Index

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following are critical success factors for the introduction of standard tools and techniques to the P3O model?
1.
Identify the benefits a tool will provide to an organization before focussing on its features

2.
Ensure the complexity of the tools and techniques matches the capability maturity of the organization

3.
Implement new tools as part of an organizational change programme

4.
Implement tools simultaneously across all programmes and projects
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Which is an area where improvement targets and related Key Performance Indicators should be set?
A. Improved portfolio balance in terms of overall risk and lifecycle stages
B. Greater independence from strategic objectives
C. Increased number of projects in start-up at any one time
D. Increased number of programmes scoring amber or red at a gated review

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Which is NOT a way that tools may be used?
A. Community
B. Individual
C. Integrated
D. Collaborative

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Which tool provides integrated reports for multiple users from a single set of data?
A. Benefit realization
B. Facilitated workshops
C. Complexity modelling
D. Enterprise PPM solutions

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
Where may standard techniques for a P3O exist in an organization?
A. Reported in management dashboards
B. Within a Business Case
C. As part of the P3O implementation plan
D. Within corporate standards and policies

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Which is a key activity of the Identify’ process in the permanent P3O lifecycle?
A. Delivering the new capability
B. Planning tranches of delivery
C. Analysing stakeholders and planning communications
D. Assessing the current state of P3O provision

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7
Which role is responsible for developing a Portfolio Dependencies Register?
A. Programme Specialist
B. Portfolio Analyst
C. Reporting
D. Tools Expert

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which is an activity in the definition and implementation of a temporary Programme Office?
A. Create a Vision Statement for the office
B. Transfer the realization of benefits to the operational environment
C. Identify existing processes defined by the COE that may used
D. Design the future state Blueprint

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
What model has permanent decentralized offices with temporary Programme Offices, as required?
A. P3O with Hub Portfolio Offices
B. P3O with Organization Portfolio Office
C. P3O with Temporary Offices
D. Virtual P3O

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
Which describes how P3M3 assessments are used when implementing a P3O?
A. Document new processes to be followed
B. Define the skills needed in the implementation team
C. Develop a tranche-based plan that suits maturity levels
D. Assess project or programme complexity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
Which P3O capability is MOST likely to lead to unviable projects being stopped at the initial investment gate?
A. Tracking of progress on programmes against key outcomes
B. Selection of the right programmes and projects via an established structure
C. Identification of potential duplication of scope or double counting of benefits
D. Coordinated change control process across multiple projects and business operations

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which is a delivery support function offered within a P3O?
A. Reporting on progress through management dashboards
B. Provision of independent assurance of programmes
C. Provision of project support resources to projects
D. Alignment of change initiatives to strategy

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which is NOT a typical Key Performance Indicator which can be used to measure the success of a P3O?
A. Increased success of programmes delivering to budget
B. Improved portfolio balance in relation to spend on short term contract resource
C. Increased use of implemented tools by operations staff
D. Enhanced contribution measured against the Benefits Realization Plan

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which is an Information Assurance concept that ensures a P3O can supply information to the business when needed?
A. Asset management
B. Configuration management
C. Availability
D. Confidentiality
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which defines what a P3O provides?
A. Decision-ma king forum for Programme and Project Managers
B. Decision-enabling model for the entire organization.
C. Integration with governance arrangements and other corporate support functions
D. Replacement for Programme and Project Boards
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which role has the authority to champion the setup of a P3O set-up?
A. Head of Programme Office
B. Head of P3O
C. Portfolio Analyst
D. P3O Sponsor
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
Which is a definition of business as usual?
A. Totality of an organization’s investment in the changes required to achieve its strategic objectives
B. A coordinated collection of strategic processes that enable the most effective balance of change and business as usual
C. The way the business normally achieves its objectives
D. The integration of the concept Run the Business, Change the Business’ into the portfolio

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
P3O model?
A. Risk management
B. Programme planning
C. Secretariat support
D. Strategic planning or portfolio support

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
What is insufficient support to utilise or recruit required skills’ in relation to implementing a P3O?
A. Common barrier to agreeing a mandate
B. Underlying success factor
C. Source of a threat to achieving the Blueprint
D. Principle for extracting value from programme and project investment

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
Which of the following describe the relationship between change and business as usual?
1.
Programmes deliver change into an organization’s business operations environment

2.
Business stakeholders must be engaged appropriately about the changes being delivered

3.
Programme delivery should take priority over business as usual activities

4.
Disruption to business as usual needs to be considered when planning changes
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
Why should staff delivering non-PPM functions within a P3O model be treated as distinct administrative resources?
A. Avoid discouraging people from choosing a career within a P3O
B. Provide non-PPM functions with a logical home
C. Meet business efficiency needs
D. Deliver a secretariat service to management boards

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
Which benefit of implementing standard tools and techniques is MOST likely to reduce the number of staff required to operate P3O services?
A. Automation of business processes
B. Enhanced quality of decision support information
C. Enhanced management across geography
D. Improved timeliness of decision support information

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
Which describes a feature of a co-located, rather than a distributed model?
A. Components of the standards will have separate owners
B. Team cohesion is achieved by staff working together in a permanent office
C. Communication via central information portals with collaborative working practices is essential
D. Functional experts provide services from within teams across the organization

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Which should the outline Vision Statement NOT describe?
A. What the organization s new business model will be
B. How success of the P3O will be measured
C. Plan of how the P3O will be delivered
D. How a P3O will contribute to achieving organizational objectives

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Why do senior managers need to agree on which PPM problems they rate as critical?
A. Defines a portfolio prioritization and optimization technique
B. Allows the P3O Sponsor to gain consensus on a common P3O vision
C. Justifies to senior management the investment in a P3O
D. Defines the lifecycle for implementing a permanent P3O

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
Which is a specific benefit of the skills development and maintenance technique?
A. Improves collaboration between resources working in different locations
B. Allows access to PPM information by all levels of an organization
C. Reduces ineffective management of workshops
D. Allocates appropriately skilled resources to PPM roles

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27
What type of facilitated workshop is held for the purpose of identifying threats and opportunities?
A. Business solution

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QUESTION 51
Your user accounts are stored on an Active Directory server. Which action is necessary to enable your users to access Mac OS X Server services that require authentication?
A. Start the LDAP server on the Mac OS X Server.
B. Manually create computer accounts on the Active Directory server.
C. Add the Mac OS X Server computer to the Authentication Search Path on the client computers.
D. Configure the Active Directory plug-in on the Mac OS X Server to connect to the Active Directory server.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
You are creating a configuration in Directory Access to access an LDAP server. The user accounts on the LDAP server do not include an attribute to specify the location of the home folder. Which mapping for the HomeDirectory attribute would enable the user account to access a home folder that has the same name as the uid value in the LDAP account?
A. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users/uid</url></home_dir>
B. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users/%uid</url></home_dir>
C. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users</url><path>$uid$</path></home_dir>
D. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users/<path>%uid</path></url></home_dir>

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Which Open Directory group record attribute is used by access control list (ACL) file permissions?
A. UniqueID
B. GeneratedUID
C. PrimaryGroupID
D. AuthenticationAuthority

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which command-line utility can be used to remove Kerberos tickets from the cache on a Mac OS X client computer?
A. kdestroy
B. klist -e
C. kinit -r
D. kmod
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
You need to configure some Mac OS X computers to bind to an LDAP server not running on a Macintosh computer. This is the first time that you have tried to use this LDAP server. What should be your first step?
A. In the LDAP plug-in in Directory Access, create mappings to supplement required user account attributes that are not on the LDAP database.
B. Use an LDAP browsing tool to verify the connection settings and identify the structure and format of the data stored on the server.
C. Create a new LDAP configuration in Directory Access and determine the connection settings through experimentation.
D. Have the server system administrator modify the schema to support missing attributes that are required by Mac OS X.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which Open Directory user record attribute is used by standard BSD file permissions?
A. naprivs
B. UniqueID
C. GeneratedUID
D. AuthenticationAuthority

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
In Mac OS X Server v10.4, Directory Services replication lets you ________.
A. replicate data between a Mac OS X Server computer and a Mac OS X client computer
B. synchronize directory data between an Open Directory server and an Active Directory server
C. configure access controls to directory structures and file systems on a remote Mac OS X Server
D. maintain a duplicate of the current contents of the LDAP and Password Servers, and the Kerberos key distribution center (KDC) on a remote Mac OS X Server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which statement about passwords for local user accounts in Mac OS X v10.4 is true?
A. A crypt password can be 32 bytes in length; a shadow password has no length limitation.
B. DirectoryService is the authoritative authentication agent for crypt and shadow passwords.
C. Shadow passwords are created for a user account when the option is specified in System Preferences.
D. A crypt password is accessible by anyone using the computer; a shadow password is only accessible by the System Administrator (root).

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
When referring to an LDAP directory, what is the schema?
A. The method for replicating data between servers
B. The address in the directory at which searches start
C. The set of rules that describes the structure of the data in the directory
D. The set of definitions created in Directory Access that map the LDAP attributes to Open Directory attributes

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Which statement about the dscl command line utility is true?
A. dscl makes requests through lookupd.
B. dscl has a plug-in architecture for compatibility.
C. dscl makes requests through DirectoryService.
D. dscl can be run when the computer is in single-user mode.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Click the Exhibit button and examine the partial mount record, then answer the question below.
You use dscl to view a mount record provided by an LDAP server. How is the share point mounted?

