Index

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QUESTION 86
Which are three required steps in digitizing voice? (Choose three)
A. Companding the signal.
B. Quantizing the amplitude.
C. Filtering the signal.
D. Sampling the soundwave.
E. Encoding the results in binary form.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The answer on “Question 1” on page 15 dealing with digitizing voice should be:
1.
Quantizing the amplitude
2.
Sampling the soundwave
3.
Encoding the results in binary form
See page 2-45 of CVoice version 4.1 class books.
Not C: “Filtering” is part of the process to go from digital to analog not analog to digital (p. 2-47)

QUESTION 87
You are the VoIP engineer at Certkiller .com. A Certkiller user complains that she gets a busy tone instead
of a dial tone when she tries to call another user. You want to troubleshoot this problem.
What command should you use?

A. show voice dsp
B. show voice path
C. show voice connection
D. show voice port summary
E. show dial-peer voice summary

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 88
Your manager asks you for a worksheet defining items that need to be addressed for the future VOIP and
IP telephone rollout.
What items do you put on the worksheet that need to be addresses for the wiring closets? (Choose all that
apply.)

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436

A. Switches with Inline Power
B. A 7000 series router to backup the switch with HSRP
C. PBX failover
D. UPS systems and Backup power
E. Cooling Requirements (a heat profile)

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 89
Which device listed below has an intelligent power management system that grants or denies power to various system components based on power availability in the system for use with IP telephony?
A. Cisco 7309 VXD Router
B. Cisco Works plug in
C. CallManager
D. Catalyst 6000 switch

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 90
From the list below, what allows a Cisco IP phone to detect the absence of audio and therefore does not transmit packets over the network?
A. Ipng
B. PBX Filters
C. Voice Activation Detection
D. DHE
E. Call Waiting

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 91
What Cisco Catalyst Switch command produces the following inline power output? Defalut Inline Power allocation per port: 10.00 Watts (0.23 Amps @42V) Port InlinePowered PowerAllocated Admin Oper Detected mWatt mA @42V
7/1 auto off no 0 0 7/2 auto on yes 5040 120 7/3 auto faulty yes 12600 300 7/4 auto deny yes 0 0 Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
7/5 off off no 0 0
A. show cam inlinepower <mod>|<mod/port>
B. show port inline <mod>|<mod/port>
C. show port inlinepower <mod>|<mod/port>
D. show port power <mod>|<mod/port>

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 92
What are two constraints that you may encounter when trying to design a IP Telephone infrastructure?
A. Upper level management acceptance
B. Budgetary Constraints
C. STP reliability
D. IP convergence

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 93
What is the biggest issue affecting voice transport when you implement IPSec VPNs in a converged network?
A. Hop count.
B. Using G.729 as the codec.
C. Throughput considerations.
D. Ensuring only software encryption is running.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 94
What factors must be considered in the overall design when implementing an IPSec VPN for transport of voice?
A. Port numbers and added delay.
B. Added delay and added overhead.
C. Port numbers and longer dial plan.
D. Port numbers and added overhead.
E. Added overhead and longer dial plan.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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642-436

QUESTION 95
When analyzing the WAN for IP Telephone deployment, you need to collect information from the WAN and
LAN devices. You need to determine current Bandwidth usage before rolling out a solution. From the
analysis you are performing, there are categories you can collect information from.
Select two from the list below.

A. Device information, which includes router models, memory, CPU, interface card modules versions and software versions
B. The serial numbers from the Meridian Phone System
C. The existing WAN topology, which includes logical design information and bandwidth subscription rates
D. LAN information as in the make and model of the Remote site closet Nortel equipment
E. You need all the CiscoWorks server configurations to make sure you can install Call Manager

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 96
If you were troubleshooting No Ringback Tone on ISDN-VoIP (H.323) Calls and had problem that POTS (PSTN/PBX) user places a call (through Cisco router/gateways) and does not hear ringback tone before call is answerered, what would you do?
A. Use the conf inline power command because it is not set in the terminating router.
B. Reset all the phone connections on the IP SoftPhones
C. Configure CiscoWorks CallManager to handle all errors automatically.
D. Configure the Cisco IOS global configuration command voice call send-alert in the terminating router

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 97
Which preference key word assigns top precedence to a dial peer in a hunt-group?
A. 0
B. priority
C. 1
D. high

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
QUESTION 98
What are two basic parameters needed to setup a dial peer connected to the PSTN? (Choose two)
A. voice port
B. signaling type
C. interface bandwidth
D. destination pattern
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Depending on the call leg, a call is routed using one of the two types of dial peers: POTS-Dial peer that defines the characteristics of a traditional telephony network connection. POTS dial peers map a dialed string to a specific voice port on the local router, normally the voice port connecting the router to the local PSTN, PBX, or telephone. Voice-network-Dial peer that defines the characteristics of a packet network connection. Voice-network dial peers map a dialed string to a remote network device, such as the destination router that is connected to the remote telephony device. The following examples show basic configurations for POTS and VoIP dial peers: dial-peervoice 1 potsdestination-pattern555….port1/0:1dial-peervoice 2 voipdestination-pattern 555….session target ipv4:192.168.1.1
QUESTION 99

Users are complaining that they are unable to complete a call from 678-555-1212 to 770-555-1111 from
Router 1 to Router 2.
Select the correct answer to resolve the problem.

A. Incorrect dial-peer statement in Router 1. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
B. Incorrect port statement in Router 1 pots dial peer.
C. Incorrect session-target statement in Router 2.
D. Incorrect destination-pattern in Router 1.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Given the output the correct answer would be “Incorrect port assignment in router one”. Voice port 1/0/1 does not exist, according to the drawing on router 1, Voice port 1/0/0 is the correct port.under the router 1 dial-peer the port assignment is port 1/0/1. There is no problem with the destination-patterns (not D)
QUESTION 100
Which dial plan characteristic is most obviously improved by dropping a number translation step?
A. Availability
B. Post-dial delay
C. Scalability
D. Hierarchical design

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Introduction This document provides a sample configuration for creating scalable dial plans for a VoIP network using IOS translation rules. As you install integrated voice and data networks, one issue frequently encountered is how to manage the numbering plans of the indial ranges at different locations. Depending on the type of exchange, signaling protocol standards and even location, the service provider could pass similar number ranges to the subscriber equipment at each remote site. If these calls are being routed back to a central site, there could be an overlap in the called numbers that originate from each of the remote sites. Since the PBX makes the routing decision based on unique called numbers, this could cause problems with automatic call distribution (ACD) queues on private branch exchange (PBX) systems . For example, calls from each site may need to be directed to particular operators who speak the local language from where the call originated. If the called numbers from each site overlap, there is not any way of identifying the origin of a call, therefore the PBX is not able to route the call to the correct ACD queue. Some remote sites may be provided with a 2-digit indial number range while other sites may have 3- or 4-digit indial ranges, so the called numbers could be from to . With these number ranges, the main site router would need configurations to handle 2-, 3- and 4-digit numbering plans. This could add to the overall complexity of the router configuration. The solution to these issues is to use IOS digit translation rules at each remote site to prepend digits to the number range that comes in from the telephone network. This then
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
creates a standard numbering plan across the customer’s network and allows new sites to be gradually added without major changes to the rest of the network.
QUESTION 101
DRAG DROP
Drag each of the dial peers on the left to the phone number that it would match on the right.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Destination pattern 4081234″ would be an exact match for 4081234 and therefore would be the correct
answer.
Destination pattern .T” would match 4181234 not 4081234 due to length of match. ” Note:
Destination Pattern

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642-436

The destination pattern associates a dialed string with a specific telephony device. It is configured in a dial
peer by using the destination-pattern command. If the dialed string matches the destination pattern, the call
is routed according to the voice port in POTS dial peers, or the session target in voice-network dial peers.
For outbound voice-network dial peers, the destination pattern may also determine the dialed digits that the
router collects and then forwards to the remote telephony interface, such as a PBX, a telephone, or the
PSTN. You must configure a destination pattern for each POTS and voice-network dial peer that you
define on the router.
The destination pattern can be either a complete telephone number or a partial telephone number with
wildcard digits, represented by a period (.) character. Each “.” represents a wildcard for an individual digit
that the originating router expects to match. For example, if the destination pattern for a dial peer is defined
as “555….”, then any dialed string beginning with 555, plus at least four additional digits, matches this dial
peer. In addition to the period (.), there are several other symbols that can be used as wildcard characters
in the destination pattern. These symbols provide additional flexibility in implementing dial plans and
decrease the need for multiple dial peers in configuring telephone number ranges.
Fixed- and Variable-Length Dial Plans
Fixed-length dialing plans, in which all the dial-peer destination patterns have a fixed length, are sufficient
for most voice networks because the telephone number strings are of known lengths. Some voice
networks, however, require variable-length dial plans, particularly for international calls, which use
telephone numbers of different lengths. If you enter the timeout T-indicator at the end of the destination
pattern in an outbound voice-network dial peer, the router accepts a fixed-length dial string and then waits
for additional dialed digits. The timeout character must be an uppercase T. The following dial-peer
configuration shows how the T-indicator is set to allow variable-length dial strings:
In the example above, the router
dial-peervoice 1 voipdestination-pattern2222Tsessiontarget ipv4:10.10.1.1 accepts the digits 2222, and
then waits for an unspecified number of additional digits. The router can collect up to 31 additional digits,
as long as the interdigit timeout has not expired. When the interdigit timeout expires, the router places the
call. The default value for the interdigit timeout is 10 seconds. Unless the default value is changed, using

the T-indicator adds 10 seconds to each call setup because the call is not attempted until the timer has expired (unless the # character is used as a terminator). You should therefore reduce the voice-port interdigit timeout value if you use variable-length dial plans. You can change the interdigit timeout by using the timeouts inter-digit
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
voice-port command.

QUESTION 102
When does an IP Phone receive the ring tones on the phone?
A. The phone downloads the wave file on boot.
B. The phone downloads based upon user selection.
C. The phone downloads the wave file on every request.
D. The phone downloads based on CallManager request.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 103
Which two tools are most appropriate for configuring 4,000 IP Phones prior to deploying the phones and allow phones to auto register? (Choose two.)?
A. ART
B. BAT
C. AST
D. TAPS Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 104
Which field can be manually entered into the database when using the BAT tool, but not when using the TAPS tool??
A. Partiition
B. Directory number
C. Device MAC address
D. Calling Search Space

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 105
Name two factors that will need to be considered and may provide a hurdle to move forward with your VOIP rollout and IP telephony implementation:
A. Money Flow issues.
B. Business Requirement
C. Technical Constraints
D. Budget constraints
E. Project Management Meetings

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 106
When the Directories button on the 7960 phone is pressed, what does the 7960 use to retrieve the Dirctory information?
A. XML
B. SQL
C. LDAP
D. Skinny

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 107
Which file does the BAT tool use to import users into the CallManager database?
A. CSV
B. Microsoft Word Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
C. Microsoft Excel D. Tab-delimited text file

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 108
You are the network technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know
what the attributes of a scalable dialing plan are.
What will your reply be? (Choose four)

A. Logic distribution
B. Hierarchical design
C. Simplicity in provisioning
D. Reduction in pre-dial delay
E. reduction in post-dial delay

Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 109
What happens if no incoming dial peer matches a router or gateway?
A. The incoming call leg takes an alternate path.
B. The incoming call leg matches the default dial peer.
C. The incoming call leg sends a busy to the originator.
D. The incoming call leg is denied and the call is dropped.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 110
A 9 digit number must be dialed to reach numbers on the PSTN. What process makes sure that the first 9 digit is not transmitted as part of the called number?
A. digit alternating
B. digit masking
C. digit manipulation
D. digit seizing

