Index

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
A Cisco Security MARS appliance cannot access certain devices through the default gateway. Troubleshooting has determined that this is a Cisco Security MARS configuration issue. Which additional Cisco Security MARS configuration will be required to correct this issue?
A. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI to configure multiple default gateways
B. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to configure multiple default gateways
C. Use the Cisco Security MARS CLI to add a static route
D. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to enable a dynamic routing protocol

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
When adding a device to the Cisco Security MARS appliance, what is the reporting IP Address of the device?
A. The source IP Address that sends syslog information to the Cisco Security MARS appliance
B. The IP Address that Cisco Security MARS uses to access the device via SNMP
C. The pre-NAT IP address of the device
D. The IP Address that Cisco Security MARS uses to access the device via telnet or ssh

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reporting IP
The reporting IP is the source IP address of event messages, logs, notifications, or traps that originate
from the device. MARS uses this address to associate received messages with the correct device.

QUESTION 3
Exhibit:

The Service variables defined are used for what purpose? Select all that apply.
A. For IP Management Groups creation
B. For Data Reduction
C. For Query/Reports and Rules creation
D. For Event Groups creation
E. For NetFlow Events Management

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which of the following alert actions can be transmitted to a use as notification that a Cisco Security MARS rule has fired and that an incident has been logged? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. OPSEC-LEA (Clear and encrypted)
C. SNMP Trap
D. Distributed Threat Mitigation
E. Short Message Service
F. XML notification

Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Source:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6241/products_user_guide_chapter09186a00806b614c.html
QUESTION 5
What are the two options for handling false-positive events reported by the Cisco Security MARS appliance? ( Choose two.)
A. Drop
B. Mitigate at Layer 2
C. Archive to NFS only
D. Save as a false-positive report
E. Escalate to the Cisco Security MARS administrator
F. Log to the database only

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Page 373 of the 4.2.x User Guide
To Tune an Unconfirmed False Positive to False Positive Step 1 After you determine that a false positive is
false, and you have clicked the Yes button, click Next.
Step 2 On the next page, decide whether or not you want MARS to keep this event type in the database by
selecting the appropriate radio button:

-Dropping these events completely (that stops logging those events)
-Log to DB only (that logs the events to the DB)
QUESTION 6
To configure a Microsoft Windows IIS Server to publish logs to the Cisco Security MARS, which log agent is installed and configured on the Microsoft Windows IIS Server?
A. pnLog Agent
B. None, Cisco Security MARS is an agentless device
C. Cisco Security MARS agent
D. SNARE

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Page 281 of the 4.2.x User Guide

QUESTION 7
What are three benefits in deploying Cisco Security MARS appliances using the global and local controller architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Users can seamlessly navigate to any local controller from the global controller GUI
B. A global controller can provide a summary of all local controller information (network topologies, incidents, queries and reports results)
C. A global controller can provide a central point for creating rules and queries, which are applied simultaneously to multiple local controllers
D. The architecture provides redundancy in case one of the Cisco Security MARS local controllers fails within a zone

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which two configuration options enable the Cisco Security MARS appliance to perform mitigation? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP RW Community String
B. A NetFlow device added in the Cisco Security MARS database
C. Cisco Security MARS integration with Cisco Security Manager
D. Telnet or SSH access type with SNMP RO community
E. SSL communications with the network devices

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Page 79 of the 4.2.x User Guide For L2 devices SNMP access type is sufficient with RO community. But for mitigation, MARS requires SNMP RW community access. If SNMP RW community is not possible, select TELNET/SSH access type with SNMP RO Community.
QUESTION 9
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the Cisco Security MARS maintenance procedure?
A. Cisco Security MARS disk drives are not hot-swappable
B. No new events can be logged when the Cisco Security MARS local database reaches its maximum storage capacity
C. Cisco Security MARS audit logs can be exported to a centralized server for the consolidation and protection of the log data
D. If the archive is generated with one release of software, then the restore has to be done with the same version of software

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Page 150 of the Install and Setup Guide for Cisco MARS

Explanation:
Guidelines for Restoring
When you do restore to an appliance, keep in mind the following guidelines:
The version of MARS software running on the appliance to be restored must match the version
recorded in the archive. For example, if the data archive is for version 4.1.4, you must reimage the
MARS Appliance to version 4.1.4, not older or newer, before using the pnrestore command to
recover the system configuration and events.

QUESTION 10
Which action enables the Cisco Security MARS appliance to ignore false-positive events by either dropping the events completely or by just logging them to the database?
A. Inactivating the rules
B. Creating system inspection rules using the drop operation
C. Deleting the false-positive events from the events management page
D. Creating drop rules
E. Deleting the false-positive events from the incidents page
F. Inactivating the events

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Source Page 441 of the 4.2.x User Guide Working with Drop Rules Navigate to the Drop Rules page by clicking the Rules > Drop Rules tabs. Drop rules instruct the MARS to either drop a false positive completely from the appliance, or to keep it in the database. On the Drop Rules page, you add, edit, duplicate, activate an inactive rule, or inactivate an active rule. Inactive rules do not fire.
QUESTION 11
Which attack can be detected by Cisco Security MARS using NetFlow data?
A. Man-in-the Middle attack
B. Day-zero attack
C. Buffer overflow attack
D. Land Attack
E. Spoof attack