A. statically, using NFS
B. statically, using AFP
C. dynamically, using AFP
D. dynamically, using NFS

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
By default, which agent does lookupd check first to resolve a machine name?
A. NIAgent
B. DSAgent
C. DNSAgent
D. CacheAgent
E. BonjourAgent

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Which THREE authentication methods are supported by the Password Server? (Choose THREE.)
A. SSL
B. PGP
C. APOP
D. LUHN-10
E. CRAM-MD5
F. NT LAN Manager

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Which statement is NOT true of Password Server replication in Mac OS X Server v10.4?
A. Password Server engages in a multimaster replication scheme.
B. Conflicts in the Password Server database replicas are resolved using slapd.access.
C. The replication process is entirely encrypted between each Password Server process.
D. Password Server refers to /var/db/authserver/authserverreplicas to determine if the last synchronization was successful.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which information is included in a ticket-granting ticket (TGT) from the key distribution center (KDC)?
A. the public key for the KDC
B. the time the TGT was issued
C. the user account crypt password
D. the service key for all supported kerberized services

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
You are configuring your Mac OS X computer to authenticate at the login window through an LDAP server. Which Open Directory user attribute are you NOT required to map to an LDAP user attribute?
A. UniqueID
B. MCXFlags
C. RealName
D. RecordName

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
In a default configuration, what LDAP user name do clients enter in Directory Access to perform LDAP queries on Mac OS X Server Open Directory?
A. ldap
B. admin
C. cn=ldap,dc=example,dc=com
D. cn=admin,dc=example,dc=com
E. Nonehe default configuration allows anonymous binding.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Your user accounts are stored on an Active Directory server. Which action is necessary to enable your users to access Mac OS X Server services that require authentication?
A. Start the LDAP server on the Mac OS X Server.
B. Manually create computer accounts on the Active Directory server.
C. Add the Mac OS X Server computer to the Authentication Search Path on the client computers.
D. Configure the Active Directory plug-in on the Mac OS X Server to connect to the Active Directory server.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 69
Which Open Directory user record attribute is used by standard BSD file permissions?
A. naprivs
B. UniqueID
C. GeneratedUID
D. AuthenticationAuthority

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Which statement about the dscl command line utility is true?
A. dscl makes requests through lookupd.
B. dscl has a plug-in architecture for compatibility.
C. dscl makes requests through DirectoryService.
D. dscl can be run when the computer is in single-user mode.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which three (3) are Mac OS X Open Directory plug-ins that can request data from a directory service? (Choose THREE.)
A. SMB
B. LDAPv3
C. Bonjour
D. AppleTalk
E. Active Directory
F. BSD Flat File and NIS

Correct Answer: BEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
To support Mac OS X clients, you deploy a server running directory services on Mac OS X Server v10.4 to supplement the existing Active Directory services. This solution provides ________.
A. a mechanism for mapping Mac OS X schema to Active Directory
B. a mechanism for storing Microsoft Exchange data in Open Directory
C. a means of managing Windows Group Policy objects from Workgroup Manager in Mac OS X
D. a way to store user principals in Active Directory, and delegate Mac-specific management to Mac OS X Server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
The Mac OS X Server Password Server does NOT ________.
A. support multiple authentication methods
B. enforce password policies such as length and expiration
C. allow non-kerberized services to use a Kerberos session key
D. provide a centralized store of passwords used by multiple servers

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 51
Which statement is NOT true of the krb5kdc process running in Mac OS X Server v10.4?
A. The process is started by launched
B. The process reads its configuration data from kdc.conf
C. The process communicate on UDP and TCP/IP port 88
D. The process reads its service principals in the local LDAP database.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
You are configuring Mac OS X client computers to access user records in a third-party directory. Without modifying the schema on the third-party directory, how can you provide valid mount records for network home folder?
A. Create a mount record in the local LDAP directory on the Mac OS X client
B. Use Directory Access to map VFSType to apple-user homeurl on each client computer
C. Use the Active Directory schema rather than the RFC 2307 schema on the LDAP directory
D. Supplement the third-party directory with a directory on Mac OS X Server to host the mount records

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
A Mac OS X client connects to a server in a Mac OS X Server v10.4 Open Directory replication system for the first time. The client FIRST ________
A. registers itself with each of the replicas
B. adds a search path for Directory Access for one of the servers in the replication system
C. downloads a list of LDAP replicas from the LDAP server for storage in its LDAPvPlugin plist file.
D. Looks at the Password Server public key and references this key to find out what password servers can be used for authentication

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which command-line utility can be used to remove Kerberos tickets from the cache on a Mac OS X client computer?
A. kdestroy
B. klist -e
C. kinit -r
D. kmod

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
To configure the Mac OS Server LDAP server for SSL, you enable the LDAP SSL option What else must you do?
A. Enter the passphrase for the private key
B. Enable SSL in Directory Access on the server.
C. Install the Cryptography Services package from the Admin Tools CD.
D. Install a private key and a signed certificate, and configure the server to use them

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
When troubleshooting directory services issues, what is a limitation of using the -d option with the lookupd process?
A. The lookupd process is interactive
B. The lookupd process is used to find information on DNS resolution
C. The result of the lookupd process are from a new instance of lookupd.
D. If configured to use DSAent, lookupd -d will the same results as the DirectoryService process

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
You have created new client mappings for the LDAPv3 plu-in on a Mac OS X computer.
One way to make theses mappings accessible to other Mac OS X client is to _____
A. use the Write to Server option in Directory Access
B. Assign users a network home folder using Workgroup Manager
C. Assign your new mappings to the VFSLInkDir attribute on the LDAP server
D. Use Workgroup Manager to assign the mappings to a computer account list

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
When configuring Mac OS X Server to search multiple directory services, how do you set the search order?
A. Run ldapsearch
B. Use Directory Access to modify the directory mappings
C. Use the Authentication and Contacts panes of Directory Access
D. Use the Workgroup Manager Advanced pane when setting up a new user

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
You are using lookupd to query user account information. By default, which lookupd agents are used?
A. NIAgent
B. DSAgent
C. DNSAgent
D. CacheAgent
E. BonjourAgent
F. AppleTalkAgent

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
By default, which agent does lookupd check FIRST to resolve a machine name?
A. NIAgent
B. DSAgent
C. DNSAgent
D. CacheAent
E. BonjourAgent

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
A Mac OS X v10.4 computer is bound to an Active Directory server using the Active Directory plug-in in Directory Access. Using the dfault configuration of the plug-in , what is the Mac OS X user ID number for a user account provided by the Active Directory server?
A. The user ID number is always set to 500
B. The user ID number is the value stored in the user account’s UID attribute
C. The user ID number is generated based on the user account’s Globally Unique ID (UID)
D. The user ID number is a randomly generated value that does not conflict with any user IDs used by the local user records.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
As an administrator of an Open Directory master and its replicas, you use which command to force a replication?
A. ldapd
B. syncd
C. slapconfig
D. slapd.access

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
To support Mac OS X clients you deploy a server running directory services on Mac OS X Server v10.4 to supplement the existing Active Directory services. This solution provides __________
A. a mechanism for mapping Mac OS X schema to Active Directory
B. a mechanism for storing Microsoft Exchange data in Open Directory
C. a way to manage Windows Group Policy objects from Workgroup Manager in Mac OS X
D. a way to store user principals in Active Directory, and delegate Mac-specific management to Mac OS X server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Which THREE authentication methods are supported by the Password Server?
A. SSL
B. PGP
C. APOP
D. LUHN-10
E. CRAM-MD5
F. NT LAN Manager

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which statement presents a valid reason for creating two user record branches in a Mac OS X Server LDAP directory?
A. LDAP object class hold a limited number of fields
B. Open Directory does not support the inetOrgPerson schema.
C. The NetInfo user account schema does not support extra contact information
D. You want to separate records used for authentication from records used for contacts.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
By examining a DB2 accounting report, how can you determine if DASD I/O contention is a factor in a poor performing application?
A. Divide the number of get pages by the number of synchronous I/Os.
B. Divide the synchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
C. Divide the asynchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
D. Divide the class 2 elapsed time by the number of synchronous I/Os.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which three statements are correct for automatic management of buffer pool storage in DB2 9? (Choose three.)
A. You do not need to ALTER BUFFERPOOL with AUTOSIZE(YES) to enable thi functionality.
B. DB2 provides sizing information to WLM.
C. DB2 communicates to WLM each time allied agents encounter delays due to read I/O.
D. DB2 periodically reports BPOOL size and random read hit ratios to WLM.
E. The automatic altered buffer pool sizes are resized to the original with the recycle of thesub-system.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 3
There is a suspected problem with catalog table space DSNDB06.SYSDBASE. Should a problem be discovered, which series of tasks could you run to analyze and resolve the problem?
A. Run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE anecessary.
B. STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DBD against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE asnecessary.
C. START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(UT); run DSN1CHKR againstDSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, STARTDSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(RW).
D. STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run CHECK DATA to validate RI constraints; run DSN1CHKRDSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, STARTDSNDB06.SYSDBASE.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which privilege is required to use the ACCESS command?
A. DISPLAY
B. STARTDB
C. MONITOR
D. ACCESSDB

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You have to recover your complete DB2 system by image copies and the RECOVER utility. You start the recovery with DSNDB01.SYSUTILX and DSNDB01.DBD01. Which table space must be recovered next?
A. DSNDB01.SPT01
B. DSNDB01.SYSLGRNX
C. DSNDB06.SYSCOPY
D. DSNDB06.SYSDBASE

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Within which two DB2 address spaces may the execution of a DB2 stored procedure occur? (Choose two.)
A. Workload Manager SPAS
B. Database Services (DBM1)
C. DB2-established SPAS
D. Distributed Data Facility (DDF)
E. System Services (MSTR)

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
Which two accounting trace classes must be active when tracing package and DBRM related activity? (Choose two.)
A. class 1
B. class 2
C. class 3
D. class 5
E. class 7

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 8
You create a system level point-in-time recovery conditional restart control record with SYSPITR value of FFFFFFFFFFFF. Afterwards, you run the RESTORE SYSTEM utility. Which statement is correct?
A. RESTORE SYSTEM does not do anything, because this SYSPITR value indicates a “noperation”.
B. The specified LRSN is an IBM internal SYSPITR value, reserved for serviceability only.
C. RESTORE SYSTEM fails because the SYSPITR value is outside the range of valid log points.
D. The whole DB2 data sharing group is recovered without log truncation.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
What is a benefit of using the in-memory work file in DB2 9?
A. Improves performance using TEMP database.
B. Avoids I/Os for the declared global temporary tables.
C. Improves performance for small sorts.
D. Sorts a large number of rows faster.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A user job runs a very long time without commit and then the application bends. The job pdated a critical table that is used by many applications. The back out is taking a long ime. Hichstatement describes the appropriate action to take?
A. Cancel the DB2 system since this is a critical resource that is needed by many applications.
B. Issue the -CANCEL THREAD(token) NOBACKOUT.
C. Let DB2 continue with the back out.
D. Restart the system using the LBACKOUT=AUTO system parameter.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
You are migrating your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to DB2 9. You have already used the userdefined RTS tables in version 8 and you are planning to also use RTS in version 9. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. DSNRTSDB is integrated into the DB2 9 catalog.
B. The existing the real-time statistics data is copied from your user-defined tables to catalogtables as part of the migration to CM.
C. You can safely drop your user-defined RTS database once you are in ENFM.
D. You should keep your user-defined RTS database until you have fully migrated to NFM.
E. Execute DDL in member DSNTESS in SDSNSAMP to create the RTS database.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
You are planning the migration of your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to version 9. Rebinding existing packages is highly recommended, but you are also worrying about potential problems that might occur with new access paths after rebind. Which action gives you the option to rebind packages with the ability to fall back to the original access path if performance problems are encountered?
A. Use REBIND PACKAGE option PLANMGMT(BASIC) or (EXTENDED). B. Use REBINDPACKAGE option REOPT(ONCE).
B. Use REBIND PACKAGE option OPTHINT.
C. Use REBIND PACKAGE option KEEPDYNAMIC(YES).