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 111
SIMULATION
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
Network topology exhibit: You’re a CCNP certified employee at Deutsche Telekom. You are working with the Certkiller .com Telephone Company, in Rammstein Germany, to assist them to set up a simple configuration to demonstrate an FXS-to-PSTN connection across an IP network. The Ethernet interfaces and routing protocols are already configured on both routers. The Certkiller 1 router will act a s gateway to the PSTN to the PSTN and is correctly configured for this task. You are required to add the voice portion to the Certkiller 2 router. Configure the pots and VoIP dial peers and insure that the pots telephone on the Certkiller 2 router can reach the PSTN connected to the Certkiller 1 router. The analog telephone is connected to voice port 1/0/0. The customer uses the access code 9 to dial out the PSTN. Insure that the Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 recognize the dialed digits as standard E.164 numbers. The telephone number of the pots telephone connected to the Certkiller 1 router is 49648455554321. After the configuration is complete you may click on the telephone to check your configuration. If the call is successful, you will get a ringing message and a completed call. If the call is unsuccessful, you will get a busy signal. The Certkiller 1 router has the following configured ports: Ethernet: 0/0 172.16.1.11 255.255.255.0 To configure the router click on a host icon that is connected to a router by a serial console cable.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: en config t dial-peervoice 1 pots destination-pattern 6495551212 port1/0/0 dial-peervoice 2 voip destination-pattern +9T sessiontarget ipv4:172.16.1.11
Explanation: Reference CVoice ver 4.1 class books page 4-21 and Cisco Voice over Frame Relay, ATM, and IP (from Cisco Press second printing May 2002) page 225. The
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
“+” sign is optionaland is usedas the first digit to indicate an E.164 standard number. We place the “+” in front if the 9 digit in the voip dial peer because the question states to make sure that Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 recognize the dialed digits as standard E.164 numbers. The pots phone will not be calling itself so therefore the logical placement of the “+” would be in front of the 9 digit in the voip dial peer. Note 1: The simulation does not allow the use of the “register” command. Note 2: Instead of destination-pattern +9T it might be destination-pattern 9+T. You will know when you have it correct if, after clicking on the telephone icon, you receive a message that says ringing.
QUESTION 112
Which gateway interface connects to the standard station port of a PBX?
A. FXS
B. E&M
C. POTS
D. FXO

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 41
The default network protocol in Mac OS X 10.4 is___
A. IPX
B. SMB
C. TCP/IP
D. Netbios
E. Apple Talk

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
The Lookup tool in Network Utility____________
A. finds the complete route between your computer and another computer on an IP network
B. determines which ports are open on a remote computer
C. resolve host names to IP addresses
D. resolve IP addresses to host names
E. looks up routing table information

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
What printing system is used by Mac OS X v10.4?
A. Unified Printing Manager
B. Macunosh Printing MANAGER
C. Common UNIX printing System
D. Portable Document Printing System

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
An older network printer is not appearing in the list of discovered printers in Printer Setup Utility’s Default Browser pane in Mac OS X v10.4. What is a possible remedy?
A. Select the Apple Talk plugin in Directory Access.
B. Enable the Discover Printers option in Apple Talk preferences
C. Enable the Apple Talk option in the Printing pane of print & Fax preferences
D. Enable the Make Apple Talk Active option in the Apple Talk pane of Network preferences.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
How can you identify who is talking during a multi-way audio conference in Mac OS X 10.4?
A. The buddy’s icon is highlighted
B. By watching the sound-level meter
C. All other participants are dimmed
D. The buddy’s line marked with a “speaking” flag

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
What requirements must be met orderto participate in a multti-way video conference in Mac OS X 10.4 iCha?
A. Broadband internet connection, Mac OS X 10.4 iChat and Cinema Display
B. Any internet connection, iChatt AV 2.5 higher, iSigh, and Mac OS X 10.4
C. Any Internet connection. Mac OS X 10.4 iChat, AND COMPATIBLE VIDEO DEVICE
D. Broadband Internet connection, Mac OS X 10.4 iChat, and a compatible video device

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
When Maria logs in on her Mac OS X v10.4 computer, a utility she recently installed launches and disables the mouse and keyboard.
How can Maria prevent the utility from automatically launching when she logs in?
A. Hold down the V key while the computer start up.
B. Hold down the Shift key immediately after logging in.
C. Hold down the option key while the computer starts up.
D. Log in as another user and use Disk Utility to fix permissions on the boot volume

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
The Universal Access preferences allow you to ____________
A. create new keyboard shortcuts
B. apply interface themes the Finder
C. configure your computer as wireless access point
D. enable the use of assistive input and output devices

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
A user is unable to open a document from within an application. Which is not a recommended troubleshooting procedure?
A. Try to open a different document with the same application
B. Double-click the document icon in the Finder while holding down the option key
C. Try to open the document from another application that support the same document type
D. Copy the document to the Shared folder then log in as another user and try to open the document

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You see in Network preferences that the operating system has just updated your network port priority orderand port status indicators as shown in the exhibit. What could explain these changes?
A. The network cable has been disconnected
B. The DHCP server has a new AirPort card installed
C. An AirPort Base Station has been moved closer to the computer
D. The DHCP server on the Built-in Ethernet network is no longer available
Answer: D
QUESTION 50
What printing system is used by Mac OS X v10.4?
A. Unified Printing Manager
B. Macunosh Printing MANAGER
C. Common UNIX printing System
D. Portable Document Printing System

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about RADIUS configuration distribution using Cisco Fabric Services on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch is true?
A. Cisco Fabric Services does not distribute the RADIUS server group configuration or server and global keys.
B. Enabling Cisco Fabric Services causes the existing RADIUS configuration on your Cisco NX- OS device to be immediately distributed.
C. When the RADIUS configuration is being simultaneously changed on more than one device in a Cisco Fabric Services region, the most recent changes will take precedence.
D. Only the Cisco NX-OS device with the lowest IP address in the Cisco Fabric Services region can lock the RADIUS configuration.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
By default it will take 10 seconds for authentication to fail due to an unresponsive RADIUS server before a Cisco Nexus series switch reverts to another RADIUS server or local authentication. What is one efficient way to improve the reaction time to a RADIUS server failure?
A. Decrease the global RADIUS retransmission count to 1.
B. Decrease the global RADIUS timeout interval to 5 seconds.
C. Configure the RADIUS retransmission count and timeout interval per server, versus globally.
D. Configure per server a test idle timer, along with a username and password.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which statement explains why a Cisco UCS 6200 Fabric Interconnect that is configured in end- host mode is beneficial to the unified fabric network?
A. There is support for multiple (power of 2) uplinks.
B. Upstream Layer 2 disjoint networks will remain separated.
C. The 6200 can connect directly via vPC to a Layer 3 aggregation device.
D. STP is not required on the uplink ports from the 6200.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 7000 line cards are true? (Choose two.)
A. M1, M2, and F1 cards are allowed in the same VDC.
B. M line cards are service-oriented and likely face the access layer and provide Layer 2 connectivity.
C. F line cards are performance-oriented and likely connect northbound to the core layer for Layer 3 connectivity.
D. M line cards support Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 with large forwarding tables and a rich feature set.
E. The F2 line card must reside in the admin VDC.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
Which statement about the Layer 3 card on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch is true?
A. BGP support is not provided, but RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF support is provided.
B. Up to two 4-port cards are supported with up to 160 Gb/s of Layer 3 forwarding capability.
C. Up to 16 FEX connections are supported.
D. Port channels cannot be configured as Layer 3 interfaces.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?
A. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
B. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
C. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
D. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
E. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which GLBP load-balancing algorithm ensures that a client is always mapped to the same VMAC address?
A. vmac-weighted
B. dedicated-vmac-mode
C. shortest-path and weighting
D. host-dependent

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which three items must be configured in the port profile client in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)
A. port profile
B. DVS
C. data center
D. folder
E. vCenter IP address
F. VM port group

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 9
Refer to the command below. When configuring an SVS connection on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch, which device is being referenced as the remote IP address? nexus5500-2(config-svs-conn)# remote ip address 10.10.1.15 port 80 vrf management
A. ESX or ESXi host
B. vCenter
C. vPC peer switch
D. Cisco IMC management
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series router, which statement about HSRP and VRRP is true?
A. When VDCs are in use, only VRRP is supported.
B. HSRP and VRRP both use the same multicast IP address with different port numbers.
C. HSRP has shorter default hold and hello times.
D. The VRRP group IP address can be the same as the router-specific IP address.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which protocol is the foundation for unified fabric as implemented in Cisco NX-OS?
A. Fibre Channel
B. Data Center Bridging
C. Fibre Channel over Ethernet
D. N proxy virtualization
E. N Port identifier virtualization

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which statement about RBAC user roles on a Cisco Nexus switch is true?
A. If you belong to multiple roles, you can execute only the commands that are permitted by both roles (logical AND).
B. Access to a command takes priority over being denied access to a command.
C. The predefined roles can only be changed by the network administrator (superuser).
D. The default SAN administrator role restricts configuration to Fibre Channel interfaces.
E. On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, roles are shared between VDCs.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which statement is true if password-strength checking is enabled?
A. Short, easy-to-decipher passwords will be rejected.
B. The strength of existing passwords will be checked.
C. Special characters, such as the dollar sign ($) or the percent sign (%), will not be allowed.
D. Passwords become case-sensitive.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
When a local RBAC user account has the same name as a remote user account on an AAA server, what happens when a user with that name logs into a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. The user roles from the remote AAA user account are applied, not the configured local user roles.
B. All the roles are merged (logical OR).
C. The user roles from the local user account are applied, not the remote AAA user roles.
D. Only the roles that are defined on both accounts are merged (logical AND).

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
After enabling strong, reversible 128-bit Advanced Encryption Standard password type-6 encryption on a Cisco Nexus 7000, which command would convert existing plain or weakly encrypted passwords to type-6 encrypted passwords?
A. switch# key config-key ascii
B. switch(config)# feature password encryption aes
C. switch# encryption re-encrypt obfuscated
D. switch# encryption decrypt type6

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which two security features are only supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. IP source guard
B. traffic storm control
C. CoPP
D. DHCP snooping
E. Dynamic ARP Inspection
F. NAC

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 17
Which statement about the implementation of Cisco TrustSec on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches is true?
A. While SGACL enforcement and SGT propagation are supported on the M and F modules, 802.1AE (MACsec) support is available only on the M module.
B. SGT Exchange Protocol is required to propagate the SGTs across F modules that lack hardware support for Cisco TrustSec.
C. AAA authentication and authorization is supported using TACACS or RADIUS to a Cisco Secure Access Control Server.
D. Both Cisco TrustSec and 802.1X can be configured on an F or M module interface.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which statement about implementation of Cisco TrustSec on Cisco Nexus 5546 or 5548 switches are true?
A. Cisco TrustSec support varies depending on Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch model.
B. The hardware is not able to support MACsec switch-port-level encryption based on IEEE 802.1AE.
C. The maximum number of RBACL TCAM user configurable entries is 128k.
D. The SGT Exchange Protocol must use the management (mgmt 0) interface.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
In the dynamic vNIC creation wizard, why are choices for Protection important?
A. They allow reserve vNICs to be allocated out of the spares pool.
B. They enable hardware-based failover.
C. They select the primary fabric association for dynamic vNICs.
D. They allow dynamic vNICs to be reserved for fabric failover.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
How is a dynamic vNIC allocated?
A. Dynamic vNICs are assigned to VMs in vCenter.
B. Dynamic vNICs can only be bound to the service profile through an updating template.
C. Dynamic vNICs are bound directly to a service profile.
D. Dynamic vNICs are assigned by binding a port profile to the service profile.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
Which of the following Cisco Nexus features is best managed with DCNM-LAN?
A. VSS
B. Domain parameters
C. Virtual switches
D. AAA
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
Which Cisco Nexus feature is best managed with DCNM-SAN?
A. VSS
B. domain parameters
C. virtual switches
D. AAA

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
Which option is a restriction of the unified ports on the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnect when connecting to the unified fabric network?
A. Direct FC connections are not supported to Cisco MDS switches
B. The FCoE or Fibre Channel port allocations must be contiguous on the 6200.
C. 10-G Fibre Channel ports only use SFP+ interfaces.
D. vPC is not supported on the Ethernet ports.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
The Connectivity Management Processor monitors the active supervisor module on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch and will reboot the device in the event of a lights-out management issue. However, which option includes features that provide similar benefits in the absence of the Connectivity Management Processor?
A. high-availability functionality from features such as vPC and NSF
B. traditional system connectivity models like SNMP, GUI, or SSH
C. Cisco FabricPath
D. VDC failover

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
Which statement about Cisco FabricPath is true?
A. It is the best solution for interconnecting multiple data centers.
B. It optimizes STP throughout the Layer 2 network.
C. It is a simplified extension of Layer 3 networks across a single data center.
D. The Cisco FabricPath domain appears as a single STP bridge, where each edge port uses the same MAC address.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Which statement about electronic programmable logic device image upgrades is true?
A. EPLD and ISSU image upgrades are nondisruptive.
B. An EPLD upgrade must be performed during an ISSU system or kickstart upgrade.
C. Whether the module being upgraded is online or offline, only the EPLD images that have different current and new versions are upgraded.
D. You can execute an upgrade or downgrade only from the active supervisor module.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
What is the grace period in a graceful restart situation?
A. how long the supervisor waits for NSF replies
B. how often graceful restart messages are sent after a switchover
C. how long NSF-aware neighbors should wait after a graceful restart has started before tearing down adjacencies
D. how long the NSF-capable switches should wait after detecting that a graceful restart has started, before verifying that adjacencies are still valid

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Which two types of traffic are carried over a vPC peer link when no failure scenarios are present? (Choose two.)
A. multicast data traffic
B. unicast data traffic
C. broadcast data traffic
D. vPC keep-alive messages

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 29
A Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender is connected to two Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches via a vPC link. After both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches lose power, only one switch is able to power back up. At this time, the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender is not active and the vPC ports are unavailable to the network.
Which action will get the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender active when only one Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch is up and active?
A. Move the line from the failed Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch to the switch that is powered on, so the port channel forms automatically on the switch that is powered on.
B. Shut down the peer link on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch that is powered on.
C. Configure reload restore or auto-recovery reload-delay on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch that is powered on.
D. Power off and on the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender so that it can detect only one Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch at power up.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which SCSI terminology is used to describe source and destination nodes?
A. hosts and targets
B. initiators and targets
C. HBA and disks
D. initiators and disks
E. HBA and targets

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
Which function does the graceful restart feature allow a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series router to perform?
A. Perform a rapid route convergence.
B. Initialize a standby supervisor transparently when one is present.
C. Remain in the data forwarding path through a process restart.
D. Maintain a management connection throughout a router restart.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32
In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements?
A. forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface
B. forwarded using the last statement in the route map
C. forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement
D. forwarded using destination-based routing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.