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Page 81 of the 4.2.x User Guide How MARS Uses NetFlow Data When MARS is configured to work with NetFlow, you can take advantage of NetFlow’s anomaly detection using statistical profiling, which can pinpoint day zero attacks like worm outbreaks. MARS uses NetFlow data to accomplish the following: Profile the network usage to determine a usage baseline Detect statistically significant anomalous behavior in comparison to the baseline Correlate anomalous behavior to attacks and other events reported by network IDS/IPS systems After being inserted into a network, MARS studies the network usage for a full week, including the weekend, to determine the usage baseline. Once the baseline is determined, MARS switches to detection mode where it looks for statistically significant behavior, such as the current value exceeds the mean by 2 to 3 times the standard deviation.
QUESTION 12
In What two ways can the Cisco Security MARS present the incident data to the user graphically from the Summary Dashboard? (Choose two.)
A. Incident firing information
B. System-confirmed true positive information
C. Event Type group matrix
D. Incident vector information
E. Path information
F. Compromised topology information

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Now you can begin your visual analysis. CS-MARS can present the incident data to you graphically from the Summary Dashboard in two ways. By clicking the respective icons within the Path column, you can visualize the data through two perspectives: Path information Incident vector information
QUESTION 13
Which attack can be detected by Cisco Security MARS using NetFlow data?
A. Day-zero attack
B. Land Attack
C. Buffer overflow attack
D. Spoof attack
E. Man-in-the Middle attack

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: How MARS Uses NetFlow Data When MARS is configured to work with NetFlow, you can take advantage of NetFlow’s anomaly detection using statistical profiling, which can pinpoint day zero attacks like worm outbreaks. MARS uses NetFlow data to accomplish the following: Profile the network usage to determine a usage baseline Detect statistically significant anomalous behavior in comparison to the baseline Correlate anomalous behavior to attacks and other events reported by network IDS/IPS systems After being inserted into a network, MARS studies the network usage for a full week, including the weekend, to determine the usage baseline. Once the baseline is determined, MARS switches to detection mode where it looks for statistically significant behavior, such as the current value exceeds the mean by 2 to 3 times the standard deviation.
QUESTION 14
Which two of the following statements are TRUE when you configure the pnreset command on the Cisco Security MARS? (Choose two.)
A. Clears, sets and initializes database structures
B. Sets the debug level that is reported in the logs
C. Erases the license file
D. Enables you to view the status of the Cisco Security MARS processes and how long the processes have been active
E. Sends Cisco IOS data from the Cisco Security MARS database to a network file server
F. Lets you add or delete disks in the Cisco Security MARS devices that support RAID configuration without powering down the devices

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CiscoPress.
The pnreset command resets the CS-MARS device to factory defaults. This includes erasing the license
file. You must write down the license file before doing a reset because when you reconfigure the device,
the license key is required. When pnreset is completed, the database structures are cleared, set, and
initialized.

QUESTION 15
Which one of the following incident types is pushed from a local controller to a global controller?
A. Any incidents on the local controller
B. Incidents on the local controller triggered by predefined system rules
C. Incidents on the local controller triggered by local rules
D. True positive incidents on the local controller
E. Incidents on the local controller that are manually selected for escalation to the global controller

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: LC only push up incidents coming from Global Rules (System-defined Rules are included) to the GC.
QUESTION 16
What enables the Cisco Security MARS appliance to profile network usage and detect statistically significant anomalous behavior from a computed baseline?
A. Cisco Security MARS Global Controller
B. NetFlow
C. Cisco Security Manager D. Cisco Security MARS custom Parser

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Source Page 81 of the 4.2.x User Guide How MARS Uses NetFlow Data When MARS is configured to work with NetFlow, you can take advantage of NetFlow’s anomaly detection using statistical profiling, which can pinpoint day zero attacks like worm outbreaks. MARS uses NetFlow data to accomplish the following: Profile the network usage to determine a usage baseline Detect statistically significant anomalous behavior in comparison to the baseline Correlate anomalous behavior to attacks and other events reported by network IDS/IPS systems After being inserted into a network, MARS studies the network usage for a full week, including the weekend, to determine the usage baseline. Once the baseline is determined, MARS switches to detection mode where it looks for statistically significant behavior, such as the current value exceeds the mean by 2 to 3 times the standard deviation.
QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP Your work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Cisco definitions. Match the terms with the appropriate definitions.

A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
The Cisco Security MARS appliance supports which protocol for data archiving and restoring?
A. NFS
B. Secure TP
C. TFTP
D. SSH
E. FTP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What three data points are used to correlate reports in the Cisco Security MARS? (Choose three.)
A. Query Criterion
B. Maximum Rank Returned
C. View Type
D. Period of Time
E. Order/Rank By
F. Incident Type

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Source Page 416 of the 4.2.x User Guide Report Type Views: Total vs. Peak vs. Recent Where alerts provide up-to-the-minute views of high-priority incidents, reports aggregate sessions into different views. Reports correlate based on the three data points: Period of time Query criteria View type The period of time defines boundaries around the analyzed session data based on when it was recorded. Query criteria restrict the set of sessions that will be aggregated to that which matches your criteria. Criteria can include source address, destination address, network service, event, reported user, and reporting device. The view type defines how to aggregate the matched data into a meaningful report view-one that matches the type of study in which you are interested.
QUESTION 20
Which statement is true about the case management feature of Cisco Security MARS?
A. Cases are created on a global controller, but they can be viewed and modified on a local controller
B. The global controller has a Case bar and all cases are selected from the Query/Reports > Case Page
C. Cases are created on a local controller, but they can be viewed and modified on a global controller
D. The cases page on a local controller has an additional drop-down filter to display cases per a global controller

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: page 359 of the User Guide.