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem. What should be done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A. Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B. Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C. Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D. Increase the value of MAXDS.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A DB2 subsystem is being migrated/converted from DB2 Version 8 to DB2 9. The subsystem currently has these characteristics: new DB2 9 functions are not available; no DB2 9 objects can exist; the subsystem cannot fall-back to CM (conversion mode); the subsystem cannot fall-back to Version 8; the subsystem cannot coexist with any Version 8 systems in a data sharing group.
Which mode describes the DB2 subsystem?
A. CM* (conversion mode*)
B. ENFM (enabling-new-function mode)
C. ENFM* (enabling-new-function mode*)
D. NFM (new-function mode)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which two statements regarding system parameters are true? (Choose two.)
A. Indexes can now be mapped to 8K and 16K buffer pools assigned by default using the systemparameter IDXBPOOL.
B. Implicit table space data sets are always defined at create time without a system parameter tooverride this behavior.
C. Indexes can be compressed for an entire subsystem by setting the IDXCOMP systemparameter to YES.
D. The default for BIND option DBPROTOCOL can no longer be specified using the systemparameter DBPROTCL.
E. The amount of work file storage used by any one agent cannot be controlled via systemparameters.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16
Which two methods can be used to configure the use of a SSL secure port on a DB2 for z/OS server? (Choose two.)
A. Specify “Y” in the SECURE column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
B. Specify a secure port value in the PORT column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
C. Update the DDF statement in the BSDS using DSNJU003.
D. Specify the TCP/IP port number in the DRDA SECURE PORT field of the Distributed DataFacility Panel 2 (DSNTIP5).
E. Specify the value of the secure port in the DRDA PORT field of DSNTIP5.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 17
In a data sharing system, a system programmer observes very high page p-lock contention. Which two actions can they take to reduce this contention? (Choose two.)
A. Reduce row level locking for objects used in high volume transactions.
B. For table spaces defined with LOCKSIZE ANY, use ISOLATION(UR) for high volume querytransactions using these objects.
C. ALTER heavy used table spaces to use COMPRESS NO.
D. Ensure heavy used indexes are defined with COPY NO.
E. ALTER heavy used table spaces to use TRACKMOD NO.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 18
An accounting report shows high class 3 times. Which three could contribute to the class 3 times? (Choose three.)
A. elapsed time
B. not accounted time
C. page latch
D. service task switch
E. synchronous I/O

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 19
The DB2-supplied SQL Procedure Processor stored procedure DSNTPSMP requires which two for execution? (Choose two.)
A. DB2 for z/OS REXX Language Support
B. Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB=1
C. Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB > 1
D. Optimization Service Center
E. Java Virtual Machine

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
A customer has just migrated their DB2 system to V9 new function mode. They currently use the BACKUP SYSTEM utility and have optionally dumped the backup to tape. Which action should be performed to only use the system level backup that was taken to disk?
A. Run the DSNJU003 utility and modify the system point in time backup record to haveDUMPSTATE=NONE.
B. Use the BACKUPTYPE(DASD) keyword on the RESTORE SYSTEM utility.
C. Use the TAPEDUMP(NORECSYS) keyword on the BACKUP SYSTEM utility when the backupis taken.
D. Set the RESTORE_RECOVER_FROMDUMP system parameter to NO.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
A customer is performing a traditional image copy disaster recovery test. The systems programmer creates a conditional restart control record (CRCR) but detects an error before starting DB2. Which action should be performed to correct the CRCR record?
A. First use CRESTART,DELETE to delete the error CRCR record then CRESTART,CREATE toadd a new one.
B. Start DB2, reply “M” to the WTOR that is displayed from the first CRCR record to modify theCRCR parameters.
C. Use CRESTART,MODIFY to modify the parameters of the error CRCR record.
D. Use CRESTART,CREATE to create a new CRCR record.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which two statements are true regarding a traditional image copy disaster recovery in a data sharing environment? (Choose two )
A. All members defined to the data sharing group must be restarted at the disaster recovery site.
B. When using change log inventory (DSNJU003), the latest log record sequence number thatcan be used is the oldest last written log record of all members participating in the restart.
C. Only one conditional restart control record (CRCR) needs to be created for the data sharinggroup and all DB2 members will utilize this CRCR during restart.
D. SETXCF FORCE commands should be used to purge DB2 coupling facility structures prior tostaring the first DB2 member.
E. The catalog and directory must be recovered by first data sharing member brought up at thedisaster recovery site and all other members must not be started before this recovery isfinished.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 23
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN runs out of space. Which steps should be performed to resolve the situation?
A. 1) COPY DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set.4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space.5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.6) RECOVER DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
B. 1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set.4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space.5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.6) LOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
C. 1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.2) ALTER PRIQTY to a larger value.3) LOAD REPLACE DSNDB06.SYSCOPY.
D. 1) REORG UNLOAD SHRLEVEL REFERENCE DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set.4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space.5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.6) REORG RESUME DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Regarding SVC dumps for the DBM1 address space, what should be reviewed to determine the DB2 failing component?
A. the GRS summary
B. the LOGREC symptom string
C. the RMM Control Block Analysis
D. the RSM summary

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem. What should be done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A. Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B. Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C. Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D. Increase the value of MAXDS.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
A DASD controller error occurs which results in all of the active logs being marked as “STOPPED” by DB2. Which steps should be performed to resolve the log status after the controller error has been repaired?
A. 1) Stop DB2.2) Start DB2.
B. 1) Stop DB2.2) REPRO the archive logs to the corresponding active logs.3) Start DB2.
C. 1) Stop DB2.2) Use DSN1LOGP to make sure last log record written matches the information in the BSDS.3) Do a conditional restart specifying ENDRBA to the highest RBA in the log.
D. 1) Use the change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to delete the active logs from the BSDS.2) Use the change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to add the active logs back into the BSDS.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which statement is true regarding disaster recovery scenarios?
A. When using the RESTORE SYSTEM utility, each DB2 member must use the same SYSPITRvalue when creating conditional restart control records (CRCR).
B. When using an advanced disk mirroring solution, a conditional restart of DB2 must still beperformed at the disaster site.
C. With a synchronous peer to peer replication solution, a group restart is not required for a datasharing group since everything is synchronously mirrored.
D. A backup taken from the BACKUP SYSTEM utility cannot be used for object level recovery forthe catalog/directory during a disaster recovery scenario.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which two actions must be performed for a data sharing traditional image copy disaster recovery? (Choose two.)
A. Use STARTRBA=ENDRBA for the conditional restart control record.
B. Start DB2 using the LIGHT(YES) keyword.
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QUESTION 121
You are preparing an image for output to a press. Your document is in CMYK mode and has two spot color channels. You are saving the image in Photoshop DCS 2.0 (.EPS) format. Which encoding method would have an adverse impact on the print quality?
A. JPEG
B. ASCII
C. Binary
D. TIFF (1 bit/pixel)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
Which is an advantage of raster graphics over vector graphics?
A. They are scalable and resolution independent.
B. They are able to represent continuous-tone images.
C. You can apply image adjustments without degradation.
D. Filters can be repeatedly applied to them without degradation.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 123
You want to crop several images to be the same size and resolution. What should you do?
A. use the Marquee tool at a fixed size, then use the Crop command
B. use the Crop tool and specify the size and resolution in the Options bar
C. specify the width and height in the Canvas Size dialog box before opening each image.
D. Specify the size and resolution in the image Size dialog box before opening each image

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 124
You want to set the Black Point of an RGB image to a specific tonal value. What should you do?
A. in Curves, click on the Auto button
B. in Levels, change the Input Level black point to the desired value
C. in Curves, activate the black point and enter the value into the input section
D. in Levels, click on the Options button and set the Shadows Clip to the desired value

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 125
You are editing an image of a yellow lemon in a blue bowl. You want to change the color of the lemon to
green without changing the color of the blue bowl. You click the New Adjustment Layer button, and choose
Hue/Saturation.
What should you do?

A. select Yellows from the Edit pop-up menu, and adjust the Hue
B. select Blues from the Edit pop-up menu, and adjust the Lightness
C. select Blues form the Edit pop-up menu, then adjust the Saturation
D. select Yellows from the Edit pop-up menu and adjust the Saturation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 126
Exhibit.

Which statement is true about the image that produced the histogram shown in the exhibit?
A. The shadows are lipped.
B. The highlights are clipped.
C. There is a large amount of midtone detail.
D. There are many specular highlights in the image.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 127
Exhibit.