Which corrective action is taken to resolve the problem?
A. Trunk four VLANs on interface ethernet 199/1/1.
B. Use the shut and no shut interface ethernet 199/1/1so that the VLANs come up.
C. Place interface ethernet 199/1/1 in VLAN 4 in the N5K-2 configuration.
D. Prune all but four VLANs from vPC 199.
E. Add VLAN 4 to vPC 199.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the consequence of configuring peer-gateway on the two vPC peers N7K-1 and N7K-2?
A. Nothing, this is the standard vPC configuration to make the feature work.
B. The downstream device detects only one of the vPC peers as its gateway.
C. The downstream device can use DMAC of N7K-1 on the link to N7K-2, and N7K-2 forwards the packet.
D. This configuration enables the downstream device to use DHCP to obtain its default gateway.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements about the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch are true? (Choose three.)
A. An emulated switch ID must be unique when the vPC+ feature is used.
B. Switches with FabricPath and vPC+ consume two switch IDs.
C. Emulated switch IDs must be numbered from 1 to 99.
D. Each switch ID must be unique in the FabricPath topology.
E. Switch IDs must be configured manually.

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following must be considered when evaluating the data center environmental elements for a UCS installation? (Choose three.)
A. weight distribution for floor loading
B. emergency electrical shutoff
C. backup power and distribution
D. proper clearance for air flow

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 2
How many VLANs on the UCS must be configured when using FCoE?
A. One per blade
B. One per VSAN
C. One per fabric
D. None are required

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which three of the following UCS components can be upgraded? (Choose three.)
A. SFPs
B. BIOS firmware
C. cluster firmware
D. Fabric Interconnect
E. Baseboard Management Controller (BMC)

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 4
Which three VM VLAN port groups must be created for Nexus 1000v connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. Priority
B. Management
C. Control
D. Packet
E. Service
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 5
What is the maximum number of AC power supplies that can be installed in a Cisco UCS chassis?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect supports which port channel protocol?
A. LACP
B. PAgP
C. MCPC
D. LACP or PAgP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
A service profile is created using vHBAs. What will happen if the profile is applied to a server with a mezzanine card without storage capability?
A. The blade association will fail.
B. Thestorage adapter will not be visible to the operating system.
C. A virtual storage adapter will be created.
D. A WWNN or a WWPN will be autoselected from the default pool.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Server virtualization technology enables which three benefits when you are planning to build a virtualized data center? (Choose three.)
A. better use of computing resources
B. higher server densities
C. seamless server migrations
D. I/O consolidation
E. better usage of storage resources

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 9
Which traffic is handled by the Cisco UCS 6100 Series Fabric Interconnect?
A. management traffic
B. data traffic
C. management and data traffic
D. control plane traffic
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which four options are system components of the Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose four.)
A. External Interface Layer
B. Application/Endpoint Gateways
C. PXE boot infrastructure
D. Data Management Engine
E. Managed Endpoints
F. Virtual Networking Layer
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 11
Cisco UCS Manager uses SOAP APIs over which protocol to interact with VMware vCenter?
A. HTTPS
B. XML
C. HTTP
D. FTP

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
What do management group hierarchies manage?
A. resources and logical objects
B. operation of servers and compute nodes
C. UCSserver blade service profiles
D. logical objects and compute nodes

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
Which statement about VLANs in a Cisco UCS is true?
A. Fabric interconnect can never participate in VTP.
B. Fabric interconnect supports ISL and 802.1Q trunking.
C. The supported range of VLANs is auto-configured by UCS.
D. VLANs are configured through the Cisco UCS manager.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It performs switching decisions and forwarding for the VEM.
B. It can be run on a virtual machine.
C. It can be used for remote VEM switching line cards.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 15
When a fabric switch is put into NPV mode what two results will occur? (Choose two.)
A. FLOGIlogin requests will no longer be handled
B. routing decisions using FSPF will no longer be made
C. enhanced zoning will be forced

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 16
Which two requirements must be met to support a VSAN in the Cisco UCS? (Choose two.)
A. the default VSAN is preconfigured into the Cisco UCS Manager
B. the VSAN must be associated with a vHBA
C. the VSAN must be configured globally in the UCS Manager
D. the VSAN and the domain ID must be the same

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 17
On what basis are world wide node names assigned?
A. per-service profile
B. per-compute node
C. per-group
D. per-VSAN

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which three statements about Server Pools in the Cisco UCS are true? (Choose three.)
A. Pools are manually populated.
B. Poolsare automatically populated.
C. Compute nodes can be in only one pool at a time.
D. Compute nodes can be in multiple pools simultaneously.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 19
What is the advantage of using a floating management IP address for the Cisco UCS 6100 Fabric interconnects?
A. allows only the management interfaces to run active / active.
B. allows both the management interfaces and the data traffic to run active / active
C. allows for seamless failover
D. allows for configuration changes on one interconnect to be automatically replicated on the other interconnect

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which two statements regarding configuring high availability in the Cisco UCS is correct? (Choose two.)
A. High availability is enabled during the configuration of either HSRP or VRRP from global configuration mode.
B. High availability is configured during the initial setup of both Fabric Interconnects.
C. High availability can only be configured via the CMC.
D. High availability is enabled during the initialconfiguration of one of the Fabric Interconnects.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 21
Which entity is critical to allowing Service Profiles to be portable?
A. VSANs
B. Port Channels
C. FCID
D. WWN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which statement about a Service Profile is most accurate?
A. associated with a pool of blades
B. represents a group of physical blades
C. stores connectivity requirements

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QUESTION: 1
Which default value do the Job Code table and Location table have in common?

A. Salary Plan
B. Work Period
C. Tax Location
D. Standard Hours
E. Establishment ID
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2 Which three statements describe the benefits of using tableset sharing in the PeopleSoft system? (Choose three.)
A. Tableset sharing uses SetID to restrict or grant access to data within a table.
B. Tableset sharing allows organizations to track and report business information.
C. Tableset sharing enables organizations to group rows of data within a control table by using a high-level key called a SetID.
D. Tableset sharing uses Department ID in conjunction with department security tree to restrict or grant access to data within a table.
E. Tableset sharing enables organizations to utilize indexing capabilities on mapped records for faster search results on employee data.
F. Tableset sharing enables organizations to share information instead of entering it multiple times, when large portions of data are the same for various business units.

Answer: A, C, F
QUESTION: 3 On the Job Data Work Location tab for a new hire, Company is a required field. You can default Company from the table.
A. Location
B. Job Code
C. Position Data
D. Business Unit
E. Holiday Schedule
Answer: C

QUESTION: 4 View the Exhibits.

Your client wants to set up a new department called ABC Headquarter for their newly acquired company ABC. The client shares the department and location information cross all business units. The HR Administrator has checked that the location code ABCHQ showed up under the Location Table Search Result page under SetID “Share”. However, when she tried to attach this location code to the new department she is trying to create, she got the error message. Which two setups may have caused the error message to be displayed? (Choose two.)
A. The Location SetID may not be valid for this department.
B. The Department may have an earlier Effective Date than the Location.

C. The Location and the Department may not belong to the same Business Unit.
D. The Location may have been inactivated before the Department’s Effective Date.
E. The Location may not be associated with the proper company that the department is attached to.
F. The TableSet Control table may not be set up correctly for the Record_Group Location and the Record_Group Department.

Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 5 Your client is implementing PeopleSoft HRMS system with Payroll Interface. The client is to start configuring Pay Group table. What table value should exist in the system before configuring Pay Groups?
A. Location
B. Company
C. Salary Plan
D. Salary Step
E. Salary Grade
F. Additional Pay

Answer: B
QUESTION: 6 Which PeopleSoft table do you use to identify a group of employees who share common pay characteristics?
A. Job Code Table
B. Company Table
C. Pay Group Table
D. Salary Plan Table
E. Salary Grade Tables
F. Comp Rate Code Table

Answer: C
QUESTION: 7 You are at your client site working on PeopleSoft HRMS implementation. One of your tasks is to add systemwide defaults in order to save time when a user is entering information in transaction tables. Identify which field is NOT a default option in the Org Default by Permission List component.

A. SetID
B. Country
C. Company
D. To Currency
E. Business Unit
F. Compensation Frequency

Answer: F
QUESTION: 8 Your organization has decided to use a department security tree for Row-Level security in PeopleSoft HRMS system. You decided to use the XYZ permission list to secure data using the Security by Department Tree component. Which step do you need to perform to ensure that Row-Level security is enforced?
A. Add the XYZ permission list to User Profile.
B. Add the XYZ permission list to Security Set.
C. Add the XYZ permission list to Tree Manager.
D. Add the XYZ permission list to Configuration Manager.
E. Add the XYZ permission list to a role and then assign that role to a user.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 9 Using a Permission List associated with a user and identifying security sets and access types in the Security by Permission List component of PeopleSoft are known as .
A. Role-based data permission security
B. Tree-based data permission security
C. Group-based data permission security
D. Country-based data permission security
E. PeopleCode-based data permission security

Answer: A
QUESTION: 10 Your organization has decided to implement row-level security. You suggested securing data by associating the company with people having jobs. This method of securing data is known as .

A. Access Type / Role
B. Permission List / Role
C. Security set / Access Type
D. Security set / Permission List
E. Permission List / User Profile
F. Access Type / Permission List

Answer: C
QUESTION: 11 Adam is entering new hire information in the PeopleSoft system. Adam enters the new hire personal information and creates the organizational relationship of the new hire as EMPLOYEE. After Adam establishes the new hire’s relationship with the organization, the system opens the JOB DATA page for Adam to enter the new hires job-related information. Adam decides to complete the new hires job-related information after his lunch break and cancels out of the JOB DATA page. What must be Adam’s approach to successfully complete the new hire’s job-related information in the PeopleSoft system after his break?
A. Enter job-related information using Job Data component.
B. Complete both personal information and job information at the same time.
C. Enter job-related information using the Add Employment Instance component.
D. Run SJT refresh process first and then enter job-related information using Job Data component.
E. Run SJTrefresh process first and then enter job-related information using the Add Employment Instance component.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 12 What should you do when system performance is affected and you no longer want to maintain all employee records on the Job table?
A. Purge employee data from the system.
B. UsePeopleCode to hide data on the Job Data page.
C. Access the Job Data page in Correct History mode and change the status to Inactive.
D. Insert a new effective dated row on the Job Data page and change the status to Inactive.
E. Change the description field on the Job Data page to state that this row is no longer active.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
Which three fields default from the Department table to the employee job data level?
(Choose three.)

A. Grade
B. Location
C. Company
D. Pay Group
E. Business Unit
F. Supervisor ID
G. Employee Type

Answer: B, C, F
QUESTION: 14
Identify the three types of organizational relationships that PeopleSoft HCM 9.0 has.
(Choose three.)