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Exam A QUESTION 1
drag drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
If split tunneling is disabled, how do remote users access the Internet when they have a VPN tunnel established in the software access option in the SAFE SMR remote user design environment?
A. access to the Internet is not allowed
B. the user must disable the VPN tunnel to access the Internet
C. access to the Internet is provided via the corporate connection
D. access to the Internet is provided via the ISP connection
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What is not a specific type of attack, but refers to most attacks that occur today?
A. DoS
B. brute force password
C. IP spoofing
D. unauthorized access
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which command implements Unicast RPF IP spoofing protection?
A. access-list
B. access-group
C. ip verify reverse-path interface
D. tcp verify reverse-path interface
E. udp verify reverse-path interface
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What does CBAC dynamically create and delete?
A. TCP sessions
B. crypto maps
C. access control lists
D. security control lists
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
What is the function of a crypto map on a PIX Firewall?
A. to define the policy that will be applied to the traffic
B. to specify which algorithms will be used with the selected security protocol
C. to configure a pre-shared authentication key and associate the key with an IPSec peer address or host name
D. to map transforms to transform sets
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
The VPN acceleration module (VAM) is available on what series of VPN optimized routers? Choose two.
A. 1700 Series
B. 2600 Series
C. 3600 Series
D. 7100 Series
E. 7200 Series
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which model is recommended for an IDS with at least 100 Mbps performance?
A. 4210
B. 4220
C. 4250
D. 4260
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
How does Java applet filtering distinguish between trusted and untrusted applets?
A. examines the applet for suspicious code
B. relies on a list of applets that you designate as hostile
C. relies on a list of applets that you designate as friendly
D. relies on a list of external sites that you designate as friendly
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
What are three steps of the Security Wheel? Choose three.
A. improve
B. log
C. maintain
D. test
E. secure
F. report
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
What is the primary identity component in a Cisco security solution?
A. Cisco VPN Concentrators
B. Cisco PIX Firewalls
C. Cisco IDS Sensors
D. Cisco Access Control servers
E. Cisco IOS Firewalls

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which threats are expected in the SAFE SMR remote user network environment? Choose two.
A. trust exploitation
B. port redirection attacks
C. man in the middle attacks
D. network reconnaissance
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which techniques does SAFE recommend to mitigate MAC spoofing attacks? (Select two.)
A. Use port security.
B. Implement IP Source Guard feature.
C. Set all user ports to nontrunking mode.
D. Implement BPDU guard enhancement command.
E. Implement authentication for DHCP messages.
F. Use DHCP snooping along with DAI.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR remote user network? Choose three.
A. Layer 2 switch
B. router with firewall and VPN support
C. Layer 3 switch
D. firewall with VPN support
E. NIDS
F. personal firewall software
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none)
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
How are packet sniffer attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR small network corporate Internet module?
A. RFC 2827 and 1918 filtering at ISP edge and local firewall
B. switched infrastructure and HIDS
C. protocol filtering
D. restrictive trust model and private VLANs
E. restrictive filtering and HIDS
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
drag drop

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three models of the Cisco 3000 Series Concentrator can have redundant power supplies? Choose three.
A. 3005
B. 3020
C. 3030
D. 3060
E. 3080
F. 3090
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What are the three modules in the SAFE SMR midsize network design? Choose three.
A. frame/ATM module
B. campus module
C. ISP edge module
D. corporate Internet module
E. WAN module
F. PSTN module
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What threats are expected for the SAFE SMR small network campus module? Choose two.
A. IP spoofing
B. packets sniffers
C. denial of service
D. applications layer attacks
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
When using PC-based IP phones, which threat is expected between data and voice segments if not protected by a stateful firewall?
A. TCP flood DoS attack
B. IP spoofing attack
C. UDP flood DoS attack
D. application layer attack
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two are technologies that secure the control plane of the Cisco router? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IOS Flexible Packet Matching
B. uRPF
C. routing protocol authentication
D. CPPr
E. BPDU protection
F. role-based access control
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What are the two category types associated with 5.x signature use in Cisco IOS IPS? (Choose two.)
A. basic
B. advanced
C. 128MB.sdf
D. 256MB.sdf
E. attack-drop
F. built-in
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
Which optional AAA or RADIUS configuration command is used to support 802.1X guest VLAN
functionality?
A. aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
B. aaa authorization network default group radius
C. aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group radius
D. aaa accounting system default start-stop group radius
E. radius-server host 10.1.1.1 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1813
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which is an advantage of implementing the Cisco IOS Firewall feature?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-504
A. provides self-contained end-user authentication capabilities
B. integrates multiprotocol routing with security policy enforcement
C. acts primarily as a dedicated firewall device
D. is easily deployed and managed by the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
E. provides data leakage protection capabilities
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which three statements correctly describe the GET VPN policy management? (Choose three.)
A. A central policy is defined at the ACS (AAA) server.
B. A local policy is defined on each group member.
C. A global policy is defined on the key server, and it is distributed to the group members.
D. The key server and group member policy must match.
E. The group member appends the global policy to its local policy.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
The CPU and Memory Threshold Notifications of the Network Foundation Protection feature protects which router plane?
A. control plane
B. management plane
C. data plane
D. network plane
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
In DMVPN, the NHRP process allows which requirement to be met?
A. dynamic physical interface IP address at the spoke routers
B. high-availability DMVPN designs
C. dynamic spoke-to-spoke on-demand tunnels
D. dynamic routing over the DMVPN
E. dual DMVPN hub designs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which is correct regarding the Management Plane Protection feature?
A. By default, Management Plane Protection is enabled on all interfaces.
B. Management Plane Protection provides for a default management interface.
C. Only SSH and SNMP management will be allowed on nondesignated management interfaces. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-504
D. All incoming packets through the management interface are dropped except for those from the allowed management protocols.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What are the two enrollment options when using the SDM Certificate Enrollment wizard? (Choose two.)
A. SCEP
B. LDAP
C. OCSP
D. Cut-and-Paste/Import from PC
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configuration commands are used to apply an inspect policy map for traffic traversing from the
E0 or E1 interface to the S3 interface? (Choose two.)
A. zone-pair security test source Z1 destination Z2
B. interface E0
C. policy-map myfwpolicy class class-default inspect
D. ip inspect myfwpolicy out
E. ip inspect myfwpolicy in
F. service-policy type inspect myfwpolicy
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Cisco IOS Firewall supports which three of the following features? (Choose three.)
A. alerts
B. audit trails
C. multicontext firewalling
D. active/active stateful failover
E. DoS attacks protection PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-504
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
What is correct based on the partial configuration shown?
A. The policy is configured to use an authentication key of ‘rsa-sig’.
B. The policy is configured to use Diffie-Hellman group sha-1.
C. The policy is configured to use Triple DES IPsec encryption.
D. The policy is configured to use digital certificates.
E. The policy is configured to use access list 101 to identify the IKE-protected traffic.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
When enabling Cisco IOS IPS using 5.x signatures, which required item can be downloaded from Cisco.com?
A. SDF files (128MB.sdf, 256MB.sdf, attack.drop.sdf)
B. public key
C. built-in signatures
D. Signature Micro-Engines
E. IME
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which information will be shown by entering the command show zone-pair security?
A. zone descriptions and assigned interfaces
B. all service policy maps
C. source and destination zones, and attached policy
D. physical interface members of the zone pair
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-504
QUESTION 15
Cisco IOS SSL VPN thin-client mode has which two characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. uses a Java applet
B. supports TCP and UDP applications that use static port(s)
C. provides full tunnel access like the IPsec VPN software client
D. requires the use of browser plug-ins
E. provides TCP port forwarding capabilities
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Which two technologies can secure the control plane of the Cisco router? (Choose two)
A. BPDU protection
B. role-based access control
C. routing protocol authentication
D. CPPr

