Index

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QUESTION 122
Which IEEE standards are supported by Cisco Aironet 1200 Series access point? Choose three.
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11c
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11h
F. 802.11j

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 124
The ip verify reverse-path command implements which of the following on the PIX Firewall? Choose two.
A. performs a route lookup based on the source address
B. performs a route lookup based on the destination address
C. provides session state information based on destination address
D. provides ingress filtering

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
How do you check syslog information to ensure that it has not been altered in transit?
A. packets use CRC to ensure data has not been altered in transit
B. host IDS inspects the packet to ensure time stamps are concurrent
C. the firewall inspects the packet to ensure time stamps are concurrent
D. IPSec inspects the packet to ensure time stamps are concurrent
E. Syslog has no checking to ensure that the packet contents have not been altered in transit

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
According to SAFE IPSec VPN, which of these are recommended design guidelines for maintaining high availability? (Select three.)
A. When using VPN routers at the headend, use IKE keepalives for high availability.
B. When using VPN Concentrators or VPN firewalls at the headend, use IKE keepalives for high availability.
C. Regardless of the high-availability mechanism chosen, a headend device should not be deployed in a configuration that results in CPU utilization higher than 50 percent after failure.
D. Regardless of the high-availability mechanism chosen, a headend device should not be deployed in a configuration that results in CPU utilization higher than 75 percent after failure.
E. Cisco recommends running IKE keepalives in combination with routing protocols for resilience to assist in keeping the state current.
F. Cisco does not recommend running IKE keepalives in combination with routing protocols for resilience to assist in keeping the state current.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
Which is a component of Cisco security solutions?
A. secure connectivity
B. secure solution
C. secure availability
D. secure productivity

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Which statements define exponential backoff technique? (Select two.)
A. helps mitigate CAM table overflow attacks
B. deployed for BGP and OSPF protocols
C. determines the validity of an ARP packet
D. deployed for OSPF and IS-IS protocols
E. allows network to react quickly to topology changes
F. reduces the change rate in the Internet’s routing tables

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
According to SAFE, what is the expected behavior in a medium, single-site campus module sensor?
A. Review and tune as necessary the signatures specific to vulnerabilities in Web, DNS, FTP, and mail servers.
B. Generally, automatic blocking on this sensor should be avoided.
C. The number of alarms that these sensors generate is very high
D. This sensor detects and analyzes attacks originating from within the campus network as well as those that get through the WAN module.
E. The traffic that this sensor sees is not dependent upon the corporate security policy.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
According to SAFE, which statement is true about IPSec tunneling protocols?
A. L2TP supports data encryption and packet integrity.
B. GRE is better suited for site-to-site VPNs.
C. IPSec standard supports IP unicast and multicast traffic
D. GRE supports data encryption and packet integrity.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
How many options exist for remote user connectivity in the SAFE SMR remote user network?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 132
Which is a key server found in SAFE Enterprise network design edge corporate internet module?
A. database server
B. application server
C. URL filtering server
D. proxy server

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
What are the SAFE guidelines when routing information is exchanged with an outside routing domain? (Select two.)
A. Use exterior gateway protocols only
B. Use exterior gateway protocols that operate between routing domains and do not allow administrators to build and act on policies.
C. Use exterior gateway protocols because they allow administrators to build and act on policies rather than just on reachability information.
D. Use exterior gateway protocols or static routes.
E. Make certain that your outside peer advertises your routes to other peers for maximum reachability.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
What is the primary function of the firewall in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. provide connectivity to the Internet or ISP network
B. provide connectivity to the campus module
C. provide connectivity to the WAN module
D. provide connectivity to the LAN module
E. provide the demarcation point between the ISP and the midsize network
F. provide connection state enforcement and detailed filtering for sessions initiated through the firewall

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
What can mitigate the chance of a department accessing confidential information on another department’s server through the use of access control in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. general Layer 4 through 7 analysis
D. general Layer 1 through 3 analysis

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 68
What services do intranet VPNsprovide?
A. Link corporate headquarters to remote offices.
B. Link network resources with third-party vendors and business partners.
C. Link telecommuters and mobile users to corporate network resources.
D. Link private networks to public networks.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Intranet VPNs refer to connections between sites that are all part of the same company. As such, access between sites is generally less restrictive. Reference: SAFE VPN: IPSec Virtual Private Networks in Depth page 76
QUESTION 69
John the security administrator at Certkiller Inc. is working on purchasing three Cisco 3000 series concentrators. Which three models of the Cisco 3000 Series Concentrator can have redundant power supplies? (Choose three)
A. Model number 3090
B. Model number 3080
C. Model number 3060
D. Model number 3030
E. Model number 3020
F. Model number 3005

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Redundant SEP modules (optional), power supplies, and fans (Cisco VPN 3015-3080) Reference: Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrators – Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrator Data Sheet Reference: Cisco Courseware page 4-10
QUESTION 70
What type of authentication does the Cisco 3000 Series Concentrator use?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. CHAP
D. PAP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Full support of current and emerging security standards, including RADIUS, NT Domain Authentication, RSA SecurID, and digital certificates, allows for integration of external authentication systems and interoperability with third-party products
Ref:
Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrators – Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrator Overview

QUESTION 71
Which three models of the Cisco 3000 Series Concentrator can provide redundancy? (Choose three)
A. 3005
B. 3010
C. 3015
D. 3030
E. 3060
F. 3080

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Redundant 3000 series concentrators are: Cisco VPN 3030 Concentrator Cisco VPN 3060 Concentrator Cisco VPN 3080 Concentrator Ref Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrators – Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrator Data Sheet
QUESTION 72
What does the Cisco Unified Client framework provide?
A. Distributed push policy technology.
B. Centralized push policy technology.
C. Centralized pull policy technology.
D. Multi-tiered policy technology.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Utilizing “push policy” capabilities, the unified VPN client framework allows customers to centrally manage security policies, while easily delivering large-scale VPN connectivity to remote users. All of Cisco’s IPsec-based VPN products for the enterprise and service providers will support the unified VPN client framework. Reference: Cisco Extends VPN Leadership – Announces Unified VPN Client Framework and Multi-protocol VPN Solution at Cisco Partner Summit 2001
QUESTION 73
According to SAFE SMR guidelines, where do you implement the Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrator?
A. In front of the Internet access router.
B. Behind the PIX Firewall and parallel to the Internet access router.
C. Behind the Internet access router and parallel to the PIX Firewall.
D. Behind the corporate network module.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Reference: SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page 59

QUESTION 74
When configuring an IKE proposal on a VPN 3000 Concentrator, which of the following proposal names are valid?
A. Proposal Name: IKE-3DES
B. Proposal Name: IKE-3DES-MD5-DH7
C. Proposal Name: IKE-DH7-3DES-MD5
D. Proposal Name: IKE-3DES-DH7-MD5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrators – Tunneling Protocols Reference: Cisco Courseware page 6-59
QUESTION 75
James the security administrator at Certkiller Inc. is working on VPNs. According to SAFE SMR guidelines, what type of VPN uses primarily Cisco VPN optimized routers?
A. Intranet to extranet type of VPN.
B. Extranet to remote user type of VPN.
C. Intranet to remote user type of VPN.
D. Site-to-site type of VPN.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The VPN Acceleration Module (VAM) for Cisco 7200 and 7100 Series routers provides high-performance, hardware-assisted encryption, key generation, and compression services suitable for site-to-site virtual private network (VPN) applications. Ref: VPN Acceleration Module for Cisco 7000 Series VPN Routers
QUESTION 76
The security team at Certkiller Inc. is researching the SAFE SMR White papers. According to SAFE SMR, which Cisco router is best suited for a remote office?
A. Cisco router 1700 series
B. Cisco router 800 and 900 series
C. Cisco router 2600 and 3600 series
D. Cisco router 7100 and 7200 series