A. Trustee
B. Employee
C. Contractor
D. Board Member
E. Person of Interest
F. Contingent Worker
G. Global Payroll Employee

Answer: B, E, F
QUESTION: 15 PeopleSoft HCM 9.0 has several pages where you can access the Add a Person component. Identify four components that have an option to Add a Person. (Choose four.)
A. Job Data
B. Other Payee
C. Add a Person
D. Manage Hires
E. Modify a Person
F. Add Employment Instance Answer: B, C, D, E

QUESTION: 16 On the Add a Person page in PeopleSoft HCM 9.0, you can input all information about a person EXCEPT for these four details: . (Choose four.)
A. Ethnic Group
B. Bank Account
C. Military Status
D. Badge Number
E. Smoker History
F. Emergency Contact
G. Driver License Number
Answer: B, D, F, G
QUESTION: 17 Your client is using PeopleSoft HCM 9.0. It wants to pay some of its existing Persons of Interest (POIs). Which page in PeopleSoft do they use to set up their POIs for payment?
A. Job Data
B. Other Payee
C. Modify a Person
D. Add a POI Relationship
E. Maintain a Person’s POIReltn

Answer: B
QUESTION: 18 Your client has North American Payroll and Global Payroll. When adding an employment instance for a new hire, your client selects a payroll system to use for processing the employee’s payroll. Depending on which payroll system is selected, the input field names displayed would differ on the Payroll page except for two field names. Identify the two field names that are displayed on the Payroll page for both payroll systems. (Choose two.)
A. Paygroup
B. GL Pay Type
C. Eligibility Group

D. Employee Type
E. Holiday Schedule
F. Exchange Rate Type

Answer: A, E
QUESTION: 19 Which four components can be used to add a job instance for a person in PeopleSoft HCM 9.0? (Choose four.)
A. Manage Hires
B. Modify a Person
C. Add Employment Instance
D. Add Person of Interest Job
E. Add Contingent Worker Instance
Answer: A, C, D, E
QUESTION: 20 After inputting a department in Job Data, which four additional fields could be populated based on the defaults defined on the Department table? (Choose four.)
A. Location
B. Company
C. Paygroup
D. Tax Location
E. Business Unit
F. Supervisor ID
G. Establishment ID
Answer: A, B, D, F
QUESTION: 21 While you are entering a new hire into Job Data, you come to the Salary Plan page. You notice that the Salary Step field is populated. From which table did the default value come from?
A. Location
B. Job Code
C. Paygroup

D. Company
E. Department

Answer: B
QUESTION: 22
Your client has a contractor, who is already set up in PeopleSoft as a Contingent Worker.
It wants to hire the contractor as an employee. Which statement is true concerning its Job
Data setup?

A. A new Employee Record Number is created for the Employment Instance.
B. The Employment Instance is added to the same Employee Record Number.
C. The Contingent Work Instance has to be deleted before adding the Employment Instance.
D. The Contingent Work Instance has to be terminated before adding the Employment Instance.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 23 In which three scenarios would PeopleSoft create a new Employee Record Number (ERN)? (Choose three.)
A. when you assign a worker to a new position using the Job Data component
B. when you add an additional job to an employee or contingent worker using the Add Additional Assignment component
C. when you assign a worker to a full-time temporary assignment on the Job Data component and the system suspends the substantive job
D. when you add another organizational instance for a worker using the Add Employment Instance or Add Contingent Worker Instance component

Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION: 24
Identify two true statements regarding Temporary Assignments in PeopleSoft HCM 9.0.
(Choose two.)

A. Only the temporary assignment can be paid.
B. Both the temporary assignment and original instance can be paid.

C. The data on the existing employment record is kept active for the duration of the temporary one.
D. The original instance is copied to a temporary employment record and is kept in a suspended status.

Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 25
Identify two components where temporary assignments can be created for a worker.
(Choose two.)

A. Job Data
B. Other Payee
C. Add Additional Assignment
D. Add Employment Instance
E. Add Contingent Worker Instance

Answer: A, C

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QUESTION 45
What is the value of x?
function doJoin (a, b) {
return a + b;
}
x = doJoin(5, doJoin(3, 2));

A. 5
B. 10
C. “return a + b”
D. “doJoin(5, doJoin(3, 2))”

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 46
What item can be added to the Flash Player’s context menu?
A. About
B. Settings
C. Download
D. Flash Player

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 47
What is added to the Actions panel to include ActionScript in an external file named “actionlib.as”?
A. #include “actionlib.as”;
B. include(“actionlib.as”);
C. #include(“actionlib.as”)
D. #include “actionlib.as”
E. #include actionlib.as;

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 48
What class has an addListener() method?
A. Array
B. Button
C. Mouse
D. MovieClip

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
What changes are represented by DeltaPackets?
A. DataSets
B. RecordSets
C. DataHolders
D. SharedObjects

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
What is the value of y?
x = 3;
y = ++x;

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. Syntax error

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
What line of ActionScript sets an instance of the stand-alone Flash Player to full screen?
A. _fullscreen = true;
B. _root.fullscreen = true;
C. Stage.size(“fullscreen”);
D. fscommand(“fullscreen”, “true”);

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 52
What ensures all implementing classes will have a particular set of methods?
A. interfaces
B. behaviors
C. movie clips
D. polymorphism

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
What single class is the superclass of all other classes in Flash MX 2004?
A. Array
B. Object
C. Button
D. MovieClip
E. VisualObject

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
A single array can contain different elements that are different data types.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 55
What happens when a duplicateMovieClip() function is used to copy a clip, and a square, onto a depth that already contains another clip, and a circle?
A. square is placed on top of circle
B. square is placed underneath circle
C. circle is removed and is replaced by square
D. duplicateMovieClip() function fails (square is not copied)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 56
What is the result of the statement? myMC._lockroot = true
A. all animation stops in “myMC”
B. new objects cannot be instantiated in _root
C. references to _root inside of “myMC” will refer to the main Timeline of “myMC”
D. references to _root inside of “myMC” will refer to the main Timeline of parent movie

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
What native object allows a developer to save data to a client computer, assuming the user has given permission?
A. LocalObject
B. LocalCookie
C. SharedObject
D. SharedCookie

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 58
What shows a valid data provider assigned to a List component instance named “clProducts”?
A. clProducts.dataProvider = {label: “Flash MX 2004”, data: “flash”};
B. clProducts.dataProvider = ;
C. clProducts.dataProvider = ;
D. clProducts.dataProvider = {};

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 59
Where can breakpoints be applied in ActionScript? (Choose TWO)
A. Output panel
B. Actions panel
C. Any text editor
D. Debugger panel
E. Script window for external AS files

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 60
What best defines a breakpoint?
A. section of code that throws an error
B. point where the break keyword in a script is used
C. location set in a code where the debugger stops
D. point in a loop statement where the loop is broken out of

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 61
The following code was written to disable three Button component instances
(“button_1”, “button_2”, and “button_3”).
for(var i=0;i<3;i++){

this.enabled=false;
}
What is the actual result?

A. all three buttons get disabled
B. none of the buttons get disabled
C. does not compile because of a syntax error
D. only “button_1” and “button_2” get disabled

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 62
What conditions must be met in order to remotely debug a Flash application from a web server? (Choose TWO)
A. must have a remote Debugging policy file
B. browser is using the Debug version of the Flash Player
C. cross-domain.XML file specifies the web server domain
D. Flash application must be loaded over an HTTPS (or SSL) connection
E. SWD file is published with the Flash application and uploaded to the same location as the Flash application

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 63
What statement generates an error that can be handled by a finally{} code block?
A. trace
B. throw
C. break
D. catch

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 64
What file types are needed to use the debugger on a remote Flash movie? (Choose TWO)
A. SWF
B. SWD
C. RDF
D. FDP

E. RFD Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 65
What is the most efficient method to remove trace statements from compiled code?
A. comment out trace statements
B. manually delete trace statements
C. select “Omit trace actions” from the publish dialog box
D. remove only the contents of the trace statements but leave the trace function call

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
What elements in a Flash MX 2004 movie can the Property inspector alter? (Choose TWO)
A. Scene
B. Stage
C. Frame
D. Library
E. Symbol Instance

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 67
What are examples of absolute target paths? (Choose TWO)
A. mcCircle
B. this.mcCircle
C. _root.mcCircle
D. _level0.mcCircle
E. this._parent.mcCircle

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 68
What type of animation is NOT available for a shape until it is converted into a symbol?
A. onion skinning
B. shape tweening
C. motion tweening
D. frame-by-frame animation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
What are functions assigned to an object called?
A. methods
B. identifiers
C. keywords
D. operators
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
What tasks can be accomplished using the Project panel?
A. manage several Flash projects at the same time B. check-in/check-out files on a SourceSafe or FTP server
C. merge changes from two different versions of the same document
D. read and edit project notes that are shared among developers on the project

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 71
“dynClipName” is a dynamic variable with a string value of “mcCircle”.
What correctly targets a movie clip instance named mcCircle and assigns a value of 25 to its _x property?

A. this.dynClipName._x = 25;
B. this._x = 25;
C. this.._x = 25;
D. this(dynClipName)._x = 25;
E. this.(dynClipName)._x = 25;

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
What symbols or objects CANNOT have Timeline effects applied to them?
A. text
B. sound
C. bitmap images
D. button symbols

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 73
What code is inserted on the first frame of a Flash document to make sure that _root references work properly when the movie is loaded into a parent movie?
A. _root = this;
B. this.enabled = true;
C. this._lockroot = true;
D. this.rootlocked = true;

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 74
If a movie clip on the main Timeline has 10 frames, what is the minimum number of frames needed in the main Timeline so the embedded movie clip plays through completely?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 10
D. 11

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 75
What does the “this” keyword reference?
circle_mc.move = function(x, y){
this._x = x;
this._y = y;
};

A. circle_mc
B. move function x and y
C. timeline on which circle_mc resides
D. parent timeline of the circle_mc instance

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Where can breakpoints be applied in ActionScript? (Choose TWO)
A. Output panel
B. Actions panel
C. Any text editor
D. Debugger panel
E. Script window for external AS files

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 77
What file types are needed to use the debugger on a remote Flash movie? (Choose TWO)
A. SWF
B. SWD
C. RDF
D. FDP
E. RFD

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 78
What best defines the debuggers Watch list?
A. undefined/problem variables
B. series of time increments between breakpoints
C. list of variables you mark to view in a separate pane
D. list of variables that the debugger determines do not match the declared type for that variable

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
When can Flash Player 7 access data served from a different domain than the domain serving the SWF file?
A. never
B. only when an HTTPS connection is used
C. anytime the System.security.allowDomain() method is used
D. when a cross-domain policy file is used that specifies the SWFs originating server

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
What most accurately describes the proper method of embedding data into an HTML page that must be passed to a Flash movie? Modify
A. only the embed tag and use escape codes.
B. only the embed tag and use un-escape codes.
C. both the embed and object tags and use escape codes.
D. both the embed and object tags and use un-escape codes.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
What is a valid property of the new Flash MX 2004 Error class that contains information about an error that occurred within a script. (Choose TWO)
A. Error.value
B. Error.name
C. Error.output
D. Error.number
E. Error.message

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 82
What is required to enable the Flash Player to communicate over Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)?
A. Xtra extension available from Macromedia
B. nothing, Flash is unable to communicate over SSL
C. use of an applet embedded in the same HTML page
D. Flash must be playing in a browser that supports SSL

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
What are possible ways to connect the Flash Player with server-side functionality? (Choose TWO)
A. Flash Remoting
B. use the DataSet component
C. import a PHP script into a Flash movie
D. XMLSocket to send/receive XML data from an ASP page
E. open a direct port to a ColdFusion page and use server-side ActionScript within a Flash movie
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 84
What happens when Save and Compact is selected from the File menu?
A. removes unused items from the library
B. removes file space left over from deleted items
C. reduces the FLA file size using zip compression
D. compresses the SWF file with MX 2004 compression

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Netscape requires the “swLiveConnect=true” parameter in the <EMBED> tag of an HTML document so that
A. Real Player can stream live feeds.
B. real-time transfer of XML data is possible.
C. JavaScript can communicate with Flash MX 2004.
D. Netscape can download the latest player for Flash MX 2004.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 86
When playing from a projector, what sends the name and value of the variable “username” using the
POST method?
username = “fred”;