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS) is a highly scalable, high-performance access control server that provides a comprehensive identity networking solution. Which of these statements is correct regarding user setup on ACS 4.0?
A. Users are assigned to the default group.
B. A user can belong to more than one group.
C. The username can contain characters such as “#” and “?”.
D. The settings at the group level override the settings configured at the user level

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Please study the exhibit carefully, and then answer the following question: .

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“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

Refer to the appropriate SDM screen(s), which two statements correctly describe the Cisco IOS Zone-Based Firewall configuration? (Choose two)
A. The “reset” action is applied to any HTTP request sourced from the “in” zone and destined to the “out” zone, which also has a request Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) that is greater than 500 bytes is length.
B. The “inspect” action is applied to Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) traffic sourced from the “in”zone and destined to the “out” zone.
C. The “http-policy” inspection policy map is applied to all HTTP and HTTPS traffic sourced from the “in” zone and destined to the “out” zone.
D. The “testpm” inspection polfcy map is applied to the r’inouf zone-pair.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the appropriate SDM screen(s), what is the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) idle time set for any HTTP traffic that is sourced from the “in” zone and destined to the “out” zone?

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A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 8
Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
D. 35 seconds

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the appropriate SDM screen(s), what is the reason that outside hosts can’t initiate Telnet (port 23) traffic to the 172.16.1.10 inside host?

ActualTests.com
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 9 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
ActualTests.com
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 10 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

A. The implicit deny access control list (ACL) entry on the inbound ACL is applied to the outside ActualTests.com interface.
B. Static NAT is not correctly enabled to translate the 172.16.1.10 inside host address.
C. There is no zone-based firewall policy applied to the traffic sourced from the “out” zone and destined to the “in” zone.
D. The implicit denyacces control list (ACL) entry on the inbound ACL is applied to the outside interface.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which two categoiy types are associated with 5.x signature use in Cisco IOS IPS? (Choose two.)
A. basic
B. advanced
C. attack-drop
D. built-in

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Select two issues that you should consider when implementing IOS Firewall IDS. (Choose two)
A. The memory usage
B. The number of DMZs
C. The signature coverage
D. The number of router interfaces

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company. Which command is used to support 802.lx guest VLAN functionality based on the following configuration?

A. aaa authorization network default group radius
B. aaa authentication dotlx default group radius
C. aaa accounting dotlx default start-stop group radius
D. aaa accounting system default start-stop group radius

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You are in charge of Securing Networks Cisco Routers and Switches in your company. Why is the Cisco IOS Firewall authentication proxy not working based on the following configuration?
aaa new model aaa authentication login default group tacacs aaa authentication auth-proxy default group tacacs + aaa accounting auth-proxy default start-stop group tacacs+ enable password TeSt_123 ip auto-proxy name pxy http ip auto-proxy auth-proxy-banner interface EthernetO/1 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip auto-proxy pxy no ip http server tacacs-server host 192.168.123.14 tacacs-server key Cisco lOutput omitted
A. Theaaa authentication auth-proxy default group tacacs+ command is missing
B. The router local username and password database is not configured.
C. You forgot to enable HTTP server and AAA authentication
D. Cisco IOS authentication proxy not support TACACS+,

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which advantage can be obtained by implementing the Cisco IOS Firewall feature?
A. provides data leakage protection capabilities
B. integrates multiprotocol routing with security policy enforcement
C. is easily deployed and managed by the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
D. acts primarily as a dedicated firewall device