What effect will the curves adjustment shown in the exhibit have on an image?
A. inverts the entire image
B. increases contrast and inverts the light areas
C. decreases contrast and inverts the dark areas
D. darkens the mdtones and brightens the highlights

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 128
You want to convert an RGB image into a duotone and save if for printing from a page layout application. What should you do?
A. choose Image>Mode>Duotone and save the image in EPS format
B. choose Image>Mode>Duotone and save the image as a multi-channel DCS file
C. choose Image>Mode>Grayscale; then choose Image>Mode>Duotone and save the image in EPS format
D. choose Image>Mode>Grayscale; then choose Image>Mode>Duotone and save the image in TIFF format

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 129
What is the purpose of the Transfer button in the Print with Preview dialog box?
A. It allows you to transfer the file to the print buffer.
B. It allows you to apply a curve to the output image.
C. It allows you to target an alternate printing device.
D. It allows you to transfer the print file to scratch disk.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 130
You are working with a duotone document. Which has an impact on the appearance of the image when printed?
A. the number of layers in the file
B. the order in which the colors are printed
C. the preview option selected in the Save As DCS 2.0 dialog box.
D. Whether or not bleed is specified in the Output menu of the Print with Preview dialog box

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 131
You are printing to a desktop inkjet printer. When should you choose the command File>Print with Preview?
A. when you want to arbitrarily rotate the printed image
B. when you want to print several copies of the image on one sheet of paper
C. when you want to adjust the scaling and position of the image on the printed page
D. when you want to see on your monitor the appearance of your image if printed to different devices

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 132
You are printing a 72 ppi image and choose to scale the image to 50% in the Print dialog box. To which resolution will the image be printed.
A. 36 ppi
B. 72 ppi
C. 144 ppi
D. 360 ppi

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 133
You want to repair an image with a large, irregular stain. What should you do?
A. select a large brush and paint in Overlay mode
B. select an undamaged area and drag it over the stain
C. select a large brush and remove the stain by using the Clone Stamp tool
D. select the stain by using the Patch tool and drag it over an undamaged area

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 134
You want to distort a layer in your document by using the Liquify command. You also want to apply the
identical distortion to another layer in the document.
What should you do?

A. in the Liquify dialog box, check Backdrop and select the other layer to be distorted at 100% opacity.
B. choose Filter>Liquify and apply a distortion to the first Layer; select the other layer and use the History Brush tool to paint the distortion form the previous step
C. choose Filter>Liquify and apply a distortion to the first Layer; select the other layer and press Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) + F to apply the same Liquify filter distortion
D. choose Filter>Liquify and create the distortion; then click save Mesh in the liquify dialog box; select the other layer, choose Filter>Liquify; then click load Mesh choosing the saved mesh file

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
You want to repair an area of an image by using another area of the image as a patch. You select the
Patch tool.
Which two tasks should you complete? (Choose two.)

A. select Source in the options bar
B. select Destination in the options bar
C. create a selection of the area from which to sample, then click Use Pattern in the options bar
D. crate a selection around the area you want to repair; then drag the marquee to the area from which sample

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 136
You scan an image and do NOT select any image sharpening options in your scanner software. You notice
the appearance of a lot of film grain in the image. You want to sharpen the image without increasing the
apparent graininess of the image.
Which Unsharp Mask option should you use?

A. Amount
B. Radius
C. Threshold
D. Smoothness
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 137
Which filter should you use to remove tiny spots from an image while leaving the rest of the image intact?
A. Median
B. High Pass
C. Smart Blur
D. Dust & Scratches
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 138
Why should you crate a Layer Mask?
A. to hide the content of layers linked with the masked layer
B. to select the content of layers linked with the masked layer
C. to hide the content of layers grouped with the masked layer
D. to select the content of layers grouped with the masked layer

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 139
Why should you use an Alpha channel while saving an image as a JPEG by using the Save for Web dialog box?
A. to make areas of the image transparent
B. to control color reduction in certain areas of the image
C. to apply varying quality settings to certain areas of the image
D. to control the amount of dithering in certain areas of the image

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 140
You want to edit a selection by using a Quick Mask. What should you do?
A. enter Quick Mask mode; load a selection, and edit
B. enter Quick Mask mode; make a selection, and edit
C. make a selection, enter Quick Mask mode, and edit
D. make a selection; double-click the Quick Mask icon, and edit

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 141
When should you add a spot color channel to a document?
A. when you need to add varying transparency to an document
B. when you need to adjust the dot gain as the document is printed
C. when you need to reduce saturation in isolated areas of the document
D. when the document will be printed with a metallic ink in addition to CMYK

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 142
You have previously saved a selection as an Alpha channel. You now want to load that channel as a
selection by using the Channels palette.
What should you do?

A. click on the Alpha channel by using a selection tool
B. Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) click on the Alpha channel
C. Ctrl (Windows) or command (Mac OS) click on the Alpha channel
D. choose Load Channel as Selection from the Channels palette menu

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 143
Which is an advantage of weighted optimization?
A. It allows you to use a mask to control levels of transparency.
B. It gives you the option to apply a custom color table to an image.
C. It allows you to use a mask to control the dithering across an image.
D. It offers a way to apply different levels of compression to multiple slices.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 144
You want to link an area of an image to a URL. Which tool should you select?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
You have created a simple graphic with flat color and type that will be used on a Web site. Which file format should you use to save the document?
A. TIF
B. GIF
C. EPS
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 146
Which two functions are ONLY available in ImageReady? (Choose two.)
A. combine slices
B. layer-based slicing
C. preview in a browser
D. weighted optimization
E. layer based rollovers
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 147
When should you use a layer-based slice?
A. when you need to divide a slice
B. when you need to combine a slice
C. when you need to edit the content of the layer
D. when you need to edit with the Slice Select tool
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 148
Exhibit.

Which optimization option allows verifying quality in different parts of a single JPEG file?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 149
You want to create type that automatically wraps in orderto fit within a specified area. What should you do?
A. drag diagonally with the Type tool to create a bounding box for the type
B. click the begin typing with the Type tool, the text will wrap at the edges of the document
C. create a shape layer, then click with the Type tool anywhere along the perimeter of the shape
D. create a shape layer, then click with the Type tool anywhere within the perimeter of the shape

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 150
You have an active layer that contains horizontal type. You want to convert the type to vertical type. What should you do?
A. choose Edit>Transform>Rotate 90o CW
B. choose Rotate Character from the Character drop down menu
C. highlight the text and click on the Vertical Type tool in the toolbox
D. select the Type tool and click on the Text Orientation button in the Options bar

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 151
Exhibit.

Which option controls kerning in text?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 152
When should you use the Adobe Single-line Composer?
A. when you want manual control over the line breaks
B. when you want to avoid hyphenation where possible
C. when you want the breakpoints to be selected based on a range of lines
D. when you want to give the highest priority to the evenness of letter and word spacing

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 153
What should you do to check the spelling in a Photoshop document?
A. choose Edit>Check Spelling
B. choose Layer>Type>Check Spelling
C. choose Check Spelling in the Layers palette menu
D. choose Check Spelling in the Paragraph palette menu

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 154
The letters in a line of type are too close together. Which two options in the Character palette create more space between the letters? (Choose two.)
A. leading
B. kerning
C. tracking
D. ligatures
E. baseline shift
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 121
Which type of output requires the use of a structured document?
A. PDF
B. HTML
C. valid XML
D. well-formed XML

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 122
You have created a document with a 2-column layout. What happens to the layout when you choose File > Save and select HTML for Save as type?
A. The layout is maintained.
B. There is a single column of text.
C. An HTML table is created to simulate the layout.
D. HTML frames are created to simulate the layout.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 123
In structured FrameMaker, where do you define structural and styling rules?
A. EDD
B. Attributes Editor
C. Element Catalog
D. FrameMaker Template

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 124
You want the entries in your Table of Contents to include the autonumber, paragraph text and page number for the selected paragraphs. Where do you designate the information to include for each paragraph included in the Table of Contents?
A. master page
B. reference page
C. Paragraph Designer
D. Set Up Table of Contents dialog box

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 125
You are determining the appropriate settings for your document. Some pages will need two-column text frames, and others will need a single-column text frame. How can you control the number of columns on any given page?
A. create two text flows
B. set up two types of master pages
C. create two types of paragraph tags
D. set up column options in the book file

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 126
Which structured FrameMaker application pieces must be structured FrameMaker documents themselves?
A. DTD
B. read/write rules
C. XML or SGML instance
D. application definition file

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 127
A structured application can reference one or more document types. In which location can these document types be named?
A. at the end of the EDD
B. in the SGML declaration file
C. at the beginning of the read/write rules file
D. in the doctype declaration in the markup or the DTD

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 128
When is an FDK client required?
A. when you want to add a command to a FrameMaker menu
B. when you want to be able to specify table structure by columns instead of rows
C. when you want cross-references to automatically convert to hypertext upon export to PDF or HTML
D. when you want to map a structured FrameMaker element to an SGML or XML element of a different name

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 129
By default, with no additional files or editing of existing files, which location is used when FrameMaker needs a file associated with the processing of a structured FrameMaker document?
A. in the same directory as the FrameMaker program
B. in the same directory as the document that is being processed
C. a directory named “sgml” in the FrameMaker installation directory
D. in the directory named “structure” located in the FrameMaker installation directory

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
How are the EDD’s element definitions copied into your structured template?
A. In the EDD, from the File menu, choose Export > Element Definitions.
B. In the structured template, from the File menu, choose Import > Formats.
C. In the structured template, from the File menu, choose Import > Element Definitions.
D. In the structured template, from the File menu, choose Developer Tools >Import Element Definitions.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 131
You are creating an outline that will use autonumbering. The 1st Level paragraphs will be numbered 1.0,
2.0, 3.0 etc. The 2nd Level paragraphs will be numbered 1.1, 1.2, 1.3,
2.1, 2.2, 2.3, etc. Which autonumber format should you use for the 2nd Level paragraph tag?

A. <n>.<n+>
B. < >.<n+>
C. <n+>.<n>
D. <n+>.<n+>
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 132
Which three can be set with the Character Designer? (Choose three.)
A. color
B. indents
C. pair kern
D. alignment
E. font family
F. hyphenation
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 133
You are creating a template for other people to use when generating a table of contents. You want the users of this template to be able to include the autonumbers of their H1, H2, and H3 headings. What should you do in the TOC?
A. add the building block <$paranum> on the TOC reference page for the H1, H2, and H3 headings
B. add the building block <$autonum> on the TOC reference page for the H1, H2, and H3 headings
C. in the Paragraph Designer, set up paragraph formats for H1, H2, and H3 that include autonumbers
D. in the Paragraph Designer, set up paragraph formats for H1TOC, H2TOC, H3TOC that include autonumbers

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 134
When creating a master page, which type of frame should you use so that you can type in the frame on the body pages?
A. Graphic Frame
B. Reference Frame
C. Template Text Frame
D. Background Text Frame

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 135
You want to associate a master page with a specific paragraph tag. What should you do?
A. modify the master page mapping table on the master page
B. modify the master page mapping table on the reference page
C. designate the master page in the Pagination tab of the Paragraph Designer
D. in the paragraph, insert a master page mapping marker with the master page name

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 136
You want to create a new table format that can be reused in a document. What should you do?
A. click in an existing table, change the properties, and choose Update All
B. click in an existing table, change the properties, and choose Commands>New Format
C. click anywhere in your document, then choose Commands>New Format from the Table Designer
D. click anywhere in your document, then type the name of the new format in the Table Tag field and choose Apply from the Table Designer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 137
Your layout contains side heads. You want Heading1 to span the entire width of the page. Which format should you choose for pagination?
A. side head
B. run-in head
C. across all columns
D. across all columns and side heads

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 138
You want to create a cross-reference format. The source of the cross-reference will be a paragraph tag
called Figure. Figure uses autonumbering which is defined as:
Figure <n+>:\\sn
You want the cross-reference text to read:
See Figure 1 on page 10.
Which cross-reference format should use you?