A. Flash MX 2004 is unable to POST from a projector.
B. getURL (“http://localhost/flashtest.asp”, “_blank”, “GET”);
C. getURL (“http://localhost/flashtest.asp”, “_blank”, “POST”);
D. getURL (“http://localhost/flashtest.asp?username=” + username, “_blank”);

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 87
What is true of the relationship between a subclass and a superclass? A subclass
A. is a simplified interface for a complex superclass.
B. receives the properties and methods from a superclass.
C. does not have a constructor and a superclass has multiple constructors.
D. is a class with only properties while a superclass is a class with both properties and methods.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
What assigns the my_mc MovieClips height the value of 100 if the variable myProperty=”_height”;?
A. my_mc.myProperty = 100;
B. my_mc = 100;
C. my_mc.”myProperty” = 100;
D. my_mc = 100;

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 89
What is a package?
A. directory that contains one or more class files
B. group of related functions that perform similar tasks
C. collection of compiled clips used for saving and distributing components
D. manageable cluster of layers that the user can expand and collapse to view only the layers relevant to the current task

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 90
What are benefits of Flash Remoting? (Choose TWO)
A. automatically parses custom XML
B. provides access to client hard disk
C. access server-side methods as if they are local
D. provides access to user Webcams and microphones
E. integrates external data sources directly with Flash UI components

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 91
What does the keyword “static” do to a property?
A. forces it to only return true or false
B. implements an implicit getter or setter method
C. assigns it as a nonchangeable property for all instances of that class
D. makes it a property of the class, as opposed to an instance of the class

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
A button component instance named “myButton” can trigger a custom function named “myFunction()”
using the following code:

myButton.setClickHandler(“myFunction”);
function myFunction(){
trace(“button clicked”);
}

Which approaches achieve the same result using the V2 button component? (Choose THREE)

A. myButton.addEventListener(“click”, “myFunction”); function myFunction(){ trace(“button clicked”); }
B. myButton.addEventListener(“click”, myFunction); function myFunction(){ trace(“button clicked”); }
C. myButton.addEventListener(“click”, myObject); myObject=new Object(); myObject.click=function(){ trace(“button clicked”); }
D. myObject=new Object(); myObject.click=function(){ trace(“button clicked”); } myButton.addEventListener(“click”, myObject);
E. myButton.addEventListener(“click”, {click: trace(“button clicked”)});
F. myButton.addEventListener(“click”, {click: function(){trace(“button clicked”)}});
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 93
What keyword is used to implement inheritance when using ActionScript 2 syntax?
A. proto
B. inherits
C. extends
D. prototype
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
What is the value of myResult?
var my_array:Array = new Array(‘one’,’two’,’three’,’four’); myResult = my_array;
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
What method of the TextField.StyleSheet class is used to add a new style to a style sheet object?
A. addStyle();
B. setStyle();
C. setNewCSS();
D. addStyleSheet();

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
What statement creates a local variable that is destroyed after the function has completed execution?
A. set myValue = 5;
B. dim myValue = 5;
C. var myValue = 5;
D. local myValue = 5;

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
What method creates an instance of a MovieClip symbol with a linkage name of “myMovie”?
A. myMovie=new MovieClip(“my_mc”,1);
B. myMovie.duplicateMovieClip(“my_mc”,1);
C. this.attachMovie(“myMovie”,”my_mc”,1);
D. myMovie.createEmptyMovieClip(“my_mc”,1);
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
How many interfaces can a single class implement?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. no limit
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 99
When using the loadVars() object, the Flash Player is restricted to loading variables that
A. have the same target.
B. have ASP or SWF suffix.
C. use the same Middleware.
D. are from the same domain.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 100
In order for Flash MX 2004 to read variables using a LoadVars object from a server-side application (i.e., ColdFusion, ASP, PHP or similar) the variables must
A. be in a row/column data format delimited by commas.
B. be URL-encoded name/value pairs delimited by commas.
C. be URL-encoded name/value pairs delimited by ampersands.
D. come from a database (Oracle, Access, SQL server or similar).

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
What returns the string value “red” assuming node is equal to color in the XML below? (Choose TWO) <color>red</color>
A. node.nodeValue
B. node.firstChild.nodeValue
C. node.textNode.nodeValue
D. node.childNodes.nodeValue
E. node.childNodes.nodeValue

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 102
What method is used to remove white space between nodes in an XML document?
A. Call the XML.ignoreWhite() method before loading.
B. Set XML.ignoreWhite = true, before loading the document.
C. Call the XML.stripWhiteSpace() method immediately after loading.
D. Use String.split(” “).join(“”) on a string representation of the XML object.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
What defines a class named “Car” that receives additional methods and properties from a superclass named “Vehicle”?
A. class Car inherits Vehicle { }
B. class Car extends Vehicle { }
C. class Car derives Vehicle { }
D. class Car uses Vehicle { }
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
Where are variables that are loaded via a LoadVars object referenced?
A. within an array
B. directly into a TextField object
C. on the timeline where they are loaded
D. in properties of the LoadVars object where they are loaded
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 105
What does Flash Remoting use to communicate with the Flash client?
A. AMF
B. SOAP
C. WSDL
D. XHTML

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 106
What is the valid syntax to set a property named “id” for an object defined below? (Choose TWO)
var myObject:Object = new Object();
A. myObject.id = “myString”;
B. myObject(id) = “myString”;
C. myObject = “myString”;
D. myObject = “myString”;
E. myObject.id.string = “myString”;
F. var id:String = myObject;
G. var myObject.id:String = “myString”;

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 107
What type of object does the setDataProvider() method of the ComboBox component accept?
A. Array object
B. Object object
C. TextField object
D. MovieClip object

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
A button instance is named circle_btn. ActionScript is placed on the main Timeline so that when the button is clicked a movie clip instance named rec_mc ‘ s width is changed to 100. What is the best code to perform this action?
A. circle_btn.onRelease = function() { this.width=100; }
B. circle_btn.onRelease { rec_mc._width=100; }
C. circle_btn.onRelease = function { rec_mc._width=100; }
D. circle_btn.onRelease = function() { rec_mc._width=100; }
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
Which property contains HTML text in the TextField object?
A. my_txt.text
B. my_txt.html
C. my_txt.htmlText
D. my_txt.textHtml

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 110
What is an example of correct syntax for calling a JavaScript function using a JavaScript pseudo-URL?
A. jsFunction:alert(“I am an alert message”);
B. getURL(“javascript:alert(‘I am an alert message’);”);
C. javascriptFunction(“alert(‘I am an alert message’);”);
D. getURL(“javascript”, “alert(‘I am an alert message’);”);

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 111
A single array can contain different elements that are different data types.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 112
What is true when using the duplicate Movie Clip() method?
A. _visible property of a movie clip is set to true upon duplication
B. duplicated movie clip can have a different parent than the source movie clip
C. movie clip that is at a depth of 4 will appear to be in front (or on top of) a movie clip that has a depth of 7
D. two movie clips can exist at the same depth and have the same parent provided they have unique instance names

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 113
What code creates an object named “person” with the two properties “name” and “age”?
A. person = {name:”fred”,age:24};
B. person = (name=”fred”,age=24);
C. person = new Array(name:”fred”,age:24);
D. person = new Object(name=”fred”, age=24);

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 114
Which option correctly defines a getter method that creates a property named “count”?
A. function getCount():Number { return _nCount; }
B. function get count():Number { return _nCount; }
C. function count():Number { return _nCount;
}
D. function getter count():Number { return _nCount; }

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
Assume a user has granted permission and the correct native object is instantiated into objectInstanceName. What method commits persistent data to the client machine?
A. objectInstanceName.exec();
B. objectInstanceName.flush();
C. objectInstanceName.save();
D. objectInstanceName.commit();

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 116
What correctly adds a listener object named “oListener” to a Button component instance named “cbtSubmit” such that the Button component will dispatch all click events to the listener?
A. cbtSubmit.addListener(“click”, oListener);
B. cbtSubmit.addListener(oListener, “click”);
C. cbtSubmit.addEventListener(oListener, “click”);
D. cbtSubmit.addEventListener(“click”, oListener);

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
What code displays the current date (based on the user’s clock setting) formatted like “3/31/2004” in the dynamic text field instance named “my_txt”?
A. var d:Date = new Date(); my_txt.text = d.getMonth()+”/”+d.getDate()+”/”+d.getYear();
B. var d:Date = new Date(); my_txt.text = d.getMonth()+1+”/”+d.getDate()+1+”/”+d.getYear();
C. var d:Date = new Date(); my_txt.text = (d.getMonth()+1)+”/”+(d.getDate()+1)+”/”+d.getFullYear();
D. var d:Date = new Date(); my_txt.text = (d.getMonth()+1)+”/”+d.getDate()+”/”+d.getFullYear();

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 118
What ActionScript commands allow sending data out of a Flash application to a server-side application? (Choose TWO)
A. getURL
B. onSend
C. onLoad
D. loadData
E. loadMovie
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 119
What type of data is best suited for use with XML functions instead of loadVariables?
A. single value
B. external MovieClip
C. complex hierarchical data
D. flat list of name-value pairs

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
Given the code:
function multiply(a:Number, b:Number):Number {
if(isNaN(a) || isNaN(b)) {
throw new Error(“Invalid datatype”);
}

else if(a == null) {
throw new Error(“a is null”);
}
else if(b == null) {
throw new Error(“b is null”);
}
else {
return (a * b);

}
}
try {
trace(multiply(1, null));
}
catch (erExeption:Error) {
trace(erExeption.message);
}

What is displayed in the Output panel?

A. 1
B. NaN
C. a is null
D. b is null
E. Invalid datatype
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 121
What method of the Color object is used to change the Alpha property of a movie clip with ActionScript?
A. _alpha
B. setRGB
C. setProperty
D. setTransform
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
What is the value for “answer”?

function power(n,p) {
if (p==1) {
result = p;

} else {
result = p*power(n,p-1);
}
return(result);
}
answer = power(3,2);

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 6
E. 9

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
What type of resource can Flash MX 2004 natively use to retrieve dynamic data? (Choose TWO)
A. Text files
B. XML files
C. Java class files
D. XSL documents
E. Oracle database

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 124
What native object allows two separate Flash movies to communicate with each other?
A. LocalObject
B. SharedObject
C. LocalConnection
D. SharedConnection

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 125
What is the value of y?
x = 3;
y = x–;

A. -3
B. 2
C. 3
D. Syntax error
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 126
Where must ActionScript 2 classes be located?
A. components
B. external files
C. frame 1 of _root
D. top layer of timeline
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 127
What is used to create frame rate independent script-based animations?
A. while
B. setInterval
C. gotoAndPlay
D. onEnterFrame

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
If the local date is Sunday, June 2, 2003 and the lines of ActionScript are executed, what is the value of myDay?
var my_date:Date = new Date(); var myDay:Number = my_date.getDay();
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Sun
E. Sunday

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 129
What defines a class member within an ActionScript 2 class that is NOT accessible to instances of the class?
A. hide var _nCount;
B. class var _nCount;
C. static var _nCount;
D. private var _nCount;
E. protected var _nCount;
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
What ActionScript error will occur for the code below?

function snap {
k = 42 % 0;
}

A. % is not a valid operator
B. function must return a value
C. function declarations missing parenthesis
D. there is no exception processing for a division by zero error
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 81
Which method returns an unused depth value within a MovieClip object?
A. getNewDepth
B. getHighestDepth
C. getNextHighestDepth
D. getUnusedDepth
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 82
What is the value of the variable “i ” when traced below? i = 0;
function runLoop(){
for(var i=0;i<10;i++){
}
}
runLoop();
trace(i);

A. 0
B. 9
C. 10
D. 1

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
What ensures that white space nodes are NOT included in the XML tree when XML data is parsed into an XML object named “xmlInitData”?
A. xmlInitData.removeWhite = true;
B. xmlInitData.ignoreWhite = true;
C. xmlInitData.removeWhite(true);
D. xmlInitData.parseWhite = false;
E. xmlInitData.ignoreWhite(true);

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
Given the code:
function multiply(a:Number, b:Number):Number { if(isNaN(a) || isNaN(b)) {
throw new Error(“Invalid datatype”);
}
else if(a == null) {
throw new Error(“a is null”);
}
else if(b == null) {
throw new Error(“b is null”);
}
else {
return (a * b);
}
}
try {
trace(multiply(1, null));
}
catch (erExeption:Error) {
trace(erExeption.message);
}
What is displayed in the Output panel?