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
The VPN acceleration module (VAM) is available on what series of VPN optimized routers? (Choose two)
A. 1700 Series
B. 2600 Series
C. 3600 Series
D. 7100 Series
E. 7200 Series

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The VPN Acceleration Module (VAM) for Cisco 7200 and 7100 Series routers provides high-performance, hardware-assisted encryption, key generation, and compression services suitable for site-to-site virtual private network (VPN) applications. Ref: VPN Acceleration Module for Cisco 7000 Series VPN Routers
QUESTION 78
Which two models of the PIX Firewall make the VPN accelerator card available? (Choose two)
A. Model number 535
B. Model number 515
C. Model number 505
D. Model number 503
E. Model number 501

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
System Requirements
Operating System: PIX OS v5.3(1) or later (with DES or 3DES license) Platforms: PIX 515/515E, 520, 525,

535 (limit one per chassis) Reference: Cisco PIX 500 Series Firewalls – Cisco PIX Firewall VPN Accelerator Card
QUESTION 79
You are selling PIX firewalls at Certkiller Inc. What size network is best suited for the PIX Firewall 501?
A. Large enterprise or service provider
B. Midsize enterprise
C. Small office or home office
D. Small business or branch office

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Cisco PIX 501 Security Appliance delivers a multilayered defense for small offices through rich security services including stateful inspection firewalling, protocol and application inspection, virtual private networking (VPN), in-line intrusion protection, and rich multimedia and voice security in a single device. The state-of-the-art Cisco Adaptive Security Algorithm (ASA) provides rich stateful inspection firewall services, tracking the state of all authorized network communications and preventing unauthorized network access. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/vpndevc/ps2030/products_data_sheet09186a0080091b18.html
QUESTION 80
What size network is best suited for the Cisco PIX Firewall 525 or 535?
A. Small office or home office.
B. Small business or branch office.
C. Midsize enterprise.
D. Large enterprise or service provider.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Cisco PIX Firewall 525 is a large, enterprise perimeter firewall solution. The Cisco PIX firewall 535 delivers carrier-class performance to meet the needs of large enterprise networks as well as service providers. Ref: Cisco Secure PIX Firewalls (Ciscopress) Page 26
QUESTION 81
What does CBAC dynamically create and delete?
A. TCP sessions
B. Crypto maps
C. Access control lists
D. Security control lists

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: CBAC dynamically creates and deletes access control list entries at each router interface,
according to information in the state tables.
Ref:
Cisco IOS Firewall – Cisco IOS Firewall Feature Set

QUESTION 82
You are the administrator at Certkiller Inc. and you are implementing IDS to the network. Which model is recommended for IDS with at least 100 Mbps performance?
A. Model number 4260
B. Model number 4250
C. Model number 4220
D. Model number 4210

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Cisco IDS 4250 supports unparalleled performance at 500 Mbps and can be used to protect gigabit
subnets and traffic traversing switches that are being used to aggregate traffic from numerous subnets.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/vpndevc/ps4077/ps4079/index.html

QUESTION 83
What is IP logging, as defined for the Cisco IDS appliance?
A. IDS logs IP address information for hosts being attacked.
B. IDS logs user information from an attacking host.
C. IDS captures packets from an attacking host.
D. IDS logs IP address information from an attacking host.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In addition to the packet capture that analyzes the traffic to identify malicious activity, the IDSM-2 can perform IP session logging that can be configured as a response action on a per-signature basis. If configured as such, when the signature fires, session logs will be created over a pre-specified time period in a TCP Dump format. Ref: Cisco Services Modules – Cisco Catalyst 6500 IDS (IDSM-2) Services Module
QUESTION 84
An administrator claims he is receiving too many false positives on his IDS system. What is he referencing?
A. Alarms detected and logged by IDS.
B. Alarms detected by IDS and not acted upon.
C. Alarms caused by illegitimate traffic or activities.
D. Alarms caused by legitimate traffic or activities.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: False-positives are defined as alarms caused by legitimate traffic or activity.
False negatives are attacks that the IDS system fails to see.
Ref: Safe White papers; Page 8
SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks

QUESTION 85
For the first time you want to set up your IDS Appliance using IDM (IDS Device Manager): Choose the steps that you should take:
A. Specify list of hosts authorized to managed appliance.
B. Communications Infrastructure.
C. Enter network setting.
D. Specify Logging Device.
E. Signatures

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
1.
Specify host to manage appliance.

2.
Communication Infrastructure – Refers to names and IDs of the sensor and manager

3.
Network setting: IP address IP Netmask IP Hostname Default route Ref: Cisco Intrusion Detection System – IDS Device Manager Sensor Setup
QUESTION 86
DRAG DROP
Choose the tasks required for initial setup of the Cisco IDS appliance via IDM.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Choose the task required for initial setup of the Cisco IDS Appliance via IDM Initial setup of Cisco IDS appliance via IDM. Configure network settings Define list of hosts authorized to manage appliance Configure date and time Change password to account used to access IDM Not part of Initial Setup Configure signatures to block. Configure remote management services Set logging to remote device Configure secure shell settings Reference: Cisco Intrusion Detection System – IDS Device Manager Sensor Setup Reference: Cisco IDS Courseware page 7-24
QUESTION 87
Using the default, how does the Cisco IDS appliance log events? (Choose two)
A. Location
B. Type
C. Rule base
D. Effect
E. Severity
F. User option

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cisco Secure IDS Sensors can be configured to generate log file locally on the sensor. By default, the
sensors are configured to send alarms of severity of medium and higher to CSPM.
Reference:

QUESTION 88
Which model is recommended for an IDSwith at least 100 Mbps performance?
A. 4210
B. 4220
C. 4250
D. 4260

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Cisco IDS 4250 supports unparalleled performance at 500 Mbps and can be used to protect gigabit
subnets and traffic traversing switches that are being used to aggregate traffic from numerous subnets.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/vpndevc/ps4077/ps4079/index.html Incorrect Answers

A: Performance: 45 Mbps
B: No such model
D: No such model
QUESTION 89
The security team at Certkiller Inc. is working on securing their network. What is the primary identity component in a Cisco security solution?
A. primary identity component Cisco VPN Concentrators
B. primary identity component Cisco PIX Firewalls
C. primary identity component Cisco IDS Sensors
D. primary identity component Cisco IOS Firewalls
E. primary identity component Cisco Access Control servers

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Cisco Identity Based Networking Services (IBNS) is an integrated solution combining several Cisco products that offer authentication, access control, and user policies to secure network connectivity and resources. Cisco IBNS solution enables greater security while simultaneously offering cost-effective management of changes throughout the organization. IBNS and 802.1x are supported on all Cisco Catalyst switches, including Catalyst 6500, 4500, 3550, and 2950 switches, Cisco ACS Server as well as Cisco Aironet Access Points. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/netsol/ns110/ns170/ns360/ns373/networking_solutions_package.html
QUESTION 90
What is the default port for Cisco’s ACS RADIUS authentication server?
A. 1645
B. 1812
C. 1640
D. 1814

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Enabling EAP on the Access Point
Follow these steps to enable EAP on the Access Point:

1.
Follow the link path to the Authentication Server Setup page.
2.
Enter the name or IP address of the RADIUS server in the Server Name/IP entry field.
3.
Enter the port number your RADIUS server uses for authentication. The default setting, 1812, is the port
setting
for many RADIUS servers;
1645 is the port setting for Cisco’s RADIUS server, the Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS).
Check your server’s product documentation to find the correct port setting.
4.
Enter the shared secret used by your RADIUS server in the Shared Secret entry field. The shared secret
on the
Access Point must match the shared secret on the
RADIUS server.
5.
Enter the number of seconds the Access Point should wait before authentication fails.
6.
Click OK. Returns to the Security Setup page.
7.
On the Security Setup page, click Radio Data
Encryption (WEP) to browse to the AP Radio Data
Encryption
page.
8.
Select Network-EAP for the Authentication Type
setting. You can also enter this setting on the AP Radio
Advanced page.
9.
Check that at least one WEP key has been assigned a key size and has been selected as the transmit
key. If a WEP
key has been set up, skip to Step 13. If no WEP key has been set up, proceed to Step 10.