A. See <$paranum> on page <$pagenum>.
B. See <$paranumonly> on page <$pagenum>.
C. See Figure <$paranum> on page <$pagenum>.
D. See Figure <$paranumonly> on page <$pagenum>.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 139 2+
A. page layouts
B. character formats
C. paragraph formats
D. variable definitions

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the BEST approach to perform risk mitigation of user access control rights?
A. Conduct surveys and rank the results.
B. Perform routine user permission reviews.
C. Implement periodic vulnerability scanning.
D. Disable user accounts that have not been used within the last two weeks.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following devices is BEST suited for servers that need to store private keys?
A. Hardware security module
B. Hardened network firewall
C. Solid state disk drive
D. Hardened host firewall

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
All of the following are valid cryptographic hash functions EXCEPT:
A. RIPEMD.
B. RC4.
C. SHA-512.
D. MD4.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
In regards to secure coding practices, why is input validation important?
A. It mitigates buffer overflow attacks.
B. It makes the code more readable.
C. It provides an application configuration baseline.
D. It meets gray box testing standards.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Which of the following would be used when a higher level of security is desired for encryption key storage?
A. TACACS+
B. L2TP
C. LDAP
D. TPM
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
A security administrator needs to determine which system a particular user is trying to login to at various times of the day. Which of the following log types would the administrator check?
A. Firewall
B. Application
C. IDS
D. Security

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which of the following MUST be updated immediately when an employee is terminated to prevent unauthorized access?
A. Registration
B. CA
C. CRL
D. Recovery agent
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Employee badges are encoded with a private encryption key and specific personal information. The encoding is then used to provide access to the network. Which of the following describes this access control type?
A. Smartcard
B. Token
C. Discretionary access control
D. Mandatory access control
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which of the following devices would MOST likely have a DMZ interface?
A. Firewall
B. Switch
C. Load balancer
D. Proxy
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which of the following application security testing techniques is implemented when an automated system generates random input data?
A. Fuzzing
B. XSRF
C. Hardening
D. Input validation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which of the following can be used by a security administrator to successfully recover a user’s forgotten password on a password protected file?
A. Cognitive password
B. Password sniffing
C. Brute force
D. Social engineering
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
A security administrator wants to check user password complexity. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use?
A. Password history
B. Password logging
C. Password cracker
D. Password hashing

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Certificates are used for: (Select TWO).
A. Client authentication.
B. WEP encryption.
C. Access control lists.
D. Code signing.
E. Password hashing.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 14
Which of the following is a hardware based encryption device?
A. EFS
B. TrueCrypt
C. TPM
D. SLE

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Which of the following BEST describes a protective countermeasure for SQL injection?
A. Eliminating cross-site scripting vulnerabilities
B. Installing an IDS to monitor network traffic
C. Validating user input in web applications
D. Placing a firewall between the Internet and database servers

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Which of the following MOST interferes with network-based detection techniques?
A. Mime-encoding
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. Anonymous email accounts

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
A certificate authority takes which of the following actions in PKI?
A. Signs and verifies all infrastructure messages
B. Issues and signs all private keys
C. Publishes key escrow lists to CRLs
D. Issues and signs all root certificates

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
Use of a smart card to authenticate remote servers remains MOST susceptible to which of the following attacks?
A. Malicious code on the local system
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Brute force certificate cracking
D. Distributed dictionary attacks

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
Separation of duties is often implemented between developers and administrators in order to separate which of the following?
A. More experienced employees from less experienced employees
B. Changes to program code and the ability to deploy to production
C. Upper level management users from standard development employees
D. The network access layer from the application access layer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
A security administrator needs to update the OS on all the switches in the company. Which of the following MUST be done before any actual switch configuration is performed?
A. The request needs to be sent to the incident management team.
B. The request needs to be approved through the incident management process.
C. The request needs to be approved through the change management process.
D. The request needs to be sent to the change management team.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
Jane, an individual, has recently been calling various financial offices pretending to be another person to gain financial information. Which of the following attacks is being described?
A. Phishing
B. Tailgating
C. Pharming
D. Vishing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
A user in the company is in charge of various financial roles but needs to prepare for an upcoming audit. They use the same account to access each financial system. Which of the following security controls will MOST likely be implemented within the company?
A. Account lockout policy
B. Account password enforcement
C. Password complexity enabled
D. Separation of duties

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
A CRL is comprised oF.
A. Malicious IP addresses.
B. Trusted CA’s.
C. Untrusted private keys.
D. Public keys.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Sara, a user, downloads a keygen to install pirated software. After running the keygen, system performance is extremely slow and numerous antivirus alerts are displayed. Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware?
A. Logic bomb
B. Worm
C. Trojan
D. Adware
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which of the following may significantly reduce data loss if multiple drives fail at the same time?
A. Virtualization
B. RAID
C. Load balancing
D. Server clustering
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
To help prevent unauthorized access to PCs, a security administrator implements screen savers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity. Which of the following controls is being described in this situation?
A. Management
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Operational
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Pete, a network administrator, is capturing packets on the network and notices that a large amount of the traffic on the LAN is SIP and RTP protocols. Which of the following should he do to segment that traffic from the other traffic?
A. Connect the WAP to a different switch.
B. Create a voice VLAN.
C. Create a DMZ.
D. Set the switch ports to 802.1q mode.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Which of the following IP addresses would be hosts on the same subnet given the subnet mask 255.255.255.224? (Select TWO).
A. 10.4.4.125
B. 10.4.4.158
C. 10.4.4.165
D. 10.4.4.189
E. 10.4.4.199
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 30
Which of the following algorithms has well documented collisions? (Select TWO).
A. AES
B. MD5
C. SHA
D. SHA-256
E. RSA
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is BEST used as a secure replacement for TELNET?
A. HTTPS
B. HMAC
C. GPG
D. SSH
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
An email client says a digital signature is invalid and the sender cannot be verified. The recipient is concerned with which of the following concepts?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Confidentiality
D. Remediation
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
Which of the following is an effective way to ensure the BEST temperature for all equipment within a datacenter?
A. Fire suppression
B. Raised floor implementation
C. EMI shielding
D. Hot or cool aisle containment

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
Which of the following transportation encryption protocols should be used to ensure maximum security between a web browser and a web server?
A. SSLv2
B. SSHv1
C. RSA
D. TLS

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
Developers currently have access to update production servers without going through an approval process. Which of the following strategies would BEST mitigate this risk?
A. Incident management
B. Clean desk policy
C. Routine audits
D. Change management

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 36
Which of the following is a difference between TFTP and FTP?
A. TFTP is slower than FTP.
B. TFTP is more secure than FTP.
C. TFTP utilizes TCP and FTP uses UDP.
D. TFTP utilizes UDP and FTP uses TCP.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 37
Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
Which of the following is characterized by an attacker attempting to map out an organization’s staff hierarchy in order to send targeted emails?
A. Whaling
B. Impersonation
C. Privilege escalation
D. Spear phishing

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to discover comprehensive security threats on a network?
A. Design reviews
B. Baseline reporting
C. Vulnerability scan
D. Code review

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40
Which of the following is an example of a false positive?
A. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
B. A biometric iris scanner rejects an authorized user wearing a new contact lens.
C. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
D. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41

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QUESTION 61
What is the MAXIMUM number of users you can import at one time, using the Import command in Workgroup Manager?
A. 2,000
B. 3,000
C. 10,000
D. 20,000
E. 99,999

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
What is one reason to prefer an AFP share point over an NFS share point for storing home directories?
A. NFS volumes must be mounted manually.
B. AFP volumes are easier to search than NFS volumes.
C. AFP provides user-level authentication access security.
D. NFS share points do not support group-level Read and Write permissions.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You manage the Dock position for user Sarah so it appears on the left of her screen. You manage the Dock position for the workgroup, Arts, of which Sarah is a member, so that the Dock appears on the right side of members’ screens. Where does the Dock appear when Sarah logs in as a member of the Arts workgroup?
A. left side of the screen
B. right side of the screen
C. When there is a conflict between user and workgroup preferences, the default value of the preference is used. The default Dock position is at the bottom of the screen.
D. If you are managing the Dock position for the computer list account in which the Arts workgroup is a member, the Dock position will be the same as the one defined for the computer list. If you are not managing the Dock position for the computer list, the Dock appears on the right.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
What is the MAXIMUM number of computers you can import into a computer list?
A. 3,000
B. 2,000
C. 700
D. 99
E. 10

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
Which authentication mechanisms does mail service in Mac OS X Server support? (Choose all that apply.)
A. LAN
B. ASIP
C. APOP
D. Kerberos
E. CRAM-MD5
F. NT-Authentication

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 66
WebMail________.(Choose THREE.)
A. is a POP client
B. is an IMAP client
C. is based on SquirrelMail
D. does not have its own SMTP server
E. is configured in the Mail services settings in Server Admin
F. is used to administer the mail service in Mac OS X Server v10.3

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 67
Which TWO tactics will reduce the overall disk space required by mail service in Mac OS X Server v10.3? (Choose TWO.)
A. Adding a mail alias.
B. Encrypting the mail store hourly.
C. Setting a mail message size limit.
D. Setting a mail quota to limit the amount of mail stored for each user account.
E. Setting an alternate mail store location on a striped and mirrored RAID partition.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 68
When configuring user’s mail accounts in Workgroup Manager, what information can you provide for each user? (Choose all that apply.)
A. mail access protocol (POP, IMAP, or both)
B. mail workgroup name
C. mail server address
D. mail quota size
E. mail filter type
F. mail list
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 69
Which utility lets you test Mailbox Exchange records to confirm they are correctly configured and functioning properly?
A. Server Admin
B. Server Monitor
C. Network Utility
D. Activity Monitor
E. Workgroup Manager

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 70
Which statement is true of mailing lists?
A. Mailing lists are a feature of WebMail.
B. You can administer mailing lists remotely by email.
C. You can use Workgroup Manager to create mailing lists.
D. Mailing list subscribers must have local accounts on the server.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 71
Using Server Admin in Mac OS X Server v10.3, which three options can you configure for FTP services? (Choose THREE.)
A. Enable anonymous access.
B. Enable MacBinary and disk image auto-conversion.
C. Specify a maximum number of authenticated users.
D. Specify a maximum number of downloadable files per sessions.
E. Enable Challenge-Response Authentication Mechanism-MD5 (CRAM-MD5).

