server host.
D. This Web server will not be able to perform workload management of requests to a cluster of application servers.

Answer: C
Question: 7
An administrator creates a horizontal cluster and deploys an application that uses several EJBs. How can the administrator ensure that EJB client requests are routed to the same node on which the client resides?
A. Enable the prefer local option for the cluster.
B. Set the scope of the data source to node instead of cluster.
C. Disable the ORBs workload management plug-in for each cluster member.
D. Enable stateful session bean failover using memory-to-memory replication.

Answer: A
Question: 8
A user is taken through a series of Web pages in an online store and eventually checks out to complete his purchase. In the event of a server failure, the user should not have to repeat a step that has already been performed. Which session management strategy is best suited if the user cannot tolerate a loss in session information?
A. Database persistence to external datastore
B. Memory-to-memory replication in Both mode
C. Memory-to-memory replication in Client mode
D. Memory-to-memory replication in Server mode

Answer: A
Question: 9
The administrator ran into a memory leak problem. A .phd file was produced when an OutOfMemoryError occurred. Verbose:gc output indicated the heap was exhausted after running a period of 10 hours. Which tool is recommended for analyzing the memory problem?
A. Log analyzer
B. ISA Thread Dump Analyzer
C. Memory Dump Diagnostic for Java (MDD4J)

D. IBM Thread and Monitor Dump Analyzer (TMDA)

Answer: C
Question: 10
Which of the following will force a JVM thread dump.
A. kill -9 <process-id>
B. F SERVERNAME,JAVADUMP
C. Using the wsadmin command prompt: jvm = AdminControl.completeServerNameList(“type=JVM,process=server1,*”) AdminControl.invoke(jvm, “dumpAllThreads”)
D. Using the wsadmin command prompt: jvm = AdminControl.completeServerNameList(“type=JVM,process=server1,*”) AdminControl.invoke(jvm, “dumpThreads”)

Answer: D
Question: 11
When configuring a servers diagnostic trace service, in order to have trace level data written to the trace log, which one of the following tasks must be performed?
A. Set the log detail level to fatal.
B. Set the Trace Output Format to Advanced.
C. Set the log detail level to fine, finer, finest or all.
D. Use a trace string specification of com.ibm.*=detail.

Answer: C
Question: 12
As part of a diagnostic data collection plan, an administrator must gather server JVM logs and archive them every week. How can the administrator configure a server so that the logs are available for weekly archiving?
A. Use the Advanced setting for log file formatting and rotation.
B. Use the administrative console to set Runtime messages to Info.
C. Use appropriate settings for log rotation and number of historical logs.
D. Set the archive and log rotation values in the ffdcRun.properties file.

Answer: C
Question: 13
An administrator has been asked by IBM Support to gather diagnostic trace data relevant to a problem involving some components of the application server. How should the administrator prepare to gather the data?
A. Enable the IBM Service log for the server and set the number of historical logs to 10.
B. Enable verbose garbage collection for the server and specify that the data be written to the trace.log file.
C. Configure Diagnostic Trace for the server by selecting that the trace output be written to a file.
D. Configure the ffdcRun.properties file to trace the specific server components and write the data to a memory buffer.
Answer: C Question: 14

An administrator notices that the <profile_root>/logs directory is filling up with heapdump and javacore files. Before analyzing these files, what should the administrator do to determine which application components might be causing these files to be dumped?
A. Examine the application servers SystemErr.log and look for OutOfMemoryError exceptions and stack traces.
B. Monitor the application servers JVM using Tivoli Performance Viewer and look for steady growth in theheap size.
C. Use the Log Analyzer to view the application servers trace.log file and look for application startup failures.
D. Gather the application servers verbose garbage collection data and look for relatively long garbage collection cycles.

Answer: A
Question: 15
An application server is producing heap dumps. Which tool in IBM Support Assistant (ISA) is used to perform analysis on the heap dump?
A. Log Analyzer
B. ThreadAnalyzer
C. Trace and Request Analyzer
D. Memory Dump Diagnostic for Java

Answer: D
Question: 16
An administrator has defined a connection factory, jms/CF, which is required by an application that runs on a cluster. Three of the clusters four members run the application without error. On the fourth member, a NameNotFoundException is thrown attempting to look up jms/CF. The administrator uses the dumpNameSpace command to examine the namespace of the fourth member and verifies that jms/CF is not in the namespace. What is the most likely cause?
A. The fourth cluster member is running on a different operating system than the other three.
B. The administrator has not defined the jms/CF connection factory at a scope visible to the fourth cluster member.
C. The fourth cluster member has not been selected as a deployment target for the application.
D. The administrator has specified a maximum of 3 connections on the jms/CF connection factory.