10.
Enter a WEP key in one of the Encryption Key fields. The Access Point uses this key for multicast data signals (signals sent from the Access Point to several client devices at once). This key does not need to be set on client devices.

11.
Select 128-bit encryption from the Key Size pull-down menu.

12.
Select the key as the transmit key.

13.
Click OK. Return automatically to the Security Setup page. Reference: Cisco Courseware Labguidepage 133
QUESTION 91
Cisco Secure ACS supports with of the following authentication methods? (Choose all that apply)
A. Radius
B. MPPE
C. PAP
D. TACACS+
E. PPP
F. CHAP

Correct Answer: ACDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ref: Troubleshooting Information for CiscoSecureACS http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/ access/acs_soft/csacs4nt/csnt30/user/aa.htm
QUESTION 92
What three authentication methods are supported by CSACS? (Choose three)
A. PPP
B. RADIUS
C. CHAP
D. TACACS+
E. PAP
F. Static passwords

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Reference: Cisco Secure Access Control Server for Windows – Release Notes for Cisco Secure Access Control Server for Windows Server Version 3.1
QUESTION 93
You are the administrator at Certkiller Inc. working on managing security on the network. Which two Cisco components encompass secure management? (Choose two)
A. Cisco VPN Concentrators
B. CiscoWorks
C. Cisco IDS Sensors
D. Cisco PIX Firewalls
E. Web Device Managers

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
The high availability of network resources in Cisco AVVID Network Infrastructure solutions can be optimized through: (Choose all that apply)
A. Hot swappability
B. Protocol Resiliency
C. Hardware Redundancy
D. Network Capacity Design
E. Fast Network convergence

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Determining how resilient a network is to change or disruption is major concern for network managers. This assessment of network availability is critical. It is essential that every network deployment emphasizes availability as the very first consideration in a baseline network design. Key availability issues to address include:
*
Protocol Resiliency

*
Hardware Redundancy
1. Network Capacity Design Ref: Safe White papers; Page 23 Cisco AVVID Network Infrastructure Overview – White Paper
QUESTION 95
Which of the dimensions of AVVID resilience themes represent the migration from the traditional place-centric enterprise structures to people-centric organizations?
A. Network Resilience
B. Communications Resilience
C. Business Resilience
D. Routing Resilience
E. Applications Resilience

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Business resilience represents the next phase in the evolution from traditional, place-centric enterprise structures to highly virtualized, people-centric organizations that enable people to work anytime, anywhere. Ref: AVVID White papers; 2 Cisco AVVID Network Infrastructure Overview – White Paper
QUESTION 96
According to SAFE, small network design has how many modules?
A. 2
B. 3
C. As many as the Enterprise architecture.
D. 5 E. 4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The small network design has two modules: the corporate Internet module and the campus module. Ref: Safe White papers; 10 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 97
Which commands are used for basic filtering in the SAFE SMR small network campus module? (Choose two)
A. Access-group
B. Ip inspect-name
C. Ip route
D. Access-list

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Ref: Safe White papers;
SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks

QUESTION 98
How many modules are in the SAFE SMR small network design?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The small network design has two modules: the corporate Internet module and the campus module. Ref: Safe White papers; 10 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 99
Which two devices in the SAFE SMR small network campus module should have HIDS installed? (Choose two)
A. Layer 2 switches
B. Firewalls
C. Management hosts
D. Desktop workstations
E. Corporate servers
F. Lab workstations

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Because there are no Layer 3 services within the campus module, it is important to note that this design places an increased emphasis on application and host security because of the open nature of the internal network. Therefore, HIDS was also installed on key systems within the campus, including the corporate servers and management systems. Reference: SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page 15
QUESTION 100
What two modules are in the SAFE SMR small network design? (Choose two)
A. Edge
B. Internet
C. Corporate Internet
D. Campus

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The small network design has two modules: the corporate Internet module and the campus module. The corporate Internet module has connections to the Internet and also terminates VPN and public services (DNS, HTTP, FTP, SMTP) traffic. The campus module contains the Layer 2 switching and all the users, as well as the management and intranet servers. Reference: SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page 10

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QUESTION 50
Which two Green data Center advantages will most likely be realized by implementing Cisco data Center virtualization? (Choose two)
A. environmental compliance
B. reduced transportation costs
C. lower cooling energy consumption
D. reduced material waste

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 51
Which two methods would most likely be used to address evolving regulatory requirements (such as SARS and privacy laws)? (Choose two)
A. business continuity plans
B. business cycle efficiency improvements
C. risk management strategies
D. network infrastructure maximization plans

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 52
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 18 Cisco 642-982: Practice Exam Which issue would most likely be considered a technical challenge to virtualization?
A. floor space footprint
B. Iayer 2 connectivity
C. spanning tree protocol
D. totaI cost of ovvnership

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 53
Which two business challenges does Cisco Systems identify as being met by the Data Canter Unified
Computing Solution? (Choose two.)
A. asset utilization
B. power and cooling
C. vlan deployment
D. separate infrastructures and support organizations

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 54
Which two steps would most likely be used to address the environmental aspects of a proposed data center solution? (Choose two)
A. Determine the type of firewall to be implemented
B. Identify physical access requirements for the facility
C. Determine operating parameters of the equipment.
D. Assess the environmental parameters of the facility
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 55
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 19 Cisco 642-982: Practice Exam
Identify two operational advantages when implementing Cisco Datacenter Virtualization(Choose two.)

A. Reduced complexity
B. Simplified Management
C. Reduced data center life span
D. Decreased resource utilization

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 56
Which change is most likely to occur when server density is increased by virtualizing servers?
A. increase in I/O throughput requirements
B. decrease in power efficiency
C. decrease in cabling costs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 57
A Cisco Unified Computing System as is configured as follow: -8 server blades -2 IOM modules -4 uplinks There is a need for 116 vHBAs Which statement is correct?
A. Both the CNA M71KR and VIC M81KR mezzanine adapters will support up to 128 vHBAs with HW failover supported?
B. The CNA M71KR mezzanine adapter is needed in this configuration
C. The CNA M81KR mezzanine adapter is needed in this configuration
D. Both the CNA M71KR and VIC M81KR mezzanine adapters will support this configuration but “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 20 Cisco 642-982: Practice Exam HW failover is not support

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 58
Which cost factor has the greatest impact when building a data center?
A. number of virtualized servers required
B. number of support personnel needed
C. size of the physical data center space

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 59
Which two of the following factors below are of the least importance when deploying virtual machines on the Cisco System Nexus 1000v? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Nexus 1000v must be deployed as a physical server
B. VSM can be deployed in a redundant mode.
C. The default VLAN is chosen as the default connectivity for all nNICs