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 72
Using Server Admin, which browsing protocols can you enable for Apple File Service? (Choose all that apply.)
A. NFS
B. SMB
C. Apple Talk
D. Redezvous
E. Open Directory

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 73
You are creating an SMB share point on a server with Mac OS X Server v10.3. Users on client computers will create files and folders on the share point. Which statements are true of newly created files and folders? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You can assign permissions on shared files.
B. Shared files’ permissions are defined by the umask.
C. You can set shared files to inherit permissions from the parent folder.
D. Owner and Group always get Read & Write permissions to shared files.
E. The permissions you set for files and folders only apply to Mac OS X client computers.
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 74
Which three user actions can be logged and monitored in Apple File Service? (Choose THREE.)
A. file creation
B. file deletion
C. folder creation
D. CPU utilization
E. ownership changes
F. permissions changes

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 75
You are offering FTP services over the Internet to users who may be behind a firewall. You should advise users to enable passive FTP if they are behind a firewall that ________.
A. requires SFTP
B. has FTP tunneling disabled
C. does not allow FTP connections
D. does not allow all FTP connection modes

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
By default, FTP service in Mac OS X Server v10.3 can ____________ files on the fly, at the time the files are requested. (Choose all that apply.)
A. install
B. encode
C. archive
D. encrypt
E. compress
F. unencrypt
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 77
When you configure NFS export settings for a share point, selecting “Map All users to nobody” _________.
A. prevents export of any items or contents to any users
B. tell the NFS server to treat every user the same: as nobody
C. tells the NFS server to trust what the client reports for user identification
D. creates a shared user list of valid IP addresses to communicate with via NFS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
Using the Windows service in Server Admin, Mac OS X Server v10.3 can be configured to __________.
(Choose all that apply.)
A. allow Guest access
B. reshare NFS volumes
C. be an Active Directory server
D. be a Primary Domain Controller
E. be a member of a Windows workgroup

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 79
In Mac OS X Server v10.3, you should enable strict locking when you are sharing a volume over ________.
A. FTP only
B. AFP only
C. SMB only
D. AFT and FTP
E. AFP and SMB

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 80
Network users often have multiple passwords, a distinct password for each network service they access. Which is NOT a valid way to simplify this situation for users in Mac OS X v10.3?
A. Set up a Kerberos environment on the network.
B. Have users store their login information for different servers in Keychain.
C. Set up a directory service to make user and password information available to all computers.
D. Have users access network servers without authenticating, using the Network icon in the Finder-rather than using the Connect Server command, which requires users to authenticate.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81
Which is an appropriate FIRST step when performing a software update on multiple computers that have Mac OS X v10.3?
A. Restart each computer in single-user mode.
B. On one computer, choose Download Checked items from the update menu in Software update.
C. On one computer, choose copy update to multiple computers from the update menu in software update.
D. Copy the Software Update preferences from a computer on which the update has been installed to all the other computers.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
You are in a Terminal window, and your current directory is your home directory. What could you type to display the contents of the file named my file? Which resides in your home directory?
A. cat My File
B. cat /Myfile
C. cat~MyFile
D. cat./MyFile
E. cat ~/MyFile

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 83
Which statements are true about Open Directory? Choose all that apply
A. Open Directory is extensible via plug-ins.
B. Open Directory runs on Mac OS X Server only.
C. Open Directory does NOT provide load balancing.
D. You manage Open Directory using Open Directory Assisyant.
E. An Open Directory server can function as a windows Primary Domain Controller.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 84
What does the Console utility do?
A. Displays log files
B. Controls monitor setup.
C. Enables the root user to access hidden files.
D. Allows any user to access the command line
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 66
What tool is necessary to keep your Apple software and Jaguar up to date?
A. System Preferences
B. Disk Copy
C. Disk Utility
D. Software Update
E. Apple Update

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 67
What is the maximum number of computers you can assign to your master computer account list in Workgroup Manager?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 1000
E. 2000
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 68
In order to enable Apple file service you must have the following software? Choose all that apply.
A. Mac OS X v.10.2
B. NetBoot
C. Windows File Server
D. AppleShare 3.0 or later
E. AppleShare 3.7 or later
F. TCP/IP connectivity
G. AppleTalk

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 69
With Jaguar Server, how do you restart a print queue that has been put on hold?
A. In Server Settings, choose the File & Print tab, then click Print and select Show Print Monitor, pick the queue you need to change and click Release
B. In Server Settings, choose the File & Print tab, then select Show Print Monitor, pick the queue you need to change and click Restart
C. In Printer Settings, choose the File & Print tab, then click Print and select Show Print Monitor, pick the queue you need to change and click Restart
D. In Server Settings, choose the File & Print tab, then click Print and select Show Print Monitor and click Restart
E. In Print Center, choose the File & Print tab, then click Print and select Show Print Monitor, pick the queue you need to change and click Restart

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
What is the default maximum size for incoming mail messages with Jaguar Server?
A. 1MB
B. 2MB
C. 5MB
D. 10MB
E. 20MB
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Which Server tool do you need to import user lists?
A. Workgroup Manager
B. Macintosh Manager
C. Server Settings
D. Users
E. Account Controls
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
In the Finder, what are the two ways to use the Find tool?
A. File/Find
B. Edit/Find
C. Tools/Find
D. Command + I
E. Command + F

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 73
Darwin, the core of Mac OS X v.10.2, is based on what?
A. UNIX
B. BSD version of UNIX
C. Linux
D. Mac OS 7.1
E. Mac OS 9.0

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
When applications are designed to work in both Mac OS X and Mac OS 9.2 and earlier and allows program developers to make a program written for older versions of Mac OS without starting over from scratch but still allowing the application to take full advantage of the Jaguar environment, it is called:
A. Carbon
B. Classic
C. Cocoa
D. Java
E. Dual

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
What is the default application set to open files with an .rtf extension?
A. Preview
B. SimpleText
C. TextEdit
D. Word
E. Finder
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
How do you get rid of the preview pane in Jaguar’s Mail?
A. Go to Edit/Hide Preview Pane
B. Go to View/Hide Preview Pane
C. Go to Format/Hide Preview Pane
D. On the Toolbar, uncheck the checkbox next to Preview Pane
E. You can’t hide the Preview Pane
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 77
Darwin, the core of Mac OS X v.10.2, is based on what?
A. UNIX
B. BSD version of UNIX
C. Linux
D. Mac OS 7.1
E. Mac OS 9.0

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
What is the recommended resolution for Monitor displays and web pages?
A. 64 pixels/inch
B. 72 pixels/inch
C. 100 pixels/inch
D. 150 pixels/inch
E. 300 pixels/inch

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
What is the code name for the Mac OS X v.10.2 GUI?
A. Jaguar
B. Panther
C. Darwin
D. Aqua
E. iDisplay

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
How can you save a document as a PDF in Jaguar?
A. File/Save as then select PDF
B. File/Format
C. File/Print
D. File/Print then Save as PDF
E. File/Open as PDF
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 81
What is the name of the instant messaging tool introduced with Mac OS X v.10.2?
A. Rendezvous
B. iAIM
C. iSpeak
D. iChat
E. iMeeting

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
What application included with Mac OS X Server v.10.2 is designed to control limited administrative authority and permissions to other Macintoshs without giving up complete security access?
A. NetBoot
B. Apple File Services
C. Macintosh Management Server
D. Macintosh Manager
E. Workgroup Manager

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
In Server Settings, where do you need to be to assign a workgroup name to a Windows server?
A. Sharing/Windows/General
B. Sharing/Windows/Configure Windows Services/General
C. Access/Windows/Configure Windows Services
D. Access/Windows/Configure Windows Services/General
E. File & Print/Windows/Configure Windows Services/General

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 84
Which protocol will you need to turn on for Unix clients on a network with a Jaguar Server?
A. AFP
B. AppleTalk
C. SMB
D. FTP
E. NFS

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 85
Where in Server Settings can you change the maximum size of incoming mail messages?
A. Internet tab, then Configure Mail Service, then select the Messages tab
B. Internet tab, then Configure Mail Service, then select the Size tab
C. Internet tab, then click Mail Service and then Configure Mail Service, then select the Messages tab
D. Mail tab, then Configure Mail Service, then select the Messages tab
E. Mail tab, then Configure Mail Service, then select the Size tab
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 86
What tool can you use to store all a user’s logins and passwords, for web sites, applications and servers?
A. Login
B. Master Login
C. Library
D. Keychain
E. Safe Login
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
The technology used to accelerate graphics in Jaguar is called:
A. Aqua
B. Darwin
C. Open GL D. Quartz
E. QuickTime

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
How do you install a USB printer to a Jaguar run Mac?
A. Just plug the printer in
B. System Preferences/Printers
C. System Preferences/Install New Peripherals
D. Print Center/Add Printer/USB
E. Print Center/Add Printer/Local

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 89
Where do you control Windows File Sharing in Jaguar?
A. NetInfo Manager
B. Finder/Connect to Server
C. Apple Menu/Windows File Sharing
D. System Preferences/Sharing
E. Applications/Sharing

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
What do you call a file that is hidden from the regular system and application software, that is used by NetBoot to write system-related information while a workstation is working from a server based disk image?
A. NetBoot image
B. Disk image
C. System image
D. Shadow image
E. Server image