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
You are in charge of Securing Networks Cisco Routers and Switches in your company when troubleshooting site-to-site IPsec VPN, you see this console message: %CRYPT0-6-IKMP_SA_N0T_0FFERED: Remote peer %15i responded with attribute not offered or changed.
Which configuration should you verify?
A. the crypto ACL
B. the crypto map
C. theIPsec transform set
D. the ISAKMP policies

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which three descriptions are true about the GET VPN policy management? (Choose three,) A. The key server and group member policy must match.
B. A local policy is defined on each group member.
C. A global policy is defined on the key server, and it is distributed to the group members.
D. The group member appends the global policy to its local policy.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
When you enter the CK-S(config)#aaa authentication dotlx default group radius command on a Cisco Catalyst switch, the Cisco IOS parser returns with the “invalid input detected” error message. What can be the cause of this error?
A. You must use thedotlx system – a uth- control command first to globally enable 802. lx.
B. You must define the RADIUS server IP address first, using the CK-S(config)# radius-server ActualTests.com host ip-address command.
C. You must enter theaaa new-model command first.
D. The local option is missing in the command,

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Please study the exhibit carefully, and then answer the following question: . What is the Fidenlity Rating of the DDoSTrinoo IPS signature (signature ID 4608,subsignature-id 3)?
ActualTests.com

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 15 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

ActualTests.com
A. 0
B. 50
C. 100
D. 150

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What is the value of the user defined variable used to indicate the criticality of the 10.10.10.99 host? This value is used in the Risk Rating calculations.

ActualTests.com
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 17 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
ActualTests.com
A. Low “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 18 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
B. Medium
C. High
D. Mission Critical

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which Signature Engine supports Cisco IPS Signature ID 9423?

ActualTests.com
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 19 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
ActualTests.com
A. atomic-ip “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 20 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
B. string-tcp
C. service-http
D. string-udp

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
When you implement Cisco IOS WebVPN on a Cisco router using a self-signed certificate, you notice that the router is not generating a self-signed certificate, What should you check to troubleshootthis issue?
A. Verify theip http server configuration.
B. Verify theWebVPN group policy configuration.
C. Verify the AAA authentication configuration.
D. Verify that theWebVPN gateway is inservice.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which item is correct about the relationship between the Cisco IOS SEAP feature and its description? Not all the features are used.
1.
Signature fidelity rating

2.
Alert severity rating

3.
Target value rating

4.
Risk rating ActualTests.com

5.
Event action filers

6.
Event action overrides
A. 1-3, 11-5,111-6
B. 1-3, 11-6,111-5
C. 1-2, 11-5,111-6
D. 1-2, 11-6,111-5

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Cisco IOS Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is an inline, deep-packet inspection feature that effectively mitigates a wide range of network attacks .When verifying Cisco IOS IPS “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 21 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
operations, when should you expect Cisco IOS IPS to start loading the signatures?
A. After you configure theip ips sdf location flash:filename command
B. After you configure theip ips sdf builtin command
C. After you configure a Cisco IOS IPS rule in the global configuration
D. when the first Cisco IOS IPS rule is enabled

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which router plane can be protected by the CPU and Memory Threshold Notifications of the Network Foundation Protection feature?
A. data plane
B. management plane
C. network plane
D. control plane

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
A new Company switch has been installed and you wish to secure it. Which Cisco Catalyst IOS command can be used to mitigate a CAM table overflow attack?
A. CK-S(config-if)# pott-security maximum 1
B. CK-S(config)# switchport port-security
C. CK-S(config-if)# port-security ActualTests.com
D. CK-S(config-if)￡ switchport port-security maximum 1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Please match NFP feature to the correct description
1, Flexible Packet Matching
2.
Control Plane Protection

3.
Control Plane Policing
(I) applies to all (caggregated) control-plane traffic
(Il) applies to a control-plane sub-if,example,host or transit or cef-exception (Ill) applies to data plane traffic
A. (I)-l (II)-2 (III)-3
B. (I)-2 (II)-3 (III)-l
C. (I)-3 (II)-l (III)-2
D. (I)-3 (II)-2 (III)-1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Cisco IOS Flexible Packet Matching (FPM) uses flexible and granular Layer 2-7 pattern matching deep within the packet header or payload to provide a rapid first line of defense against network threats and notable worms and viruses, when configuring FPM, what should be the next step after the PHDFs have been loaded?
A. Configure a class map of type “access-control” for classifying packets.
B. Configure a traffic policy.
C. Configure a service policy,
D. Configure a stack of protocol headers,

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
When an active signature is detected, Cisco IOS IPS can take specific actions. Which option is correct about the relationship between the action and its correct definition?
1.
Deny Attacker Inline

2.
Deny Connection Inline

3.
Deny Packet Inline

4.
Produce Alert

5.
Reset TCP Connection
A. I-3, II-5, III-2, IV-l, V-4
B. I-3, II-5, III-2, IV-4, V-1
C. I-3, II-5, III-l, IV-2, V-4
D. I-3, II-5, III-l, IV-4, V-2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 23 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 25
You want to increase the security of a newly installed switch. Which Cisco Catalyst IOS command is used to mitigate a MAC spoofing attack?
A. CK-S(config-if)# port-security mac-address OOOO.ffff.aaaa
B. CK-S(config)# switchport port-security mac-address OOOO.ffff.aaaa
C. CK-S(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address OOOO.ffff.aaaa
D. CK-S(config)￡ port-security mac-address OOOO.ffff.aaaa