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 60
Which three business pressures are most typically faced by data centers?
A. language barriers
B. government regulation and compliance
C. SLA metrics
D. global availability
E. technology silos

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 21 Cisco 642-982: Practice Exam Explanation:
QUESTION 61
Which of the following would be considered a Cisco unified Computing technical design criteria?
A. Increase the number of servers in the data center
B. Decrease security requirements
C. Simplify the Data Center architecture.
D. Reduce power costs while maintaining or increasing compute capacity Correct Answer: C

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 62
Which two benefits will most likely be gained by implementing a Cisco data Center Unified Computing Solution?
A. increased throughput
B. increased storage capacity
C. improved high availability
D. better cable management

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 63
Which two advantages are most likely to be provided by the Cisco Unified Computing System? (Choose two)
A. floorspace reduction
B. staffing reductions
C. lower power consumption

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 62
When the Cisco NAS is configured for Windows Active Directory SSO to which component in a Cisco NAC Appliance solution does the client make a request for a Kerberos Service ticket?
A. Microsoft Windows Active Directory Server
B. Cisco NAM
C. Cisco NAS
D. Cisco NAA

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
A college network administrator wants to restrict access to specific; targeted subnets by role such as student, administration, faculty and guest roles. How would this be accomplished using the Cisco NAM?
A. Define a bandwidth policy for each role that specifies the target subnets
B. Define extended Access-Control-list templates and apply each template to a specific user role
C. Define a host-based traffic control policy for each role that specifies the target subnets
D. Define an IP-Based traffic Control Policy for each role that specifies the target subnets

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
What is an exempt device?
A. A device that does not require posture assessment each time it logs in to the network
B. A device that does not have to go through certification while its MAC address remains on the certified list
C. A multiuser device that is configured as a floating device so that recertification is not required at each login
D. A single or multiuser device that is only recertified when another user of the device logs out and accesses the network

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which Cisco NAS Appliance out-of-band solution statement is correct?
A. The switchport access and authentication VLAN information is sent to the Access switch from the Cisco NAM
B. As a laptop device accesses the Cisco NAC Appliance network, the access switch sends the device MAC address to the Cisco NAS
C. Access switch to Cisco NAM configuration and status change messages are communicated via a proprietary protocol
D. All Client traffic flows through the CAS while access switch VLAN management is performed out of band

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
The NAS is configured to autogenerate an IP Address pool of 30 subnets with a netmask of /30, beginning at address 192.168.10.0. Which IP Address is leased to the end-user host on the second subnet?
A. 192.168.10.6
B. 192.168.10.5
C. 192.168.10.4
D. 192.168.10.7

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which Cisco NAC appliance out-of-band solution statement is correct?
A. Access switch to Cisco NAM configuration and status change messages are communicated via a proprietary protocol
B. The Swichport Access and authentication VLAN information is sent to the access switch from the Cisco NAM
C. As a laptop device accesses the Cisco NAC Appliance network, the access switch sends the device MAC address to the Cisco NAS
D. All client traffic flows through the CAS while access switch VLAN management is performed out of band

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
When trying to restrict a guest role to a specific library server using a specific protocol, such as HTTP, the administrator would create which type of policy?
A. Application-based Access Policy
B. IP-Based Traffic Control Policy
C. Role-Based Access Policy
D. Host-Based Control Policy
E. Host-Based Traffic Policy

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Exhibit: Your work as an network engineer at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. From a Drop-Down menu, profiles are applied to each managed port. Before a profile can be applied, where are the client access and authentication VLAN profile parameters to configured?

A. Controlled VLAN profile
B. Access Control profile
C. Switch Profile
D. VLAN Mapping Profile
E. Port Profile

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
A college network administrator wants to restrict access to specific; targeted subnets by role such as student, administration, faculty and guest roles. How would this be accomplished using the Cisco NAM?
A. Define a bandwidth policy for each role that specifies the target subnets
B. Define extended Access-Control-list templates and apply each template to a specific user role
C. Define a host-based traffic control policy for each role that specifies the target subnets
D. Define an IP-Based traffic Control Policy for each role that specifies the target subnets

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
SIMULATION
Network topology exhibit:
Cisco Clean Access Manager Exhibit:

You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Please study the topology exhibit carefully. Also examine the Cisco Clean Access Manager Exhibit. Certkiller .com has implemented a Cisco NAC Appliance solution. The internal server Certkiller C has been set up to provide HTTP and HTTPS services only. These services are only available for Certkiller .com internal users. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, has asked you to provide the following configuration tasks:
*
define a NAC Appliance IP-based traffic policy for the “Temporary Role”

*
configure the policy so that it is able to access this remediation server over HTTP and HTTPS for clients on the 10.158.10.0, 255.255.255.0 subhet.

*
after the configuration has been completed you must be able to launch the link to access the remediation server from the Certkiller B client computer.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
1.) Select “User Roles”
2.) At “Temporary Role” klick “Add Policy”
3.) Enter the Following Values:
Priority: 1
Action: Allow
State: Enabled
Category: IP
Protocol: TCP / 6 ( see
http://www.iana.org/assignments/protocol-numbers/ ) Untrusted: 10.158.10.0 / 255.255.255.0 / *
Trusted: 172.162.7.100 / 255.255.255.255 / 80,443 Klick “Add Policy”

QUESTION 72
You are implementing switch management in a Cisco NAM for out-of-band deployment. Once communication between the switch and the Cisco NAM has been verified, what is configured next?
A. Configure the Switches to use the appropriate SNMP settings
B. Configure group, switch and port profiles on the Cisco NAM
C. Add the switches that you want to control to the Cisco NAM domain
D. Configure the Cisco NAM SNMP receiver settings

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
A CA-signed certificate is returned from the CA authority and the private key on which the CA certificate is based no longer matches the one in the Cisco NAS. What should the administrator do?
A. Regenerate the certificates based on the FQDN rather than using the service ip address of the NAM
B. Import the single root CA or intermediate CA to .chain.crt in the admin console
C. Edit the Certificate files directly in the file system
D. Reimport the old private key and then install the CA-signed certificate

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74
Where is a local user validated?
A. At the authentication Server
B. At the Cisco NAA
C. At the Cisco NAS
D. At the Cisco NAM

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which Cisco NAS Appliance out-of-band solution statement is correct?
A. The switchport access and authentication VLAN information is sent to the Access switch from the Cisco NAM
B. As a laptop device accesses the Cisco NAC Appliance network, the access switch sends the device MAC address to the Cisco NAS
C. Access switch to Cisco NAM configuration and status change messages are communicated via a proprietary protocol
D. All Client traffic flows through the CAS while access switch VLAN management is performed out of band

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 51
Which Cisco NAC appliance out-of-band solution statement is correct?
A. Access switch to Cisco NAM configuration and status change messages are communicated via a proprietary protocol
B. The Swichport Access and authentication VLAN information is sent to the access switch from the Cisco NAM
C. As a laptop device accesses the Cisco NAC Appliance network, the access switch sends the device MAC address to the Cisco NAS
D. All client traffic flows through the CAS while access switch VLAN management is performed out of band

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
In an edge deployment of an in-band virtual-gateway Cisco NAC Appliance solution, how does the Cisco NAS ensure that authenticated client traffic arrives at the correct default gateway?
A. Managed subnets ensure that devices on different untrusted VLANs arrive at the correct default gateways on the trusted side
B. After authentication, the Cisco NAA using its cached IP Addresses, supplies the IP Address of the Correct gateway to the Cisco NAS
C. VLAN trunks are used to aggregate the traffic form the managed subnets to the Cisco NAS before forwarded to their respective gateways on the Layer 3 switch or router
D. Cisco NAS interface are connected to trunked ports to provide VLAN passthrough to the correct gateway