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
What is the protocol that extends http to file management and provide collaboration on remote Web Servers?
A. SMB
B. WebDAV
C. AFP
D. LDAP
E. TCP/IP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
What is the default folder for background and desktop pictures in Mac OS X v.10.2?
A. Library/Backgrounds
B. Library/Display
C. Library/Desktop Pictures
D. Resources/Backgrounds
E. Resources/Desktop Pictures

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 93
Where can a user store items locally so that they can be used by all other users on that workstation?
A. Shared
B. Public
C. Home folder/Public
D. Home folder/Outbox
E. Home folder/Shared

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
What connectivity technology has the following advantages: self-powered, hot-swappable and very high speeds?
A. SCSI
B. USB
C. Serial
D. FireWire
E. ADC

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
How can you start the Classic Environment in Mac OS X v.10.2? Choose the two correct answers.
A. Double-click a Classic Application
B. Click “Open Classic” on the Apple Menu
C. Click “Start Classic” on the Apple Menu
D. Go to System Preferences and under the Classic tab click “Start Classic”
E. Double-click on the “Start Classic” icon in the Applications folder

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 96
As the administrator of an OS X network, you will have occasions where users will lose or forget their passwords. Assuming you don’t have a master password list, what are the three ways you can reset their passwords?
A. Login to the “Passwords” application and reset it
B. Using the sudo command in Terminal, reset the user password
C. Log in with an administrator account, go to the Users tab in System Preferences and reset it
D. Log in with an administrator account, go to the Passwords tab in System Preferences and reset it
E. Log in with another user account to and go to that user’s Shared file and reset it
F. Boot to the Mac OS X v.10.2 CDRom, go to install and then click on “Reset Password”
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 97
Where do you go in System Preferences to control the Date, Time and Numbers formats?
A. Calendar
B. Date & Time
C. General
D. Universal Access
E. International

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 98
The act of the operating system controlling the processes that the processor is running is called:
A. Protected memory
B. Advanced multitasking
C. Preemptive multitasking
D. Protected multitasking
E. Preemptive memory

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 99
The new technology released with Mac OS X v.10.2 that enables all Macs and devices such printers with the proper support on the network to configure a network connection automatically is referred to as:
A. Sharing
B. AppleTalk
C. Network
D. Rendezvous
E. iShare

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
When creating new user accounts in Mac OS X v.10.2, you can give each user a unique picture that will appear next to his or her name on the login screen. Where are the users icons kept?
A. User folder/Shared
B. Home folder/Shared
C. Application/User Pictures
D. Library/User Icons
E. Library/User Pictures
F. Library/Desktop Pictures/User Pictures
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 101
Where do you go to turn on Speakable items in Mac OS X v.10.2?
A. Applications/Speakable Items
B. Applications/Speech
C. Apple Menu/Speakable Items
D. System Preferences/Speakable Items
E. System Preferences/Speech
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 102
The new technology installed with Jaguar that allows you to write directly on a graphics tablet and have Jaguar automatically turn it to text, is called?
A. TextEdit
B. InkWell
C. WriteWell
D. SimpleText
E. InkWriter

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
How can you use the Dock to force an application to quit? Choose two.
A. Right click on the application and choose Force Quit
B. Hold down the button on the offending application and select Quit
C. Hold down ctrl + once on the offending application’s icon and select Quit
D. Drag the icon from the Dock
E. Right click on an empty space on the Dock and choose Force Quit Menu
F. Click the Finder icon and choose Force Quit Menu

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 104
Where do you control Windows File Sharing in Jaguar?
A. NetInfo Manager
B. Finder/Connect to Server
C. Apple Menu/Windows File Sharing
D. System Preferences/Sharing
E. Applications/Sharing
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 105
Where can a user store items locally so that they can be used by all other users on that workstation?
A. Shared
B. Public
C. Home folder/Public
D. Home folder/Outbox
E. Home folder/Shared
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 106
Jack’s project is to define the backup and restore section of his organization’s disaster recovery plan for his organization’s distributed NGX installation. Jack must meet the following required and desired objectives:
Required Objective. The security policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24 hours.
Desired Objective: The NGX components that enforce the Security Policies should be backed up no less frequently than once a week.
Desired Objective: Back up NGX logs no less frequently than once a week. Administrators should be able to view backed up logs in SmartView Tracker.
Jack’s disaster recovery plan is as follows: Use the cron utility to run the upgrade_export command each night on the SmartCenter Servers. Configure the organization’s routine backup software to back up the files created by the upgrade_export command.
Configure the SecurePlatform backup utility to back up the Security Gateways every Saturday night.
Use the cron utility to run the upgrade_export command each Saturday night on the Log Servers. Configure an automatic. nightly logexport. Configure the organization’s routine backup software to back up the exported logs every night.
Jack’s plan:
A. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective
B. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives
C. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective
D. Does not meet the required objective

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
Thomas is the Security Administrator for an online bookstore. Customers connect to a variety of Web servers to place orders, change orders, and check the status of their orders. Thomas checked every box in the Web Intelligence tab, and installed the Security Policy. He ran penetration test through the Security Gateway, to determine if the Web servers were protected from cross-site scripting attacks. The penetration testing indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable. Which of the following might correct the problem?
A. The penetration software Thomas is using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false-positive.
B. Thomas must create resource objects, and use them in the rules allowing HTTP traffic to the Web servers.
C. Thomas needs to check the “Products > Web Server” box on the host node objects representing hrs Web servers.
D. Thomas needs to check the “Web Inteffrgence” box in the SmartDefense > HTTP properties.
E. Thomas needs to configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 108
You are a Security Administrator configuring Static NAT on an internal host-node object. You clear the box ‘Translate destination on client site”, accessed from Global Properties > NAT settings > Automatic NAT. Assuming all other Global Properties NAT settings are selected, what else must be configured for automatic Static NAT to work?
A. The NAT IP address must be added to the anti-spoofing group of the external Gateway interface
B. Two address-translation rules in the Rule Base
C. No extra configuration needed
D. A proxy ARP entry, to ensure packets destined for the public IP address will reach the Security Gateway’s external interface
E. A static route, to ensure packets destined for the public NAT IP address will reach the Gateway’s internal interface

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 109
Jill is about to test some rule and object changes suggested in an NGX newsgroup. Which backup and restore solution should Jill use, to ensure she can most easily restore her Security Policy to its previous configuration, after testing the changes?
A. SecurePlatform backup utilities
B. Manual copies of the $FWDIR/conf directory
C. upgradeexport and upgrade_import commands
D. Policy Package management
E. Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 110
Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Certificates? SIC Certificates:
A. for NGX Security Gateways are created during the SmartCenter Server installation.
B. for the SmartCenter Server are created during the SmartCenter Server installation.
C. are used for securing internal network communications between the SmartView Tracker and an OPSEC device.
D. decrease network security by securing administrative communication among the SmartCenter Servers and the Security Gateway.
E. uniquely identify Check Point enabled machines; they have the same function as Authentication Certificates.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
Review the following rules and note the Client Authentication Action properties screen, as shown in the exhibit:
After being authenticated by the Security Gateway, when a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site, the user tries FTP to another site using the command line. What happens to the user? The:
A. FTP session is dropped by the implicit Cleanup Rule.
B. user is prompted from that FTP site only, and does not need to enter username and password for Client Authentication.
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule 2.
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully.
E. user is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway again.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
Which NGX configuration setting forces the Client Authentication authorization time-out to refresh, each time a new user is authenticated? Choose ONE. The:
A. ‘Time” properties, adjusted on the user objects for each user, in the source of the Client Authentication rule
B. Time object, with hours restricted and renewable, in the Time field of the Client Authentication rule
C. SmartDefense > Application Intelligence > Client Authentication > Refresh User Timeout option enabled
D. Global Properties > Authentication parameters, adjusted to allow for “Regular Client Refreshment”
E. “Refreshable Timeout” setting, in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action properties screen
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 113
How are cached usernames and passwords cleared from the memory of an NGX Security Gateway?
A. Usernames and passwords only clear from memory after they time out.
B. By retrieving LDAP user information, using the fw fetchldap command
C. By using the Clear User Cache button in SmartDashboard
D. By installing a Security Policy
E. By pushing new user information from the LDAP server

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 114
A digital signature:
A. Uniquely encodes the receiver of the key.
B. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.
C. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.
D. Automatically charges shared keys.
E. Decrypts data to its original form.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 115
Diffie-Hellman uses which type of key exchange?
A. Adaptive
B. Asymmetric
C. Symmetric
D. Static
E. Dynamic

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 116
Amy is configuring a User Authentication rule for the technical-support department to access an intranet server. What is the correct statement?
A. The Security Server first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this type of connection.
B. The User Authentication rule must be placed above the Stealth Rule.
C. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out.
D. Amy can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, and rlogin services.
E. Amy can limit the authentication attempts in the Authentication tab of the User Properties screen.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
What is the reason for the Critical Problem notification in this SmartView Monitor example?