A. b is null
B. NaN
C. a is null
D. Invalid datatype
E. 1
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 85
The following code was written to disable three Button component instances (“button_1”, “button_2”, and
“button_3”);
for(var i=0;i<3;i++){
this.enabled=false;
}
What is the actual result?

A. none of the buttons get disabled
B. only “button_1” and “button_2” get disabled
C. all three buttons get disabled
D. does not compile because of a syntax error

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Netscape requires the “swLiveConnect=true” parameter in the <EMBED> tag of an HTML document so that
A. JavaScript can communicate with Flash MX 2004.
B. Netscape can download the latest player for Flash MX 2004.
C. real-time transfer of XML data is possible.
D. Real Player can stream live feeds.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
What standards does the WebServiceConnector use? (Choose THREE)
A. WSDL
B. WDDX
C. SOAP
D. AMF
E. ATM
F. XML
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 88
What are benefits of Flash Remoting? (Choose TWO)
A. access server-side methods as if they are local
B. provides access to client hard disk
C. provides access to user Webcams and microphones
D. automatically parses custom XML
E. integrates external data sources directly with Flash UI components

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 89
What happens when a duplicateMovieClip() function is used to copy a clip, and a square, onto a depth that already contains another clip, and a circle?
A. duplicateMovieClip() function fails (square is not copied)
B. square is placed on top of circle
C. square is placed underneath circle
D. circle is removed and is replaced by square

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
What happens when Save and Compact is selected from the File menu?
A. reduces the FLA file size using zip compression
B. removes file space left over from deleted items
C. removes unused items from the library
D. compresses the SWF file with MX 2004 compression

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91
What file types are needed to use the debugger on a remote Flash movie? (Choose TWO)
A. RDF
B. SWF
C. SWD
D. RFD
E. FDP

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 92
What are examples of absolute target paths? (Choose TWO)
A. this._parent.mcCircle
B. mcCircle
C. _level0.mcCircle
D. _root.mcCircle
E. this.mcCircle

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 93
What are possible ways to connect the Flash Player with server-side functionality? (Choose TWO)
A. import a PHP script into a Flash movie
B. open a direct port to a ColdFusion page and use server-side ActionScript within a Flash movie
C. Flash Remoting
D. use the DataSet component
E. XMLSocket to send/receive XML data from an ASP page
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 94
What single class is the superclass of all other classes in Flash MX 2004?
A. Array
B. MovieClip
C. VisualObject
D. Button
E. Object
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 95
What is required to enable the Flash Player to communicate over Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)?
A. Flash must be playing in a browser that supports SSL
B. use of an applet embedded in the same HTML page
C. nothing, Flash is unable to communicate over SSL
D. Xtra extension available from Macromedia

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
A button component instance named “myButton” can trigger a custom function named “myFunction()”
using the following code:
myButton.setClickHandler(“myFunction”);
function myFunction(){
trace(“button clicked”);
}
Which approaches achieve the same result using the V2 button component? (Choose THREE)

A. myButton.addEventListener(“click”, {click: trace(“button clicked”)});
B. myButton.addEventListener(“click”, {click: function(){trace(“button clicked”)}});
C. myButton.addEventListener(“click”, myObject); myObject=new Object(); myObject.click=function(){ trace(“button clicked”); }
D. myButton.addEventListener(“click”, “myFunction”); function myFunction(){ trace(“button clicked”); }
E. myButton.addEventListener(“click”, myFunction); function myFunction(){ trace(“button clicked”); }
F. myObject=new Object(); myObject.click=function(){ trace(“button clicked”); } myButton.addEventListener(“click”, myObject);
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 97
Where are ActionScript 2 classes defined?
A. CLASS
B. ASR
C. AS
D. FLP
E. ASC

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
What native object allows a developer to save data to a client computer, assuming the user has given permission?
A. SharedCookie
B. LocalCookie
C. SharedObject
D. LocalObject

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 99
What type of data is best suited for use with XML functions instead of loadVariables?
A. complex hierarchical data
B. single value
C. external MovieClip
D. flat list of name-value pairs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 100
What defines a class member within an ActionScript 2 class that is NOT accessible to instances of the class?
A. static var _nCount;
B. class var _nCount;
C. private var _nCount;
D. hide var _nCount;
E. protected var _nCount;

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
What correctly demonstrates how to initialize an object named “myObject” with a property named “myProperty”?
A. myObject.myProperty = new Object {“propertyValue”};
B. myObject = newObject {‘propertyValue’};
C. myProperty = newObject {}; myObject.myProperty = ‘propertyString’;
D. myObject = new Object (); myObject.myProperty = ‘propertyString’;

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
What most accurately describes the proper method of embedding data into an HTML page that must be passed to a Flash movie? Modify
A. both the embed and object tags and use escape codes.
B. only the embed tag and use un-escape codes.
C. only the embed tag and use escape codes.
D. both the embed and object tags and use un-escape codes.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 103
How can a variable in a Flash MX 2004 movie be dynamically set at the time the movie loads?
A. by appending the variable in URL encoded form (Movie SWF?foo=bar)
B. cannot be dynamically set at the time of load
C. by using the #include directive
D. by using the loadAtRun() function

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 104
A movie clip with an instance name of colorChip resides on the main Timeline of a movie. What ActionScript is added to the main Timeline to create a new Color object, named currentColor, to control the color of the colorChip MovieClip?
A. currentColor = new Color(colorChip);
B. make Color (colorChip.currentColor);
C. currentColor.add = Color.colorChip;
D. colorChip = new Color(currentColor);

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 105
What functionality does Flash Remoting provide to Flash applications?
A. make calls to methods of a server-side service
B. real-time communication to two or more Flash clients
C. bypass Flash sandbox security in order to load content from remote domains
D. debug application from any location

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 106
What are functions assigned to an object called?
A. identifiers
B. operators
C. methods
D. keywords

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 107
What type of resource can Flash MX 2004 natively use to retrieve dynamic data? (Choose TWO)
A. Oracle database
B. XSL documents
C. XML files
D. Java class files
E. Text files

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 108
What is a package?
A. group of related functions that perform similar tasks
B. directory that contains one or more class files
C. collection of compiled clips used for saving and distributing components
D. manageable cluster of layers that the user can expand and collapse to view only the layers relevant to the current task

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 109
What does the keyword “static” do to a property?
A. makes it a property of the class, as opposed to an instance of the class
B. assigns it as a nonchangeable property for all instances of that class
C. forces it to only return true or false
D. implements an implicit getter or setter method

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 110
How many classes can a single class extend?
A. 0
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
E. 2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
What is the value of y?
x = 3;
y = x–;

A. 3
B. Syntax error
C. 2
D. -3

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 112
In order for Flash MX 2004 to read variables using a LoadVars object from a server-side application (i.e., ColdFusion, ASP, PHP or similar) the variables must
A. be URL-encoded name/value pairs delimited by ampersands.
B. be URL-encoded name/value pairs delimited by commas.
C. come from a database (Oracle, Access, SQL server or similar).
D. be in a row/column data format delimited by commas.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 113
Assume a user has granted permission and the correct native object is instantiated into objectInstanceName. What method commits persistent data to the client machine?
A. objectInstanceName.exec();
B. objectInstanceName.flush();
C. objectInstanceName.commit();
D. objectInstanceName.save();

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
What does this code display in the output window? var myEmployees:LoadVars = new LoadVars();
myEmployees.Address = “275 Grove Street”;
myEmployees.fname = “Jeremy”;
trace (myEmployees.toString());

A. blank output window
B. fname=”Jeremy”&Address=”275%20Grove%20Street”
C. fname=Jeremy&Address=275%20Grove%20Street
D. &fname=Jeremy&Address=275%20Grove%20Street&

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 115
What does Flash Remoting use to communicate with the Flash client?
A. WSDL
B. XHTML
C. SOAP
D. AMF

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 116
After a ScrollPane component instance completes loading external content (SWF or JPG), what event does it dispatch to its listener objects?
A. loaded
B. success
C. complete
D. finished
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 84
What property of myMC is referenced in order to rotate a MovieClip instance named myMC using ActionScript?
A. myMC.rotate
B. myMC.offSet
C. myMC._degrees
D. myMC._rotation

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
What method of creating an invisible button is the least efficient and NOT good practice?
A. Using the _hitarea of a movie clip to define the active area of the button/movie clip.
B. Drawing the button and using the Property inspector to set the alpha channel to zero.
C. Inserting a keyframe into the Hit state of the Button symbol and defining the button there.
D. Reusing an invisible button from the library and using the free transform tool to adjust the size.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
What makes a MovieClip instance named myMC invisible?
A. myMC.setVisible(0);
B. myMC._visibility = 1;
C. myMC._visible = false;
D. myMC.setVisibility(1);
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 87
What statements are correct? (Choose TWO)
A. For optimal file size, shapes should be animated using individual keyframes.
B. Graphic symbol instances may be animated through use of the onEnterFrame event of the MovieClip class.
C. When an onEnterFrame event handler is used for animation, the animation will occur at the movie frame rate.
D. A MovieClip symbol instance may be animated through use of a Motion Tween effect applied to the frames in which the instance resides.
E. The screen is automatically redrawn following each execution of a function called as a timed event through use of the setInterval() global function.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 88
What must the text be to apply a shape tween to text?
A. exported with font outlines
B. converted to “Static” behavior
C. broken apart until converted to vector shapes
D. converted to a symbol with MovieClip behavior

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
What happens when holding down the Alt key simultaneously while rotating a symbol’s instance using the Free Transform tool?
A. additionally skews the object
B. constrains the rotation to 45-degree turns
C. constrains the instance to it’s own center point
D. rotates the instance based on the opposite corner of your cursor

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
What loads a SWF file named “my.swf” into a MovieClip instance named myMC? (Choose TWO)
A. loadMovie(my.swf, myMC);
B. loadMovie(“my.swf”, myMC);
C. my.swf.loadMovie(“myMC”);
D. myMC.loadMovie(“my.swf”);
E. loadMovieNum(“my.swf”, myMC);
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 91
How is a comment specified in ActionScript?
A. use the note taking feature
B. place in a layer called “actions/labels”
C. place brackets (<>) around the comment
D. enter two forward (//) slashes at the beginning of the comment
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
What statements are correct? (Choose THREE)
A. Static text fields can be converted into shapes.
B. Motion Tween effects may be applied to static text fields.
C. Shape Tween effects may be applied to static text fields.
D. If a MovieClip symbol instance is given a name, then duplicated, the duplicate will be automatically given the same instance name with the word copy added.
E. If a timeline layer is hidden using the Timeline, the contents of that layer will be invisible at runtime.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 93
Why use the Ease-In / Ease-Out option when creating an animation tween?
A. create a morphing effect on a tweened object
B. properly orient your object on the tweens trajectory path
C. create an acceleration or deceleration of a tweened object
D. keep a constant rate of change between frames of a tweened object

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 94
What is an example of relative targeting?
A. _root.item._x
B. _level0.item._x
C. _level1.item._x
D. _parent.item._x

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 95
What is an attribute of vector graphics?
A. scalable
B. pixel-based
C. GIF formatted
D. resolution-dependent

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 96
What options are available through the use of the Free Transform Tool? (Choose TWO)
A. modify a shape’s fill color
B. rotate around a transformation point
C. change a shape’s stroke thickness
D. alter a shape’s transformation point
E. transform a shape into a graphic symbol

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 97
What technique creates a custom color swatch that can be saved?
A. Sample color with Eyedropper tool
B. From system color wheel, create custom color
C. Create color in Color Mixer, select add swatch
D. Select Load Default Colors from Color Swatches panel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 98
What best defines device fonts?
A. fonts made specifically for Flash
B. fonts found in a users Fonts folder
C. fonts embedded into a Flash document
D. fonts broken apart in a Flash document

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 99
What property of the TextField class removes extra white space from a text field displaying HTML content when set to TRUE?
A. TextField.trimWhite
B. TextField.removeWhite
C. TextField.ignoreWhite
D. TextField.condenseWhite

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
What is the minimum number of frames on the main Timeline for an 18-frame Graphic symbol to play in its entirety?
A. 1
B. 9
C. 18
D. 36