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Why are managed subnets configure in out-of-band virtual gateway mode?
A. Configures the Cisco NAS to map the managed subnet to the proper access VLAN
B. Configure the Cisco NAS with an IP Address in the untrusted VLAN that Cisco NAS can use to send ARP request in that particular VLAN
C. Configure the Cisco NAM management subnet so that all the Cisco NAM initiated traffic will be sent out on the proper management subnet
D. Configure the Cisco NAS management subnet so that all the Cisco NAS initiated traffic will sent out of the proper management subnet

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
A CA-signed certificate is returned from the CA authority and the private key on which the CA certificate is based no longer matches the one in the Cisco NAS. What should the administrator do?
A. Regenerate the certificates based on the FQDN rather than using the service ip address of the NAM
B. Import the single root CA or intermediate CA to .chain.crt in the admin console
C. Edit the Certificate files directly in the file system
D. Reimport the old private key and then install the CA-signed certificate

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
In a Cisco NAC Appliance Windows Active Directory SSO Deployment, what are the cached credentials and Kerberos TGT from the client-machine Windows login used for?
A. They are used to validate the user authentication and access with the Cisco NAM
B. They are used to validate the user with the Cisco NAS
C. They are used to validate user access with the Cisco NAA
D. They are used to validate the user authentication with eh backend Windows Active Directory Server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
A college network administrator wants to restrict access to specific; targeted subnets by role such as student, administration, faculty and guest roles. How would this be accomplished using the Cisco NAM?
A. Define a bandwidth policy for each role that specifies the target subnets
B. Define extended Access-Control-list templates and apply each template to a specific user role
C. Define a host-based traffic control policy for each role that specifies the target subnets
D. Define an IP-Based traffic Control Policy for each role that specifies the target subnets

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
When trying to restrict a guest role to a specific library server using a specific protocol, such as HTTP, the administrator would create which type of policy?
A. Application-based Access Policy
B. IP-Based Traffic Control Policy
C. Role-Based Access Policy
D. Host-Based Control Policy
E. Host-Based Traffic Policy

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
In a Layer 3 out-of-band deployment, which Cisco NAC Appliance component provides the Client-Machie IP Address to MAC address mapping?
A. Cisco NAS
B. Cisco Trust Agent
C. Cisco NAM
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco NAA

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
The NAS is configured to autogenerate an IP Address pool of 30 subnets with a netmask of /30, beginning at address 192.168.10.0. Which IP Address is leased to the end-user host on the second subnet?
A. 192.168.10.6
B. 192.168.10.5
C. 192.168.10.4
D. 192.168.10.7

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 72
What type of signalling is used for a circuit transmitted within the same channel as the voice?
A. PCM
B. SS7 Signalling
C. In-line Signalling
D. Common Channel Signalling
E. Channel Associated Signalling
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 73
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller .com. The Certkiller network uses VoIP. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the disadvantage of using VoIP rather than VoFR or VoATM are. What will your reply be?
A. Data can arrive out of sequence.
B. Networks are complicated to design.
C. Data units can arrive out of sequence.
D. Network failures are not automatically found.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 74
You are the network engineer at Certkiller .com. You have configured real-time call control processing on
the Certkiller VoIP network. You want to verify this configuration.
What command should you use?

A. debug voip rtcp
B. debug call control
C. debug voip ccapi inout
D. debug voip call control
E. debug voice call control Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 75
How do a-law and mu-law reduce quantization error?
A. Use smaller step functions at lower amplitudes.
B. Use smaller step functions at higher frequencies.
C. Increase code points at lower amplitudes.
D. Increase code points at higher frequencies.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 76
You have a pair of voice enabled routers that have the capability of supporting only medium complexity codecs. You need to conserve bandwidth on WAN links without major impact to call quality. Which codecs will satisfy these requirements? (Choose two)
A. G.729
B. G.729A
C. G.729B
D. G.729.AB

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 77
You are the network technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know
what does the connection tie-line command emulates.
What will your reply be?

A. A temporary connection to a PBX.
B. A permanent connection to a PBX.
C. A temporary connection to the PSTN.
D. A permanent connection to the PSTN.
E. A permanent connection to the network.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 78
What is the most important piece to implement if you are considering a VoIP infrastructure?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
A. QoS
B. Reinstallation of the PBX
C. A new Help Desk trained on Voice technologies
D. POTS installation documentation.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 79
Currently, unlike traditional phone service, IP telephone service is relatively unregulated by government.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 80
You are the network engineer at Certkiller .com. Certkiller has its headquarters in New York and branch offices in Delaware, Detroit and Denver. Certkiller has a traditional time-division multiplexing (TDM) based network with automated call distribution (ACD) private branch exchanges (PBX) and desktop systems. You want to add an IP telephony solution to the Certkiller network. What will enable server and agent-level IP telephony to coexist with the existing network?
A. IPCC
B. XLD-t
C. PBX-R
D. CiscoWorks
E. Call Manager

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
Calls between IP and PBX users can use all of the features provided by each system, and that subset is defined by the level of complexity of the voice interface between the IP network and the PBX.
A. Fake
B. True

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
QUESTION 82
Which will provide your IP Phones with an IP Address?
A. The technician, it has to be statically assigned.
B. Any DHCP server
C. The Cisco CallManager DHCP snap-in with CiscoWorks.
D. IP Phones do not need an IP address.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 83
What explains how the Cisco IP SoftPhone uses the Cisco CallManager?
A. The IP SoftPhone does not work with the Cisco CallManager
B. Cisco IP SoftPhone uses the services of the Cisco CallManager to route calls through an IP telephony network.
C. Any IP SoftPhone plugs directly into the CallManager IPSP jack for onsite support
D. The IP SoftPhone will use CallManager to reset all voicemail on the PBX.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 84
Which organization approved the H.323 standard?
A. ITEF
B. IEEE
C. FEMA
D. Bell Atlantic
E. ITU

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 85
When they are booted, the Cisco Access Digital Trunk Gateway DT-24+, the Cisco Access Digital Trunk Gateway DE-30+, and the Catalyst 6000 digital gateway are provisioned with Cisco CallManager location information. When these gateways initialize, a list of Cisco CallManager’s, referred to as a ______________ is downloaded to the gateways.
A. Cisco IPSP group
B. Call managed Cisco redundancy group Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
C. IPNC redundancy group
D. Cisco CallManager redundancy group

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 27
What is the best way to resolve most application/frameworks mismatches in Mac OS X 10.4?
A. Create a new user
B. Repair permissions
C. Run Software Update
D. Reinstall the application
E. Archive and install Mac OS X

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
What does starting up in Safe Mode in Mac OS X 10.4 do?
A. It disables Auto-login
B. It disable all Startup items
C. It disables all non-system fonts
D. It moves font caches to the trash
E. It disables only Non-Apple Startup items

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Mac OS X 10.4 Disk Utility lets you run Verify Disk on the current startup volume.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Which two options should be used when Disk Utility cant repair a disk in Mac OS X 10.4?
A. Back up the data, and erase and install Mac OS X
B. Archive and install Mac OS X preserving user and network settings
C. Click Repair Disk one more time to see if a second attempt resolves the issue
D. Archive and Install Mac OS X WITHOUT preserving user and network settings
E. Back up the data and use a Mac OS X 10.4 compatible third-party utility to repair the disk
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
How do you force a Macintosh computer to start up from a disc in the optical drive?
A. Press and hold the V key while the computer starts up, and enter boot cd at the prompt.
B. Press and hold the C key while the computer starts up.
C. Choose “Restart from Disc”from the Apple menu.
D. Press and hold the button for 5 seconds