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
The NHRP process allows which requirement to be satisfied in DMVPN?
A. dynamic physical interface IP address at the spoke routers
B. dynamic spoke-to-spoke on-demand tunnels r
C. dynamic routing over the DMVPN
D. dual DMVPN hub designs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Based on the following configuration, which two statements are correct? (Choose two,)
Ip ips name MYIPS ! ActualTests.com Interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 Ip address 10.1.1.16 255.255.255.0 Ip ip MYIPS IN !
A. SDEE alert messages will be enabled
B. The basic signatures will beusedl~~
C. The built-in signatures will be used.
D. Cisco IOS IPS will fail-open.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 24 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 28
Which statement accurately describes the Management Plane Protection feature?
A. Only SSH and SNMP management will be allowed onnondesignated management interfaces.
B. Management Plane Protection is enabled on all interfaces by default.
C. Management Plane Protection offers a default management interface,
D. All incoming packets through the management interface are dropped except for those from the allowed management protocols.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
The security administrator for Company InC. is working on defending the network against SYN flooding attacks. Which of the following are tools to protect the network from TCP SYN attacks?
A. Route authentication
B. Encryption
C. ACLs
D. TCP intercept

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
While using the SDM Certificate Enrollment wizard, which two are the enrollment options? (Choose two.)
A. SCEP
B. ocsp
C. LDAP
D. Cut-and-Paste/Import from PC

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 31
Which of the following IOS commands will you advise the Company trainee technician to use when setting the timeout for router terminal line?
A. exec-timeout minute
B. line-timeout minute
C. timeout console minute
D. exec-time minutes

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in Your company. Which tow configuration commands are used to apply an inspect policy map for traffic traversing from the E0 or E1 interface to the S3 interface based on the following configuration? (Choose tow)

A. zone-pair security test sourceZl destination Z2
B. interface EO
C. policy-mapmyfwpolicy class class-default inspect
D. service-policy type inspectmyfwpolicy

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 33
The Company network is implementing IBNS. In a Cisco Identity-Based Networking Service (IBNS) implementation, the endpoint that is seeking network access is known as what?
A. Host
B. Authentication
C. PC
D. Supplicant

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 26 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 34
Which three features are supported by Cisco IOS Firewall? (Choose three.)
A. alerts
B. audit trails
C. active/activestateful fail over
D. DoS attacks protection

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
A new IBNS system is being installed in the Company network. The Cisco Identity- Based Networking Services (IBNS) solution is based on which two standard implementations? (Choose two.)
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS T
C. 802.11
D. 802.lx

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Which option is correct according to partial configuration displayed in the following exhibit?

A. The policy is configured to use Triple DESIPsec encryption,
B. The policy is configured to use an authentication key of ‘rsa-sig’.
C. The policy is configured to useDiffie-Hellman group sha-1.
D. The policy is configured to use digital certificates. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 27 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
In IKE phasel, IKE creates an authenticated, secure channel between the two IKE peers, called the IKE security association. The Diffie-Hellman key agreement is always performed in this phase. What are the three authentication methods that you can use during IKE Phase 1? (Choose three,)
A. AAA Authentication
B. pre-shared key
C. RSA signature
D. RSA encrypted nonce

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
While using 5.x signatures to enable Cisco IOS IPS, which required option, could be downloaded from Cisco.com?
A. Built-in signatures
B. public key
C. SDF files (128MB.sdf, 256MB.sdf,attack.drop.sdf)
D. Signature Micro-Engines and IME

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 39
You wish to configure 802.IX port control on your switch. Which three keywords are used with the dotlx port-control command? (Choose three.)
A. enable
B. force-authorized
C. force-unauthorized
D. auto

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 28 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 40
What information can be displayed by issuing the command show zone-pair security?
A. physical interface members of the zone pair
B. zone descriptions and assigned interfaces
C. source and destination zones, and attached policy
D. all service policy maps
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS) is a highly scalable, high-performance access control server that provides a comprehensive identity networking solution. Which of these statements is correct regarding user setup on ACS 4.0?
A. In the case of conflicting settings, the settings at the group level override the settings configured at the user level.
B. A user can belong to more than one group.
C. The username can contain characters such as “#” and “?”.
D. By default, users are assigned to the default group.
E. The ACS PAP password cannot be used as the CHAP password also.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two commands are used to only allow SSH traffic to the router Eth0 interface and deny other management traffic (BEEP, FTP, HTTP, HTTPS, SNMP, Telnet, TFTP) to the router interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. interface eth0
B. control-plane host
C. policy-map type port-filter policy-name
D. service-policy type port-filter input policy-name
E. management-interface eth0 allow ssh
F. line vty 0 5 transport input ssh

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
When troubleshooting site-to-site IPsec VPN on Cisco routers, you see this console message:
%CRYPTO-6-IKMP_SA_NOT_OFFERED: Remote peer %15i responded with attribute not offered or changed
Which configuration should you verify?
A. the crypto ACL
B. the crypto map
C. the IPsec transform set
D. the ISAKMP policies
E. the pre-shared key
F. the DH group

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
When verifying Cisco IOS IPS operations, when should you expect Cisco IOS IPS to start loading the signatures?
A. immediately after you configure the ip ips sdf location flash:filename command
B. immediately after you configure the ip ips sdf builtin command
C. after you configure a Cisco IOS IPS rule in the global configuration
D. after traffic reaches the interface with Cisco IOS IPS enabled
E. when the first Cisco IOS IPS rule is enabled on an interface
F. when the SMEs are put into active state using the ip ips name rule-name command

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Why is the Total Active Signatures count zero?