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
When are Graphic symbols best used?
A. integrating sound
B. static backgrounds
C. interactive controls
D. attaching ActionScript
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
What are correct statements concerning symbol instances? (Choose TWO)
A. Graphic symbol instances may be directly controlled using ActionScript.
B. The Hit State of a Button symbol instance is invisible at runtime.
C. A MovieClip symbol instance may have a different frame rate than the main Timeline.
D. If a fill color in a Graphic symbol is changed, all instances of that Graphic symbol are changed.
E. The X / Y placement of a symbol instance is calculated from the lower left hand corner of the Main Timeline or parent MovieClip symbol instance.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 103
What is affected by the registration point of a Macromedia Flash object? (Choose TWO)
A. color
B. sound
C. file size
D. animation
E. transformations

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 104
What is the ActionScript 2.0 code that defines a LoadVars object?
A. LoadVars.new();
B. myLoadVars.new();
C. LoadVars.createNew();
D. var myLoadVars:LoadVars = new LoadVars();

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 105
How is a symbol swapped from the Stage? (Choose TWO)
A. Click on the instance on the Stage, and click “Change Symbol” from the Info panel. Select the new symbol and click “Ok”.
B. Click on the instance on the Stage, and click “Swap” from the Property inspector. Select the new symbol and click “Ok”.
C. Click on the instance in the Library, and from the Library panel menu select “Swap Instances”. Select the new symbol and click “Ok”.
D. Click on the instance on the Stage and select from the menu, Modify > Symbol > Swap Symbol. Select the new symbol and click “Ok”.
E. Click on the instance on the Stage and select from the menu, Edit > Modify Symbols > Swap. Select the new symbol and click “Ok”.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 106
What color system CANNOT be designated in the Color Mixer?
A. Hex
B. HSB
C. RGB
D. CMYK
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 107
What is the purpose of skinning a component?
A. reduces excess code and trim file size
B. alters the behavior of component code
C. presents custom interfaces on reusable code
D. makes version 2 components work in Flash 6
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 108
How is both the fill and stroke of an object selected?
A. use Selection tool and single-click the fill
B. use Selection tool and double-click the fill
C. use Selection tool and double-click the stroke
D. use Selection tool and single-click the stroke

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 109
What tool is used to apply strokes to shapes?
A. Eye Dropper
B. Paint Bucket
C. Ink Bottle
D. Pencil

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 110
What can the LoadVars class be used for?
A. stream MP3 sounds
B. load PNG images into movie clips
C. create text fields programmatically
D. load data from text files on the server

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 111
What symbol types can be given an instance name? (Choose TWO)
A. Video
B. Button
C. Bitmap
D. Graphic
E. MovieClip

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 112
An instance of a symbol is on the Stage with known x and y coordinates.
When double-clicking on this symbol why do the x and y coordinates change?
A. x and y coordinates reverse
B. registration point of the instance is reset to its center
C. object moves to the upper left hand corner of the Stage
D. measures the position of the artwork relative to the center of the Stage in Symbol Editing mode

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
What is the most efficient way of changing the fill color of all instances of a particular symbol from red to green?
A. Select each instance on the stage, open the Effects panel, and change the color to green using Tint.
B. Select each instance on the stage, open the Effects panel, and change the color to green using the Advanced settings.
C. Select the symbol in Symbol Editing mode, and change the fill color of the symbol to green.
D. Select the symbol in Symbol Editing mode, and change the fill color of the symbol to green. Then update each instance on the stage with the new version.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 114
What Paint Bucket tool option is used to apply a single gradient across multiple selected shapes on the Stage?
A. Faucet
B. Lock Fill
C. Magic Wand
D. Transform Fill

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
What Color Mixer Fill Style options allow the creation of gradients? (Choose TWO)
A. Solid
B. Linear
C. Radial
D. Bitmap
E. Gradient

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 116
What is affected by enabling/disabling the “Auto kern” option?
A. Line spacing
B. Character spacing
C. Paragraph indent
D. Character aliasing

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 117
What are three possible ways to make movie clips respond to mouse events? (Choose THREE)
A. Attach an “on()” event handler to a MovieClip instance.
B. Select Enable Simple Buttons from the Control menu.
C. Select a MovieClip instance and choose Modify > Convert to Button.
D. Assign a function to a mouse event handler for a MovieClip instance.
E. Attach a button event handler to a MovieClip instance and add the frame labels :_up” “_over”, and “_down” to its Timeline.
F. Right-click (Windows) or control-click (MAC) on a MovieClip instance, and choose Context > Set as Button.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 118
What happens when you double-click the icon of a symbol in the library?
A. Macromedia Flash switches to Symbol Editing mode.
B. Macromedia Flash displays the Symbol Properties window.
C. Macromedia Flash deletes the current layers in the timeline.
D. Macromedia Flash places an instance of the symbol on the Stage.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
What are ways to identify areas of a movie that need file size optimization? (Choose TWO)
A. generating a size report
B. using the Movie Explorer
C. using the Bandwidth Profiler
D. scrubbing through the movie in the timeline
E. using the Select Unused Items option in the library

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 120
What should be kept to a minimum in any Macromedia Flash file in order to enhance playback optimization? (Choose TWO)
A. Layers
B. Gradients
C. Device Fonts
D. Graphic symbols
E. Alpha Transparency

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 121
What will adding a preloader to your movie do?
A. allows the movie to playback faster
B. asks user for a password to view the movie
C. allows the movie to be saved locally before playback
D. prevents the movie from playing until a predetermined amount of frames are loaded

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
What is the most highly processor intensive animation technique?
A. alpha effects
B. motion tween
C. onion skinning
D. brightness effects
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 123
What does the “Open as Library” menu allow?
A. convert a symbol into a library item
B. open the library of current document
C. open libraries from other graphic programs
D. open libraries from other Macromedia Flash Files
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 124
What QuickTime format can Flash MX 2004 export?
A. QuickTime format specified into the QuickTime tab of the Publish Settings dialog box
B. format that supports the version of the Flash Player selected in the Publish Settings dialog box
C. same QuickTime format that is installed on the system where Flash MX 2004 is also installed
D. Flash MX 2004 and Flash MX Professional 2004 do not export documents into any QuickTime format

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 125
What is a Panel Set used for?
A. storing a user interface layout for sharing and later use
B. setting the resolution of Copy and Paste operations involving bitmaps
C. customizing Macromedia Flash options and activating certain features
D. retrieving additional support information from Macromedia Answers database

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 126
What sound compression format is best for high quality short sounds, such as button sounds?
A. MP3
B. WAV
C. Voice
D. ADPCM

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 127
Name the two types of graphs available when using the Bandwidth Profiler? (Choose TWO)
A. Bit Rate Graph
B. Byte Size Graph
C. Streaming Graph
D. Motion Frame Graph
E. Frame by Frame Graph
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 128
What are ways to optimize animations to reduce processor usage? (Choose TWO)
A. use embedded font families
B. remove unused symbols from the library
C. remove unused frames after the end of a tween
D. use tweened animations instead of series of keyframes

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 129
How is declining image quality prevented when publishing to a SWF if bitmap images are optimized prior to importing them into Flash?
A. Re-import the bitmaps in an uncompressed format.
B. Do nothing. Bitmaps aren’t compressed when the SWF is published.
C. Convert bitmaps to symbols so that they are not compressed by Flash.
D. In Publish Settings, under the Flash Tab, set the JPEG Quality slider to 100.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 130
What is the process called when you set the linkage property for a library asset so that it can be imported into other FLA files?
A. Authortime sharing
B. Runtime sharing
C. Asset sharing
D. Asset linking Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
An application developer has tested some of the known exploits within a new application. Which of the following should the administrator utilize to test for unidentified faults or memory leaks?
A. XSRF Attacks
B. Fuzzing
C. Input Validations
D. SQL Injections
Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 22
A recent review of accounts on various systems has found that after employees’ passwords are required to change they are recycling the same password as before. Which of the following policies should be enforced to prevent this from happening? (Select TWO).
A. Reverse encryption
B. Minimum password age
C. Password complexity
D. Account lockouts
E. Password history
F. Password expiration
Correct Answer: BE Explanation
QUESTION 23
An organizations’ security policy requires that users change passwords every 30 days. After a security audit, it was determined that users were recycling previously used passwords. Which of the following password enforcement policies would have mitigated this issue?
A. Password history
B. Password complexity
C. Password length
D. Password expiration
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 24
The system administrator is reviewing the following logs from the company web server:
12:34:56 GET /directory_listing.php?user=admin&pass=admin1
12:34:57 GET /directory_listing.php?user=admin&pass=admin2
12:34:58 GET /directory_listing.php?user=admin&pass=1admin
12:34:59 GET /directory_listing.php?user=admin&pass=2admin
Which of the following is this an example of?
A. Online rainbow table attack
B. Offline brute force attack
C. Offline dictionary attack
D. Online hybrid attack
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 25
A security administrator must implement a system that will support and enforce the following file system access control model: FILE NAME SECURITY LABEL
Employees.doc Confidential Salary.xls Confidential
OfficePhones.xls Unclassified
PersonalPhones.xls Restricted
Which of the following should the security administrator implement?
A. White and black listing
B. SCADA system
C. Trusted OS
D. Version control
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 26
An overseas branch office within a company has many more technical and non-technical security incidents than other parts of the company. Which of the following management controls should be introduced to the branch office to improve their state of security?
A. Initial baseline configuration snapshots
B. Firewall, IPS and network segmentation
C. Event log analysis and incident response
D. Continuous security monitoring processes
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 27
A large multinational corporation with networks in 30 countries wants to establish an understanding of their overall public-facing network attack surface. Which of the following security techniques would be BEST suited for this?
A. External penetration test
B. Internal vulnerability scan
C. External vulnerability scan
D. Internal penetration test
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which of the following controls should critical application servers implement to protect themselves from other potentially compromised application services?
A. NIPS
B. Content filter
C. NIDS
D. Host-based firewalls
Correct Answer: D Explanation QUESTION 29
Which of the following is a directional antenna that can be used in point-to-point or point-to-multi-point WiFi communication systems? (Select TWO).
A. Backfire
B. Dipole
C. Omni
D. PTZ
E. Dish
Correct Answer: AE Explanation
QUESTION 30
A large bank has moved back office operations offshore to another country with lower wage costs in an attempt to improve profit and productivity. Which of the following would be a customer concern if the offshore staff had direct access to their data?
A. Service level agreements
B. Interoperability agreements
C. Privacy considerations
D. Data ownership
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which of the following are examples of detective controls?
A. Biometrics, motion sensors and mantraps.
B. Audit, firewall, anti-virus and biometrics.
C. Motion sensors, intruder alarm and audit.
D. Intruder alarm, mantraps and firewall.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which of the following attacks impact the availability of a system? (Select TWO).
A. Smurf
B. Phishing
C. Spim
D. DDoS
E. Spoofing
Correct Answer: AD Explanation
QUESTION 33
Which of the following types of technologies is used by security and research personnel for identification and analysis of new security threats in a networked environment by using false data/hosts for information collection?
A. Honeynet
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. Port scanner
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 34
An organization processes credit card transactions and is concerned that an employee may intentionally
email credit card numbers to external email addresses.
This company should consider which of the following technologies?