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
While a Mac OS x computer on your network is starting up, Its screen displays a gray, spinning globe similar to the one shown in the exhibit. What does the spinning globe indicate?
A. The Computer is unable to locate a valid system folder
B. The computer is starting up from a network system image
C. The computer is starting up from a system folder on the local startup disk
D. The computer is downloading a system update before continuing the start up process.
Answer: B
QUESTION 32
When Maria logs in on her Mac OS X v10.4 computer, a utility she recently installed launches and disables the mouse and keyboard.
How can Maria prevent the utility from automatically launching when she logs in?
A. Hold down the V key while the computer start up.
B. Hold down the Shift key immediately after logging in.
C. Hold down the option key while the computer starts up.
D. Log in as another user and use Disk Utility to fix permissions on the boot volume

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
How do you start up a Mac OS X computer in single-user mode?
A. Restart while holding down Command -S
B. Restart while holding down command-option-S
C. Choose “Restart in single -user mode” from the Apple menu
D. Select Single-User Mode in the Startup Disk preference and restart

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 34
Starting up a Mac OS X v10.4 computer in verbose mode is a useful FIRST troubleshooting step when___________
A. applications are crashing frequently
B. you suspect a font might be corrupted
C. the system repeatedly crashes during startup
D. System Profiler cannot identify the startup device

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
After pressing the power button on your Macintosh you hear three beeps instead of a startup chime. What does this indicate?
A. The monitor is not properly connected
B. There is a hardware problem such as bad RAM.
C. The computer was not shut down properly the last time it was used.
D. The computer was unable to locate a disk with a bootable system folder.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You press the power button on a Mac OS X computer, but instead of starting up, its screen display a folder with a flashing question mark, like the one shown in the exhibit . What does this indicate?
A. Open Firmware did not find a startup disk.
B. The computer is starting up into Mac OS 9
C. There are multiple system folders on the startup disk
D. The computer is starting up from a network system folder.
Answer: A
QUESTION 36
The Universal Access preferences allow you to ____________
A. create new keyboard shortcuts
B. apply interface themes the Finder
C. configure your computer as wireless access point
D. enable the use of assistive input and output devices

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
You have just completed a default installation of Mac OS v 10.4 (an “easy install”).Which THREE types of applications can run without requiring additional software installations?
A. BSD
B. DOS
C. Java
D. Windows
E. Mac OS 9
F. Native Carbon and Cocoa

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which application provides the most detail about system processes in Mac OS X v10.4?
A. System Profiler
B. Activity Monitor
C. Process Manager
D. CPU Monitor Expanded Window

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which statement is true of protected memory in Mac OS X v10.4?
A. Protected memory is configured in System Preferences
B. Protected Memory is installed in a unique RAM slot on the motherboard.
C. Protected memory safeguard against native application errors impacting other running applications
D. Protected memory uses a temporary file to ensure there is sufficient RAM available for open application.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
A user is unable to open a document from within an application. Which is not a recommended troubleshooting procedure?
A. Try to open a different document with the same application
B. Double-click the document icon in the Finder while holding down the option key
C. Try to open the document from another application that support the same document type
D. Copy the document to the Shared folder then log in as another user and try to open the document

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
You see in Network preferences that the operating system has just updated your network port priority orderand port status indicators as shown in the exhibit. What could explain these changes?
A. The network cable has been disconnected
B. The DHCP server has a new AirPort card installed
C. An AirPort Base Station has been moved closer to the computer
D. The DHCP server on the Built-in Ethernet network is no longer available
Answer: D

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QUESTION 36
Which statement is true of protected memory in Mac OS X v10.4?
A. Protected memory is configured in System Preferences.
B. Protected memory is installed in a unique RAM slot on the motherboard.
C. Protected memory safeguards against native application errors impacting other running applications.
D. Protected memory uses a temporary file to ensure there is sufficient RAM available for open applications.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
The Universal Access preferences allow you to ________.
A. create new keyboard shortcuts
B. apply interface themes to the Finder
C. configure your computer as wireless access point
D. enable the use of assistive input and output devices

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 38
In Mac OS X v10.4, the default Group and Others permissions for the Drop Box folder in a user’s Public folder are ________.
A. Read only
B. Write only
C. Read & Write
D. No Access

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39
Which statement about file and folder permissions is TRUE in Mac OS X v10.4?
A. A file’s permissions are always identical to its enclosing folder’s permissions.
B. A user with Read only permissions to a folder cannot view any files in that folder.
C. A user with Read only permissions to a folder cannot rename any files in that folder.
D. A user with Read & Write permissions to a folder cannot delete any files in that folder.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40
What does the Repair Disk Permissions feature in Disk Utility do?
A. Restores permissions on all files from backups in the journal.
B. Restores default permissions in two top-level directories only: /System and /Users.
C. Recreates the journal when Disk Utility is launched from the Mac OS X Installation disc.
D. Restores default permissions of system files, as well as applications in the /Applications folder.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
When an administrator attempts to drag an application to the Applications folder, a message reports that the file was not moved because the folder, “Applications”, cannot be modified. Which step will correct this issue?
A. Log in with the Master Password.
B. Restart the computer and log in again.
C. Click the Repair Permissions button in Disk Utility.
D. Add the administrator to the wheel group on the computer.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
Which THREE features does Mac OS X 10.4 have to help the visually impaired?
A. Text to Speech
B. Speech Recognition
C. Voice Authentication
D. Full Keyboard Access
E. Audible Feedback of System Activity

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 43
What requirements must be met in order to participate in a multi-way video conference in Mac OS X 10.4 iChat?
A. Broadband Internet connection, Mac OS X 10.4 iChat, and Cinema Display
B. Any Internet connection, iChat AV 2.5 or higher, iSight, and Mac OS X 10.4
C. Any Internet connection, Mac OS X 10.4 iChat, and any compatible video device
D. Broadband Internet connection, Mac OS X 10.4 iChat, and a compatible video device

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which THREE procedures will activate Dashboard in Mac OS X 10.4?
A. Control-click the Desktop.
B. Press a predefined function key.
C. Choose the Dashboard menu bar icon.
D. Click the Dashboard icon in the Dock.
E. Double-click the Dashboard icon in the Applications folder.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 45
You can archive web pages exactly as they appear on the Internet by saving the pages as a “web archive file” in Mac OS X 10.4 Safari.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
How can you identify who is talking during a multi-way audio conference in Mac OS X 10.4?
A. The buddy’s icon is highlighted
B. By watching the sound-level meter
C. All other participants are dimmed
D. The buddy’s line is marked with a “speaking” flag

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 47
An older network printer is not appearing in the list of discovered printers in Printer Setup Utility’s Default Browser pane in Mac OS X v10.4. What is a possible remedy?
A. Select the AppleTalk plugin in Directory Access.
B. Enable the Discover Printers option in AppleTalk preferences.
C. Enable the AppleTalk option in the Printing pane of Print & Fax preferences.
D. Enable the Make AppleTalk Active option in the AppleTalk pane of Network preferences.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION: 1
Which default value do the Job Code table and Location table have in common?