A. The 128MB.sdf file in flash is corrupted.
B. IPS is in fail-open mode.
C. IPS is in fail-closed mode.
D. IPS has not been enabled on an interface yet.
E. The flash:/128MB.sdf needs to be merged with the built-in signatures first.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Cisco IOS Flexible Packet Matching (FPM) uses flexible and granular Layer 2-7 pattern matching deep within the packet header or payload to provide a rapid first line of defense against network threats and notable worms and viruses, when configuring FPM, what should be the next step after the PHDFs have been loaded?
A. Define a stack of protocol headers.
B. Define a traffic policy.
C. Define a service policy.
D. Define a class map of type “access-control” for classifying packets.
E. Reload the router.
F. Save the PHDFs to startup-config.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Based on the following configuration, which two statements are correct? (Choose two)
Ip ips name MYIPS! Interface GigabitEthernet 0/1Ip address 10.1.1.16 255.255.255.0Ip ip MYIPS IN!
A. Cisco IOS IPS will fail-open.
B. The basic signatures (previously known as 128MB.sdf) will be used if the built-in signatures fail to load.
C. The built-in signatures will be used.
D. SDEE alert messages will be enabled.
E. syslog alert messages will be enabled.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company. Which command is used to support 802.lx guest VLAN functionality based on the following configuration?

A. aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
B. aaa authorization network default group radius
C. aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group radius
D. aaa accounting system default start-stop group radius E. radius-server host 10.1.1.1 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1813

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of characters that can be used for the Cisco Unified Communications Manager user ID when using the BAT spreadsheet to create the CSV data file for users ?
A. 255
B. 50
C. 64
D. 128

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which option is a requirement for CUCM clustering ?
A. Multiple servers run the exact same version of CUCM
B. The Publisher runs the same or a newer version of CUCM as the Subscribers
C. The Subscribers runs the same or a newer version of CUCM as the Publisher
D. Multiple servers run any version of CUCM as long as they belong to the same major release

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two options are functions of CUCM ? (choose two)
A. transcoding
B. call processing
C. rich-media conferencing
D. directory services

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which option is used to associate devices with a CUCM group ?
A. device pools
B. locations
C. regions
D. licenses

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which statement describes what happens when a failed primary CUCM comes back into service ?
A. Devices in that group automatically reregister with the primary CUCM
B. The group automatically re-elects a new primary CUCM when it is out of service, and it rejoins the group as a member CUCM
C. The primary CUCM must be added manually back to the group.
D. A new temporary region is created automatically to avoid conflicts until database resynchronization finisher

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which to tasks should be performed before you delete a phone button template that is currently in use ? (choose two)
A. Assign a different phone template to any devices that use the phone button template that you want to delete
B. Delete the devices that use the phone button template that you want to delete
C. Rename the phone button template as “OUT OF SERVICE” to dissacociate it from any devices that use the phone button template that you want to delete.
D. Check the “ALLOW WITH CONFIRMATION” checkbox in the setting “Delete Button Template in use” under System Parameters, and save the setting.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Where is a copy of the BAT.xlt file located on the CUCM cluster ?
A. the first node of the CUCM server in a cluster
B. every CUCM server in a cluster
C. the CUCM server in a cluster where BAT is enabled
D. any TFTP server in the CUCM cluster

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
TAPS is frequently used in your corporate enviropment. Which should be added to your list of routine tasks ?
A. Delete unassigned DNs using BAT periodically to free up the auto-registration range
B. Manually resynchronize the CUCM database to free up unused DNs.
C. Clear syslog that contain reports of missing MAC addresses with assigned DNs.
D. Reset the license usage count to avoid unused DNs taking up licenses.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
An H.323 gateway is configured successfully on a CUCM and communication occurs. Which option is displayed on CUCM Administration under Device Gateway ?
A. Status is shown as Registered, and an IP address is displayed.
B. Status is shown as Unknown, and an IP address is displayed.
C. Status is shown as Registered, and an IP address is shown as Unknown.
D. Status is shown as Unknown, and an IP address is shown as Unknown.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two options are recources in a route list that route calls that match a defined route pattern ? (choose two)
A. Gateways
B. Route Groups
C. Virtual Machine servers
D. IP Phones

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which command is valid to show calls that were rejected due to the toll fraud call reject error code ?
A. show voice statistics iec since-reboot
B. show run | sec voice-port 2/0/0
C. show call history voice last 1
D. show call rsvp-synv stats

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which three options can belong to specific partitions ? (choose three)
A. directory numbers
B. route patterns
C. translation patterns
D. gateways

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
When a called party belongs to a partition that is outside of the CSS that is assigned to your DN and device, which option describes how CUCM handles the call ?
A. Rejects the call or ignores the translation pattern.
B. Accepts the call and connects to the called party
C. Forwards the call to the voice mail of the called party.
D. Sends the call handler, which prompts for additional information

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which option is a symptom of failed calls due to misconfigurations in partitions or calling search spaces ?
A. The reorder tone is heard before or after the complete number is dialed.
B. The annunciator plays the “Your call cannot be completed as dialed” message
C. Outgoing calls to the PSTN or PBX network are routed through a Cisco IOS gateway without ringback tones.
D. You cannot hear a dial tone or complete a call.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which three items have a calling search space ? (Choose three)
A. Phones
B. Phone Lines
C. Gateways
D. partitions

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
Which option describes how you add software conference bridges to CUCM ?
A. by addung a CUCM server to the cluster
B. by adding a software conference bridge configuration
C. by installing DSP to a CUCM server
D. by reassigning other media resources to conference resoures

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
What is the maximum number of simplex streams that a Cisco MOH server can support ?
A. 5
B. 50
C. 500
D. 5000

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
In the CUCM Administration window, which MOH parameter can be selected for phones and gateways ?
A. media resource group list
B. hold stream source
C. hold stream volume
D. media loop timer

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which media resource plays the ringback tone when a SIP trunk is used ?
A. audio conferencing
B. transcoding
C. media termination point
D. annunciator

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which two options are forms of redundancy provided by CUCM ? (choose two)
A. media resources redundancy
B. CTI redundancy
C. voice-mail redundancy
D. emergency responder redundancy

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Refer to the Exhibit.