A. IDS
B. Firewalls
C. DLP
D. IPS
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 35
A computer is found to be infected with malware and a technician re-installs the operating system. The computer remains infected with malware. This is an example of:
A. a rootkit.
B. a MBR infection.
C. an exploit kit.
D. Spyware.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which of the following, if properly implemented, would prevent users from accessing files that are unrelated to their job duties? (Select TWO).
A. Separation of duties
B. Job rotation
C. Mandatory vacation
D. Time of day restrictions
E. Least privilege
Correct Answer: AE Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which of the following would be MOST appropriate to secure an existing SCADA system by preventing connections from unauthorized networks?
A. Implement a HIDS to protect the SCADA system
B. Implement a Layer 2 switch to access the SCADA system
C. Implement a firewall to protect the SCADA system
D. Implement a NIDS to protect the SCADA system
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 38
The common method of breaking larger network address space into smaller networks is known as:
A. subnetting.
B. phishing.
C. virtualization.
D. packet filtering.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 39
While securing a network it is decided to allow active FTP connections into the network. Which of the following ports MUST be configured to allow active FTP connections? (Select TWO).
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22

D. 68
E. 69
Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 40
An administrator needs to secure a wireless network and restrict access based on the hardware address of the device. Which of the following solutions should be implemented?
A. Use a stateful firewall
B. Enable MAC filtering
C. Upgrade to WPA2 encryption
D. Force the WAP to use channel 1
Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 41
Which of the following helps to establish an accurate timeline for a network intrusion?
A. Hashing images of compromised systems
B. Reviewing the date of the antivirus definition files
C. Analyzing network traffic and device logs
D. Enforcing DLP controls at the perimeter
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 42
A security administrator must implement a firewall rule to allow remote employees to VPN onto the company network. The VPN concentrator implements SSL VPN over the standard HTTPS port. Which of the following is the MOST secure ACL to implement at the company’s gateway firewall?
A. PERMIT TCP FROM ANY 443 TO 199.70.5.25 443
B. PERMIT TCP FROM ANY ANY TO 199.70.5.23 ANY
C. PERMIT TCP FROM 199.70.5.23 ANY TO ANY ANY
D. PERMIT TCP FROM ANY 1024-65535 TO 199.70.5.23 443
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 43
A user has plugged in a wireless router from home with default configurations into a network jack at the office. This is known as:
A. an evil twin.
B. an IV attack.
C. a rogue access point.
D. an unauthorized entry point.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 44
When confidentiality is the primary concern, and a secure channel for key exchange is not available, which of the following should be used for transmitting company documents?
A. Digital Signature
B. Symmetric
C. Asymmetric
D. Hashing
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 45
It is MOST important to make sure that the firewall is configured to do which of the following?
A. Alert management of a possible intrusion.
B. Deny all traffic and only permit by exception.
C. Deny all traffic based on known signatures.
D. Alert the administrator of a possible intrusion.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 46
An administrator needs to secure RADIUS traffic between two servers. Which of the following is the BEST solution?
A. Require IPSec with AH between the servers
B. Require the message-authenticator attribute for each message
C. Use MSCHAPv2 with MPPE instead of PAP D. Require a long and complex shared secret for the servers
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 47
A recent audit has revealed weaknesses in the process of deploying new servers and network devices. Which of the following practices could be used to increase the security posture during deployment? (Select TWO).
A. Deploy a honeypot
B. Disable unnecessary services
C. Change default passwords
D. Implement an application firewall
E. Penetration testing
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
QUESTION 48
Ann, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) of a company, sees cloud computing as a way to save money while providing valuable services. She is looking for a cost- effective solution to assist in capacity planning as well as visibility into the performance of the network. Which of the following cloud technologies should she look into?
A. IaaS
B. MaaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 49
Which of the following is the BEST reason for placing a password lock on a mobile device?
A. Prevents an unauthorized user from accessing owner’s data
B. Enables remote wipe capabilities
C. Stops an unauthorized user from using the device again
D. Prevents an unauthorized user from making phone calls
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 50
When performing the daily review of the system vulnerability scans of the network Joe, the administrator, noticed several security related vulnerabilities with an assigned vulnerability identification number. Joe researches the assigned vulnerability identification number from the vendor website. Joe proceeds with applying the recommended solution for identified vulnerability. Which of the following is the type of vulnerability described?
A. Network based
B. IDS
C. Signature based
D. Host based
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 51
Joe is the accounts payable agent for ABC Company. Joe has been performing accounts payable function for the ABC Company without any supervision. Management has noticed several new accounts without billing invoices that were paid. Which of the following is the BEST management option for review of the new accounts?
A. Mandatory vacation
B. Job rotation
C. Separation of duties
D. Replacement
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 52
Ann, the network administrator, is receiving reports regarding a particular wireless network in the building. The network was implemented for specific machines issued to the developer department, but the developers are stating that they are having connection issues as well as slow bandwidth. Reviewing the wireless router’s logs, she sees that devices not belonging to the developers are connecting to the access point. Which of the following would BEST alleviate the developer’s reports?
A. Configure the router so that wireless access is based upon the connecting device’s hardware address.
B. Modify the connection’s encryption method so that it is using WEP instead of WPA2.
C. Implement connections via secure tunnel with additional software on the developer’s computers.
D. Configure the router so that its name is not visible to devices scanning for wireless networks.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 53
Joe analyzed the following log and determined the security team should implement which of the following as a mitigation method against further attempts?
Host 192.168.1.123
Successful Login: 015 192.168.1.123 : local
Unsuccessful Login: 022 214.34.56.006 :RDP 192.168.1.124
UnSuccessful Login: 010 214.34.56.006 :RDP 192.168.1.124
UnSuccessful Login: 007 214.34.56.006 :RDP 192.168.1.124
UnSuccessful
Login: 003 214.34.56.006 :RDP 192.168.1.124

A.
Reporting

B.
IDS

C.
Monitor system logs

D.
Hardening
Correct Answer: D Explanation QUESTION 54
Four weeks ago, a network administrator applied a new IDS and allowed it to gather baseline data. As rumors of a layoff began to spread, the IDS alerted the network administrator that access to sensitive client files had risen far above normal. Which of the following kind of IDS is in use?
A. Protocol based
B. Heuristic based
C. Signature based
D. Anomaly based
Correct Answer: D Explanation
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QUESTION 78
What is the best way to check and be sure the data from a SharedObject has loaded from the device and is ready for use?
A. Use the onLoad() event handler
B. Use the onData() event handler.
C. The getLocal() method automatically does this for you.
D. Create a custom listener using the addListener method

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 79
The following events are invoked when the XML has been received from the server (choose two)
A. result
B. onData
C. onLoad
D. onResult
E. complete

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 80
Your are using the attachMovie method. What happens when you attach two MovieClips at the same depth?
A. The second MovieClip replaces the first
B. Both MovieClips are unloaded and a run time error is created
C. The second attempt to attach a MovieClip produces a run time error
D. The first MovieClip remains in place and the constructor of the second MovieClip calls the getNextHighestDepth( ) method as a replacement for the value of 1

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
What code creates an object named person with two properties, name and age?
A. person = {name:Fred, age:24};
B. person = (name=Fred, age=24);
C. person = new Array (name:Fred, age:24);
D. person = new Object(name=Fred, age=24);

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 82
Given the following code:
var circle:TextField;
circle.onSetFocus=function (){
//
}

Which two lines of code will write the name of the instance with focus to the output window?

A. trace(this._target); trace(this._event);
B. trace(this._proto_); trace(this._instance);
C. trace(this._type); trace(this._name);
D. trace(this._target); trace(this._name);

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 83
Which function should you use to create an animation?
A. eval()
B. getTimer()
C. targetPath()
D. setInterval()

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 84
Which event in the LoadVars class is fired when the last byte of data has been retrieved from a server?
A. loaded
B. onLoad
C. onDataLoad
D. getTotalBytes

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
How is a fscommand2 different from fscommand? (Choose THREE)
A. fscommand2 executes immediately
B. fscommand2 returns a numerical value
C. fscommand2 executes only on a device
D. fscommand2 always prompts a user before executing
E. fscommand2 is limited to only Symbian-based devices
F. fscommand2 executes at the end of a frame it is put on
G. fscommand2 must be run on the very first frame of a MoveClip

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 86
What do the left and right softkeys do by default on a Symbian OS-based device while the Flash Lite Player is running?
A. left does nothing, right quits the application
B. right does nothing, left quits the application
C. left brings up the menu, right quits the application
D. right brings up the menu, left quits the application
E. A run-time error occurs, soft keys must be defined
F. A compile-time error occurs, soft keys must be defined
G. left is assigned to <Left> device key and right is assigned to <Right> device key

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 87
What happens when this code is executed?
(Choose TWO) retval = fscommand2( “GetDeviceID”, “ID” );

A. Flash player crashes
B. retval contains the IMEI string
C. ID contains the IMEI string for the phone
D. retval comes back with a numerical value
E. ID contains the unique phone number for the device
F. An error occurs, there is a compile time syntax problem
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 88
Which event is supported by the Key class in Flash Lite 2.0/2.1?
A. onkeyup
B. onListener
C. onKeyDown
D. CAPSLOCK
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
Consider the following FSCommand2:
requeststatus = fscommand2(“GetNetworkRequestStatus”); If the server returns a 404 error, what would the value of requeststatus be?
A. -1
B. 1
C. 2
D. 6

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
Which is used to create frame rate independent script based animations?
A. while
B. setInterval
C. enterFrame
D. gotoAndPlay

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91
Where must ActionScript classes be located?
A. In components
B. In external files
C. Top layer of the timeline
D. Frame 1 of the root timeline

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
Which two classes natively support the length property in Flash Lite 2.0/2.1? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. Array
C. String
D. XMLNode
E. LoadVars
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 93
If you attempt to play a video object on a device that does not support the video format, what must you do?
A. You must convert the video to FLV format
B. The video must be bundled within the SWF
C. The video must be loaded from an external URL
D. Nothing, the video will not play on the device and an error message should be displayed.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 94
What is returned when the following Flash Lite capabilities are run and the device does NOT support a feature? _capMMS _capLoadData _capEmail
B. 0
C. 1
D. true
E. false
F. variable is undefined

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 95
You are creating an application. When should you use a a graphic symbol instead of a MovieClip symbol?
A. when you have multiple nested MovieClips that contain
B. when you have a static background with NO ActionScript
C. when you have multiple frames of ActionScriptActionScript
D. when you have an animation that is independent of the main timeline

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
What actions will most significantly improve content performance on a device? (Choose two)
A. grouping drawn objects
B. reducing the vector graphics nodes
C. using more raster images than vectors
D. avoiding alpha transparencies and gradients
E. using only the colors present in the default color palette

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 97
Why is it considered bad practice to apply very detailed gradients to vector shapes in Flash Lite development? (Choose two.)
A. Most Flash Lite enabled devices do not support gradient colors.
B. Vector shapes with gradients cannot be resized to fullscreen size on the device.
C. Advanced display settings on the mobile device can block gradient colors from being displayed.
D. Gradients demand a high amount of CPU processing to be rendered which may affect the mobile device performance.
E. Mobile devices have a lower screen resolution compared to desktop computers, so colors can look different from the originally intended colors.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 98
What is wrong with the following code? _cap4WayKeyAS=2;
A. _cap4WayKeyAS cannot accept a positive value
B. _cap4WayKeyAS requires a list as an assignment; e.g. localList=”left,right,up,down”; _cap4WayKeyAS= localList;
C. _cap4WayKeyAS must be assigned to a string; e.g. _cap4WayKeyAS=”2″;
D. _cap4WayKeyAS is a part of capabilities and should be used as a read-only or as a test condition
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 99
In order to transfer a Flash file to a BREW device, the application file must be in the following format A. DLL
B. BAR
C. SWF
D. MOD

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
Which type of layer does NOT exporte any content or add bytes to the final SWF file when publishing?
A. Guide layers
B. Normal layers
C. Mask layers
D. Any empty layer that does not contain media

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 101
You want to determine if a device has SMS capabilities. Which property should you use?
A. _capHasSMS
B. System.capabilities.hasSMS
C. System.capabilities.hasMessaging
D. System.capabilities.hasConnection

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
What is the default quality setting when publishing Flash Lite content?
A. Best
B. High
C. Low
D. Medium
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
What is the value of myVar in the following command? myVar =_capCompoundSound
A. 1 if Flash Lite can process compound sound, 0 if it cannot
B. 1 if Flash Lite can process compound sound, undefined if it cannot
C. depends on the number of sounds the device can play simultaneously
D. depends on the number of sounds the installed version of Flash Lite can play simultaneously

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
Which ActionScript method should you use to access the SMS, MMS, and dialing capabilities for the OS of a phone?
A. getURL( )
B. getProperty()
C. setProperty()
D. FSCommand2()

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 105
Which command should you use to determine if a mobile device has network access?
A. FScommand2(“GetNetworkStatus”);
B. System.capabilities.getNetworkStatus;
C. FSCommand2(“GetNetworkConnectionName”, “myConnectionName”);
D. System.capabilities. GetNetworkConnectionName;

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 106
When playing a game written for the Symbian standalone Flash Lite player, what happens to the game application when a user receives a call?
A. Exits
B. Carries on playing while the call is in progress
C. The game restarts when the call is terminated
D. Automatically pauses until the call is terminated

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 107
When attempting to load XML that contains white space, such as tabs and returns, what does a developer need to do?
A. XML used by Flash Lite cannot contain white space
B. set the whiteSpace property of the XML object to true.
C. Set the ignoreWhite property of the XML object to true.
D. White space does not make a difference when using XML in Flash Lite.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 108
What is the most highly processor intensive animation technique?
A. Alpha effects
B. Motion tween
C. onEnterFrame
D. Brightness effects Correct Answer: A

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