A. Salary Plan
B. Work Period
C. Tax Location
D. Standard Hours
E. Establishment ID
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2 Which three statements describe the benefits of using tableset sharing in the PeopleSoft system? (Choose three.)
A. Tableset sharing uses SetID to restrict or grant access to data within a table.
B. Tableset sharing allows organizations to track and report business information.
C. Tableset sharing enables organizations to group rows of data within a control table by using a high-level key called a SetID.
D. Tableset sharing uses Department ID in conjunction with department security tree to restrict or grant access to data within a table.
E. Tableset sharing enables organizations to utilize indexing capabilities on mapped records for faster search results on employee data.
F. Tableset sharing enables organizations to share information instead of entering it multiple times, when large portions of data are the same for various business units.

Answer: A, C, F
QUESTION: 3 On the Job Data Work Location tab for a new hire, Company is a required field. You can default Company from the table.
A. Location
B. Job Code
C. Position Data
D. Business Unit
E. Holiday Schedule
Answer: C

QUESTION: 4 View the Exhibits.

Your client wants to set up a new department called ABC Headquarter for their newly acquired company ABC. The client shares the department and location information cross all business units. The HR Administrator has checked that the location code ABCHQ showed up under the Location Table Search Result page under SetID “Share”. However, when she tried to attach this location code to the new department she is trying to create, she got the error message. Which two setups may have caused the error message to be displayed? (Choose two.)
A. The Location SetID may not be valid for this department.
B. The Department may have an earlier Effective Date than the Location.

C. The Location and the Department may not belong to the same Business Unit.
D. The Location may have been inactivated before the Department’s Effective Date.
E. The Location may not be associated with the proper company that the department is attached to.
F. The TableSet Control table may not be set up correctly for the Record_Group Location and the Record_Group Department.

Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 5 Your client is implementing PeopleSoft HRMS system with Payroll Interface. The client is to start configuring Pay Group table. What table value should exist in the system before configuring Pay Groups?
A. Location
B. Company
C. Salary Plan
D. Salary Step
E. Salary Grade
F. Additional Pay

Answer: B
QUESTION: 6 Which PeopleSoft table do you use to identify a group of employees who share common pay characteristics?
A. Job Code Table
B. Company Table
C. Pay Group Table
D. Salary Plan Table
E. Salary Grade Tables
F. Comp Rate Code Table

Answer: C
QUESTION: 7 You are at your client site working on PeopleSoft HRMS implementation. One of your tasks is to add systemwide defaults in order to save time when a user is entering information in transaction tables. Identify which field is NOT a default option in the Org Default by Permission List component.

A. SetID
B. Country
C. Company
D. To Currency
E. Business Unit
F. Compensation Frequency

Answer: F
QUESTION: 8 Your organization has decided to use a department security tree for Row-Level security in PeopleSoft HRMS system. You decided to use the XYZ permission list to secure data using the Security by Department Tree component. Which step do you need to perform to ensure that Row-Level security is enforced?
A. Add the XYZ permission list to User Profile.
B. Add the XYZ permission list to Security Set.
C. Add the XYZ permission list to Tree Manager.
D. Add the XYZ permission list to Configuration Manager.
E. Add the XYZ permission list to a role and then assign that role to a user.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 9 Using a Permission List associated with a user and identifying security sets and access types in the Security by Permission List component of PeopleSoft are known as .
A. Role-based data permission security
B. Tree-based data permission security
C. Group-based data permission security
D. Country-based data permission security
E. PeopleCode-based data permission security

Answer: A
QUESTION: 10 Your organization has decided to implement row-level security. You suggested securing data by associating the company with people having jobs. This method of securing data is known as .

A. Access Type / Role
B. Permission List / Role
C. Security set / Access Type
D. Security set / Permission List
E. Permission List / User Profile
F. Access Type / Permission List

Answer: C
QUESTION: 11 Adam is entering new hire information in the PeopleSoft system. Adam enters the new hire personal information and creates the organizational relationship of the new hire as EMPLOYEE. After Adam establishes the new hire’s relationship with the organization, the system opens the JOB DATA page for Adam to enter the new hires job-related information. Adam decides to complete the new hires job-related information after his lunch break and cancels out of the JOB DATA page. What must be Adam’s approach to successfully complete the new hire’s job-related information in the PeopleSoft system after his break?
A. Enter job-related information using Job Data component.
B. Complete both personal information and job information at the same time.
C. Enter job-related information using the Add Employment Instance component.
D. Run SJT refresh process first and then enter job-related information using Job Data component.
E. Run SJTrefresh process first and then enter job-related information using the Add Employment Instance component.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 12 What should you do when system performance is affected and you no longer want to maintain all employee records on the Job table?
A. Purge employee data from the system.
B. UsePeopleCode to hide data on the Job Data page.
C. Access the Job Data page in Correct History mode and change the status to Inactive.
D. Insert a new effective dated row on the Job Data page and change the status to Inactive.
E. Change the description field on the Job Data page to state that this row is no longer active.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
Which three fields default from the Department table to the employee job data level?
(Choose three.)

A. Grade
B. Location
C. Company
D. Pay Group
E. Business Unit
F. Supervisor ID
G. Employee Type

Answer: B, C, F
QUESTION: 14
Identify the three types of organizational relationships that PeopleSoft HCM 9.0 has.
(Choose three.)

A. Trustee
B. Employee
C. Contractor
D. Board Member
E. Person of Interest
F. Contingent Worker
G. Global Payroll Employee

Answer: B, E, F
QUESTION: 15 PeopleSoft HCM 9.0 has several pages where you can access the Add a Person component. Identify four components that have an option to Add a Person. (Choose four.)
A. Job Data
B. Other Payee
C. Add a Person
D. Manage Hires
E. Modify a Person
F. Add Employment Instance Answer: B, C, D, E

QUESTION: 16 On the Add a Person page in PeopleSoft HCM 9.0, you can input all information about a person EXCEPT for these four details: . (Choose four.)
A. Ethnic Group
B. Bank Account
C. Military Status
D. Badge Number
E. Smoker History
F. Emergency Contact
G. Driver License Number
Answer: B, D, F, G
QUESTION: 17 Your client is using PeopleSoft HCM 9.0. It wants to pay some of its existing Persons of Interest (POIs). Which page in PeopleSoft do they use to set up their POIs for payment?
A. Job Data
B. Other Payee
C. Modify a Person
D. Add a POI Relationship
E. Maintain a Person’s POIReltn

Answer: B
QUESTION: 18 Your client has North American Payroll and Global Payroll. When adding an employment instance for a new hire, your client selects a payroll system to use for processing the employee’s payroll. Depending on which payroll system is selected, the input field names displayed would differ on the Payroll page except for two field names. Identify the two field names that are displayed on the Payroll page for both payroll systems. (Choose two.)
A. Paygroup
B. GL Pay Type
C. Eligibility Group

D. Employee Type
E. Holiday Schedule
F. Exchange Rate Type

Answer: A, E
QUESTION: 19 Which four components can be used to add a job instance for a person in PeopleSoft HCM 9.0? (Choose four.)
A. Manage Hires
B. Modify a Person
C. Add Employment Instance
D. Add Person of Interest Job
E. Add Contingent Worker Instance
Answer: A, C, D, E
QUESTION: 20 After inputting a department in Job Data, which four additional fields could be populated based on the defaults defined on the Department table? (Choose four.)
A. Location
B. Company
C. Paygroup
D. Tax Location
E. Business Unit
F. Supervisor ID
G. Establishment ID
Answer: A, B, D, F