Answer: B
Question: 17
Due to network problems, the IBM Support Assistant (ISA) Agent is not available. Which service will be inoperable?
A. Case manager tool
B. Guided troubleshooter
C. Remote debugging, data collection and file transfer
D. WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 add-on customization
Answer: C
Question: 18

An administrator has enabled security auditing for the WebSphere Application Server. They wish to view the audit records in order to verify that it is working properly. Which tool would best allow them to view the audit data?
A. IBM Support Assistant using the AuditLogReporter tool
B. wsadmin, using the AdminTask.binaryAuditLogReader command
C. The administrative console – they could invoke the Tivoli Audit Viewer (TAV)
D. The LogAnalyzer from within the Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Tool.

Answer: B
Question: 19
An administrator manages a cell that is configured to use an LDAP server for its user registry. But, there are several cases where he needs certain application servers to authenticate against a file based registry. How can this be accomplished?
A. From the deployment managers administrative console, use the application servers security configuration wizard for each application server to override the cell level registry.
B. In the cell level security configuration panel, define LDAP authentication at the cell scope, and file based registry at the application server scope for the desired application servers.
C. Configure Global security to use an LDAP registry and create a new security domain with a user realm definition for the file based registry and assign it to the desired application servers.
D. Create a global security repertoire that includes a global definition for the LDAP registry as well as entries for each node is the cell. For those nodes that have application servers that require file based registry, include a registry override.

Answer: C
Question: 20
What must an administrator do before he can create method permissions for an Enterprise JavaBean (EJB)?
A. Map role to groups.
B. Define one or more security roles.
C. Map logical role name to runtime role.
D. Exclude a set of EJB methods from access.

Answer: B
Question: 21
A federated cell has two nodes, Node01 and Node02. Global Security is turned on and is using a file based user registry. Node01 has servers A, B, C and D. A developer has deployed a new security check-in application to servers A and D. As a security requirement, this new application is required to use local operating system registry for user authentications. Identify which one of the following is the most direct way to enable this secured application.
A. Migrate user information from operating system registry to LDAP registry.
B. Create a security domain and scope it to application server A and D.
C. Update global security configuration file security.xml with operating system registry definition.
D. Merge operating system registry and file based user registry to a new LDAP and assign the new LDAP to the federated cell.
Answer: B
Question: 22

In a test cell which has WebSphere global security disabled, an administrator has created a service integration bus (SIBus) with security enabled for testing applications that use messaging resources. Now the administrator needs to enable security on the bus for further testing. Which of the following tasks must be performed to enable security on the bus?
A. Enable administrative security for the cell.
B. Configure a separate security domain for the bus.
C. Delete the bus and recreate it with security enabled.
D. Require messaging clients to use SSL protected transports.

Answer: A
Question: 23
The application accesses an external resource using a J2C adaptor. The security credential for the external resource authentication has changed. Which one of the following should be updated?
A. J2C authentication data.
B. Key stores and certificates.
C. Web security trust association.
D. JAAS login module in WebSphere.

Answer: A
Question: 24
An administrator is troubleshooting a communication problem between two application servers, on different nodes (node-A and node-B), within a cell that has administrative security enabled. Based on prior investigation, they believe that the problem involves a missing signing certificate on node-B. What should be done to verify this theory?
A. Manually propagate the key.p12 file for node-B to the plugin directory and restart the application servers.
B. Verify that the CellDefaultTrustStore has the appropriate signing certificates in it and run the syncNode script on node-B.
C. Get a new certificate for the application server from a Certificate Authority and import it into the application servers ServerDefaultTrustStore.
D. Update the NodeDefaultKeyStore for node-B with a new signing certificate, do a Full Resynchronize of the cell, and restart the node agents and application servers.

Answer: B
Question: 25
Which one of the following profile related tasks can only be performed using the manageprofiles command-line facility?
A. Delete a profile
B. Secure a profile
C. Federate a profile
D. Update profile templates

Answer: A

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