A. Active real memory shortage on the Gateway
B. No Security Policy installed on the Security Gateway
C. Version mismatch between the SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway
D. Time not synchronized between the SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway
E. No Secure Internal Communications established between the SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
You are setting up a Virtual Private Network, and must select an encryption scheme. Your data is extremely business sensitive and you want maximum security for your data communications. Which encryption scheme would you select?
A. Tunneling mode encryption
B. In-place encryption
C. Either one will work without compromising performance
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 119
There is a Web server behind your perimeter Security Gateway. You need to protect the server from network attackers, who create scripts that force your Web server to send user credentials or identities to other Web servers. Which box do you check in the SmartDashboard Web Intelligence tab?
A. HTTP protocol inspection protection
B. Cross Site Scripting protection
C. HTTP header format checking
D. Command Injection protection
E. SOL Injection protection

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 120
Use manages a distributed NGX installation for a large Dank. Use needs to know which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within the next 30 days. Which SmartConsole application should Use use to gather this information?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartD ash board
D. SmartView Tracker
E. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
A user attempts authentication using SecureClient. The user’s password is rejected, even though it is correctly defined in the LDAP directory. Which of the following is a valid cause?
A. The LDAP server has insufficient memory.
B. The LDAP and Security Gateway databases are not synchronized.
C. The SmartCenter Server cannot communicate with the LDAP server.
D. The user has defined the wrong encryption scheme.
E. The user is defined in both the NGX user database and the LDAP directory.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 122
You create implicit and explicit rules for the following network. The group object “internal-networks” includes networks 10.10.10.0 and 10.10.20.0. Assume “Accept ICMP requests” is enabled as before last in the Global Properties.Based on these rules, what happens if you Ping from host 10.10.10.5 to a host on the Internet by IP address? ICMP will be:
A. dropped by rule 0.
B. dropped by rule 2, the Cleanup Rule.
C. accepted by rule 1.
D. dropped by the last implicit rule.
E. accepted by the implicitt rufe.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
Using SmartDefense how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports?
By enabling:

A. Network Port scan
B. Host Port Scan
C. Malware Scan protection
D. Sweep Scan protection
E. Malicious Code Protector
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 124
How many administrators car be created during installation ofthe SmartC enter Server?
A. Only one
B. Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C. As many as you want
D. Depends on the license installed on the Smart Center Server
E. Specified fn the Global Properties
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 125
Which Idif file must you modify to extend the schema of a Windows 2000 domain?
A. In NGXyou do not need to modify any .Idif flle
B. The appropriate .ldif flle is located in the Security Gateway: $FWDIR/conf/ldif/Microsoft_ad_schema.ldif
C. The appropriate .Idif flle is located in the SmartCenter Server: $FWDIR/lib/ldap/ schema_microsoft_ad.ldif
D. The appropriate .Idif file is located in the Security Gateway: $FWDIR/lib/ldif/Microsoft_ad_schema.ldif
E. The appropriate .ldif file is located In the SmartCenter Server: $FWDIR/conf/ldif/ Microsofl_ad_schema.fdif

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 126
How can you reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic_reset to reinitialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the SmartCenter Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security Gateway from SmartDashboard.
B. From cpconfig on the SmartCenter Server, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the activation key. Next, retype the same key in the gateway object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize Secure Internal Communications (SIC).
C. From the SmartCenter Server’s command line type fw putkey <shared key> <IP Address of SmartCenter Server>.
D. From the SmartCenter Server’s command line type fw putkey <shared key> <IP Address of Security Gateways
E. Re-install the Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Herman is attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of his firm’s business partners. Herman thinks Phase 2 negotiations are failing. Which SmartConsole application should Herman use to confirm his suspicions?
A. SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartDashboard
E. SmartView Status
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
What is the proper command for exporting users in LDAP format?
A. fw dbexport-f c:\temp\users.txt
B. fw dbimport-f c:\temp\users.ldif-I-s”o=YourCity.com,c=YourCountiy”
C. fw dbimport -f c:\temp\users.ldap
D. fw dbexport -f c:\temp\users.ldap -s
E. fw dbexport-f c:\temp\users.fdif -I -s “o=You rCrty.com ,c=You rCountry”
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 129
Which of these changes to a Security Policy optimizes Security Gateway performance?
A. Using domain objects in rules when possible
B. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
C. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
D. Logging rules as much as possible
E. Removing old or unused Security Policies from Policy Packages

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 130
You have locked yourself out of SmartDashboard with the rules you just installed on your stand alone Security Gateway. Now you cannot access the SmartCenter Server or any SmartConsole tools via SmartD ash board. How can you reconnect to SmartDashboard?
A. Run cpstop on the SmartCenter Server.
B. Run fw unlocklocal on the SmartCenter Server.
C. Run fw unloadlocal on the Security Gateway.
D. Delete the $fwdir/database/manage.lock file and run cprestart.
E. Run fw uninstall localhost on the Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 131
Which NGX feature or command provides the easiest path for Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy and objects configuration?
A. cpconfig
B. upgrade export/upgrade import
C. Database Revision Control
D. dbexport/dbimport
E. Policy Package management

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 132
Doug wants to know who installed a Security Policy blocking all traffic from the corporate network. Which SmartVfew Tracker selection is best suited for this?
A. Records pane
B. Active tab
C. custom filter
D. tog connections
E. Audit tab

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 133
Your internal network is using 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter NGX VPN-1 Gateway, which connects to your ISP provider. How do you configure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the Internet?
A. Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.
B. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway.
C. Use manual Static NAT on the client side for network 10.1.1.0/24.
D. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway.
E. Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 134
Your standby SmartCenter Servers status is collision. What does that mean, and how do you synchronize the Server and its peer?
A. The standby and active Servers have two Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) Certificates. Uninstall and reinstall the standby Server.
B. The active Server detected a keep-alive packet from the standby Server.
C. The peer Server has not been property synchronized. Manually synchronize both Servers again.
D. The peer Server is more up-to-date. Manually synchronize both Servers again.
E. The active SmartCenter Server and its peer have different Security Policies and databases. Manually synchronize the Servers, and decide which Server’s configuration to overwrite.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 135
How do you configure an NGX Security Gateway’s kernel memory settings, without manually modifying the configuration files in $FWDIR\lib? By configuring:
A. the settings on the Gateway object’s Capacity Optimization screen
B. the settings on the Global Properties Capacity Optimization screen
C. the settings on the Gateway object’s Advanced screen
D. the settings on the SmartCenter Server object’s Advanced screen
E. SmartDefense Kernel Defender options

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 136
Katie is the Security Administrator for an insurance company. Her manager gives Katie the following
requirements for controlling DNS traffic:
Required Result #1: Accept domain-name-over-TCP traffic (zone-transfer traffic).
Required Result #2: Log domain-name-over-TCP traffic (zone-transfer traffic).
Desired Result #1: Accept domain-name-over-UDP traffic (queries traffic).

Desired Result #2: Do not log domain-name-over-UDP traffic (queries traffic).
Desired Result #3: Do not clutter the Rule Base by creating explicit rules for traffic that can be controlled
using Global Properties.

Katie makes the following configuration changes, and installs the Secunty Policy:

1.
She selects the box “Accept Domain Name over TCP (Zone Transfer)’1 in Global Properties.

2.
She selects the box “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” in Global Properties.

3.
She selects the box “Log Implied Rules” in Global Properties. Does Katie’s solution meet the required and desired results?
A. The solution meets the required results, and one of the desired results
B. The solution meets all required results, and none of the desired results.
C. The solution meets the required results, and two of the desired results.
D. The solution meets all required and desired results.
E. The solution does not meet the required results.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 137
Shauna is troubleshooting a Security Gateway that is dropping all traffic whenever the most recent Security Policy rs installed. Working at the Security Gateway, Shauna needs to uninstall the Policy, but keep the processes running so she can see if there is an issue with the Gateway’s firewall tables. Which of the following commands will do this?
A. fw dbload 10.1.1.5
B. fw unload 10.1.1.5
C. cprestart
D. fw tab -x -u
E. cpstop

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 138
Anna is working in a large hospital, together with three other Security Administrators. Which SmartConsole tool should she use to check changes to rules or object properties other administrators made?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. Eventia Tracker
D. Eventia a Monitor
E. SmartView Monitor

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 139
Jeremy manages sites in Tokyo, Calcutta and Dallas, from his office in Chicago. He Is trying to create a report for management detailing the current software level of each Security Gateway. He also wants to create a proposal outline, listing the most cost-effective way to upgrade his Gateways. Which two SmartConsole applications should Jeremy use, to create his report and outline?
A. SmartLSM and SmartUpdate
B. SmartDashboard and SmartLSM
C. SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker
D. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate
E. SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 140
When you hide a rule in a Rule Base, how can you then disable the rule?
A. Open the Rule Menu, and select Hide and view hidden rules. Select the rule, right-click, and select Disable.
B. Uninstall the Security Policy, and then disable the rule.
C. When a rule is hidden, it is automatically disabled. You do not need to disable the rule again.
D. Run cpstop and cpstart on the SmartCenter Server, then disable the rule.
E. Clear Hide from Rules drop-down menu, then right-click and select “Disable Rufe(s)’

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 141
David is a consultant for a software-deployment company. David is working at a customer’s site this week. David’s task is to create a map of the customer’s VPN tunnels, including down and destroyed tunnels. Which SmartConsole application will provide David with the information needed to create this map?
A. SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Monitor
C. SmartLSM
D. SmartView Tracker
E. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 142
How do you view a Security Administrator’s activities, using SmartConsole tools? With:
A. User Monitor
B. SmartView Monitor using the Administrator Activity filter
C. SmartView Tracker in Log mode
D. SmartView Tracker in Audit mode
E. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 143
Mary is the IT auditor for a bank. One of her responsibilities is reviewing the Security Administrator activity and comparing it to the change log. Which application should Mary use to view Security Administrator activity?
A. NGX cannot display Security Administrator activity
B. SmartView Tracker in Real-Time Mode
C. SmartView Tracker in Audit Mode
D. SmartView Tracker in Log Mode
E. SmartView Tracker in Active Mode

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 144
When you use the Global Properties1 default settings, which type of traffic will be dropped, if no explicit rule allows the traffic?
A. Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange information
B. Outgoing traffic originating from the Security Gateway
C. RIP traffic
D. SmartUpdate connections
E. IKE and RDP traffic

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 145
Mary is recently hired as the Security Administrator for a public relations company. Mary’s manager has asked her to investigate ways to improve the performance of the firm’s perimeter Security Gateway. Mary must propose a plan based on the following required and desired results:
Required Result #1:Do not purchase new hardware.
Required Result #2:Use configuration changes that do not reduce security.
Desired Result #1:Reduce the number of explicit rules in the Rule Base.
Desired Result #2:Reduce the volume of logs.
Desired Result #3:lmprove the Gateway’s performance.
Proposed Solution:

Mary recommends the following changes to the Gateway’s configuration:
?Replace all domain objects with network and group objects.
?Check “Log implied rules” and “Accept ICMP requests” in Global Properties.
?Use Global Properties, instead of explicit rules, to control ICMP, VRRP, and RIP.
Does Mary’s proposed solution meet the required and desired results?

A. The solution meets all required and desired results.
B. The solution meets the required results, and one of the desired results.
C. The solution meets the required results, and two of the desired results.
D. The solution meets all required results, and none of the desired results.
E. The solution does not meet the required results.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 146
Nelson is a consultant. He is at a customer’s site reviewing configuration and logs as part of a security audit. Nelson sees logs accepting POP3 traffic, but he does not see a rule allowing POP3 traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause? The POP3:
A. service is a VPN-1 Control Connection.
B. rule is hidden.
C. service is accepted in Global Properties.
D. service cannot be controlled by NGX.
E. rule is disabled. Correct Answer: B

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