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QUESTION 1
Rhonda claims that her Mac cannot connect wirelessly to her AirPort Express network at home. Which of the following would be the BEST question to ask her FIRST?
A. Have you tried connecting to a different Wi-Fi network?
B. Does your ISP support wireless access to the Internet?
C. Do you have a Thunderbolt to Ethernet adapter?
D. Have you updated your RAM?
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT201621
QUESTION 2
Power Nap operations on a MacBook Air (Mid 2012) will be suspended until the unit is connected to a power adapter when the charge is at what percentage or less?
A. 10 percent
B. 30 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 75 percent
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: When your battery has 30 percent or less charge, Power Nap operations will be suspended until you connect a power adapter. Power Nap communicates and transfers data for a only a few minutes per Power Nap cycle when running on battery. When connected to a power adapter, communications and data transfers are continuous.
QUESTION 3
What color indicates that the Liquid Contact Indicators inside a MacBook Pro (13-inch, Mid 2012, have been triggered?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. White
D. Yellow
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The indicators trigger only with direct contact to a liquid. The indicators will not be triggered by temperature and humidity that is within the product’s environmental requirements described by Apple. A triggered indicator will turn red or pink…indicating that the module(s) to which the indicator is attached has been exposed to liquid.
QUESTION 4
What is the likely cause of an iMac (21.5-inch, Late 2013) producing a single error tone at startup that repeats every five seconds.
A. The unit does not have RAM or RAM is not installed properly.
B. The logic board has failed and must be replaced.
C. The RAM does not pass data integrity tests.
D. The hard drive has failed S.M.A.R.T. status.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-ca/HT202768
QUESTION 5
Apple recommends a DIMM installation scheme for the Mac Pro (Late 2013) that:
A. Increases processing power
B. Enhances graphics processing
C. Optimizes system cooling
D. Enables use of special memory modules
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Apple recommends that you use Apple-approved DIMMs. You shouldn’t use DIMMs from older Mac Pro computers in your new Mac Pro. You can purchase Apple-branded memory online from the Apple Store or by visiting an Apple Retail store or Apple Authorized Reseller . Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT6054
QUESTION 6
You must know the AppleCare name of an Intel iMac before performing which of the following actions?
A. Starting up from OS X Recovery HD.
B. Running Mac Resource Inspector.
C. Replacing the logic board
D. Resetting the NVRAM.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://discussions.apple.com/thread/1516765
QUESTION 7
Which of the following could indicate accidental damage when inspecting the inside of a Mac mini (Late 2012) before a repair?
A. Light dust in the fans
B. Third-party RAM installed
C. Lint gathered near the rear vents
D. Oxidation or discoloration of the logic board
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a valid electrical safety precaution when working on a computer or display with exposed, potentially energized parts?
A. Use only metal screw drivers or fingers as needed to connect or disconnect cables.
B. Always wear an ESD wrist or heel strap when working on plugged in systems.
C. Be very careful handling the logic board or power supply while the computer is plugged in.
D. Remove rings, watches, necklaces, metal-rimmed eyewear and other metallic articles before working on the computer.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Rings, watches, necklaces or any metallic wearables should be removed because metal will disturb the
inner circuitry and the static charge will transfer to the sensitive parts of the computer. Reference: http://
mdex-nn.ru/uploads/imac12.pdf (page 3, electrical safety precautions

QUESTION 9
You are inspecting a MacBook Pro as part of your troubleshooting process. You note that two of the screws on the bottom case are damaged. There is no record of the computer being repaired on a previous occasion. If the resolution to the issue requires that you replace a part, how does your discovery of the stripped screws impact that repair?
A. You need to thoroughly question the customer on previous repairs or attempted repairs by unauthorized service providers
B. Make sure to inspect internal components and connections carefully to make sure that components were not damaged by someone tampering with the computer
C. Complete the set of three modification tests as specified in GSX prior to opening the computer
D. Classify the repair as ineligible for service and explain to the customer that you will not be able to complete any repairs
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://tim.id.au/laptops/apple/imac/imac_27_mid10.pdf
QUESTION 10

Examine the image. You have a cable with a connector of this shape. What type of cable might this be? SELECT TWO.
A. Thunderbolt
B. Mini DisplayPort
C. USB 2.0
D. FireWire800
E. Mini DVI
Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://arstechnica.com/apple/2011/02/thunderbolt-smokes-usb-firewire-with-10gbps-throughput/
QUESTION 11
Where can a technician find the serial number of an SSD that has been replaced on a MacBook Pro (Retina, 13-inch. Early 2013)?
A. Lift the mylar cover on the SSD.
B. Peel back the thermal pad on the SSD
C. On the top case.
D. On the back of the SSD cable
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Remaining residue from Very High Bond (VHB) adhesive should only be removed with which of the following:
A. VHB solvent
B. Nail polish remover
C. Isopropyl alcohol wipes
D. VHB neutralizer
E. Liquid acid neutralizer
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
The top case assembly of the MacBook Pro (Retina, 13-inch, Late 2013) includes which of the following parts?
A. Battery, keyboard, microphone, trackpad, and BMU
B. Battery, keyboard, microphone, and trackpad
C. Battery, keyboard, trackpad, and BMU
D. Battery, keyboard, and microphone
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.ifixit.com/Guide/MacBook+Pro+13- Inch+Retina+Display+Late+2013+Upper+Case +Replacement/27438
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is a valid ESD safety precaution?
A. Always handle logic board by grasping the heat sinks.
B. Do not wear polyester clothing while working on ESD sensitive components
C. You should place ESD-sensitive circuits on top of metal work surfaces.
D. Keep ion generators away from circuit board or assembly containing ESD-sensitive circuits. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.peachpit.com/articles/article.aspx?p=760956 (see ESD safety guidelines)
QUESTION 15
Which of the following desktop Macs supports going into Safe Sleep after four hours of inactivity if the computer is using OS X v10.8.2 or newer?
A. iMac (Late 2011)
B. Mac Pro (Mid 2012)
C. Mac mini (Mid 2011)
D. Mac mini (Late 2012) Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT201635
QUESTION 16
After replacing a Mac Pro (Late 2013) graphics board or CPU riser card, which of the following utilities should be run?
A. Cooling System Diagnostic (CSD)
B. Cooling Diagnostic (CD)
C. Mac System Diagnostic (MSD)
D. System Diagnostic for Mac Pro (SDMP) Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
What step is required before upgrading the RAM in a Mac Pro (Mid 2012)?
A. Remove the PCI-e fan.
B. Remove the processor tray.
C. Remove the hard drive carriers.
D. Remove the Optical Drive and Carrier. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT4433 (step 3: Install the memory)
QUESTION 18
Which section of Apple Service Guide contains a detailed view of all service parts and their part numbers?
A. Part View
B. Exploded View
C. Service Parts Matrix
D. Parts General Information Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://tim.id.au/laptops/apple/macbook/mbp15_mid09.pdf
QUESTION 19
Which of the following utilities helps to diagnose wireless network issues and is only available when running OS X v10.8.4 or later?
A. Network Utility
B. Network Diagnostics
C. Wireless Diagnostics
D. Network Setup Assistant Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-ap/HT202663
QUESTION 20
Which of the following measurements is an example of an appropriate use of a Multimeter when troubleshooting a Mac?
A. Measure logic board battery voltage.
B. Measure amount of ESD voltage in the area.
C. Measure digital signals on the main processor.
D. Measure amount of AC volts going to the hard drive or SSD. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.wikihow.com/Use-a-Multimeter
QUESTION 21
What is the maximum amount of memory that is supported in a dual-processor Mac Pro (Mid 2012)?
A. 64 GB
B. 32GB

C. 16 GB
D. 8 GB Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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