A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with the subscriber (10.1.5.3) listed first and the publisher (10.1.5.2) listed second. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager is used for incoming calls through an MGCP gateway?
A. the publisher
B. both the publisher and subscriber in a round-robin format.
C. the first server listed in the Cisco Unified Communication Manager group list.
D. the subscriber.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…

QUESTION 2
When Cisco Unified Communications Manager software is installed on a Cisco MCS server, which level of access does it provide for the customer to the operating system of the server?
A. CLI and GUI access.
B. CLI access only
C. GUI access only
D. no access.
E. access only through an interface controlled by Cisco TAC
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What are the two benefits of using SIP dial rules on an IP phone? (Choose two)
A. The phone can initiate dialing without sending any signaling messages to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The phone can detect invalid numbers and play a reorder tone without sending any signaling messages to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. If dialed digits match an entry of a SIP dial rule, the dialed string is sent in a single SIP 200 OK message to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. If Cisco Unified Communications Manager requires more digits, KPML can be used to send the remaining digits from the SIP phone to Cisco Unified Communications Manager one-by-one.
E. If Cisco Unified Communications Manager requires more digits, another en bloc message is used to send the remaining digits from the SIP.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 4
Refer to Exhibit.

To reach an external number, a user first dials a 9. Which route pattern will be matched if a user dials an international number 011442288223001 and terminates the interdigit timeout?
A. 9.1XXXXXXXX
B. 9.18XXXXXXX
C. 9.1900XXXXXXX
D. 9.011!
E. 9.011!#

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 5
Which two of these describe Meet-Me conferencing? (Choose two)
A. The conference originator of the conference acts as the controller of the conference and is the only participant who can add or remove other participants.
B. Any participant can add and remove other conference participants.
C. Anyone who has calling privileges to call the directory number while the conference is active can join the conference.
D. Multiple ad hoc conference can be added.
E. A range of directory numbers must be allocated for exclusive use by the conference.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none)
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 6
When CUCM is installed, how can the Customer Use the Operating system?
A. GUI and CLI
B. CLI
C. GUI
D. none
E. OS can be accessed by CISCO TAC only
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 7
Refer to the Exhibit

Which two of these statements about call lists enabled for Cisco Unified Presence are true? (Choose two)
A. 1001 can watch 1002
B. 1001 cannot watch 1003
C. 1002 can watch 1001
D. 1002 can watch 1003
E. 1003 can watch 1001
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 8
What is the maximum number of call processing servers supported in a single cluster?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
E. 20
F. 24
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cust_contact/contact_center/ipcc_enterprise/ srnd/5x_6x/c5ccmsrv.html
QUESTION 9
What happens when the TFTP server is not available?
A. CUCM can’t read phone configurations
B. Phones can’t download configuration
C. Phones need to be restarted
D. TFTP server needs to be restarted
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of using device pools?
A. to provide an easily modified set of system parameters for the Cisco Unified CallManager server and endpoints
B. to provide all the IP phone parameters required for auto-registration
C. to consolidate the dial plan for a set of IP phones in the same location
D. to provide a convenient way to define a set of common characteristics that can be assigned to devices
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS… http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/4_1_3/ccmcfg/b02devpl.html
Naiss,, betul
QUESTION 11
Which three characteristics are used to determine which devices go into a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. Device type
B. Class of service
C. Geographic proximity
D. Extension mobility CSS
E. User hold MOH source
F. auto-registration CSS
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 12
If you want to change the default SCCP and SIP IP phone firmware loads a phone receives, in which location would you make this change?
A. Device Pool
B. Device Settings > Device Defaults
C. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
D. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
E. Device Settings > Device Profile
F. Device Settings > Softkey Template
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 13
What is required to configure NTP on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher to support SIP phones?
A. Configure Phone NTP References in Cisco Unified CM Administration.
B. Configure the NTP server in Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Configure the NTP server in Cisco Unified CM Administration.
D. Configure time in Cisco Unified OS Administration.
E. Restart the Unified Communications Manager services for the publisher and subscribers on the Unified CallManager Serviceability page
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 14
Which statement regarding Cisco IP voice media streaming application is correct?
A. It should be activated on the gateway in cluster that supports the TFTP service
B. It should be activated on the gatekeeper in cluster that supports the TFTP service
C. It should be activated on the node in cluster that does not support the TFTP service
D. It should be activated on the node in cluster that supports the TFTP service

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…

Exam B QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. When Bob dials extension 5000, which phone will ring?

A. Phone A
B. Phone B
C. Phone C
D. Phone D

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 2
In reference to translation patterns, which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Translation patterns can be used to change the CSS applied to a call.
B. Translation patterns can be used to modify the redirecting number.
C. Translation patterns can be used to modify the calling number.
D. After matching a translation pattern and performing digit transformations, the call is sent to the original called number.
E. Translation patterns cannot contain wildcards.
F. Translation patterns are always considered urgent priority.
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 3
Which groups will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers that are set to use the <None> partition?
A. Only users that have the <None> partition assigned in their calling search space will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers
B. All users will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers
C. The <None> partition will prevent all users from accessing the Meet-Me conference numbers
D. Any IP phones with their lines configured in the <None> partition will have access to the Meet- Me conference numbers
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 4
When local route groups are used and a user dials 918005551212 what component is used to route the digits to the local gateway?
A. The route list applied to the route pattern
B. The device pool of the calling device
C. The translation pattern
D. The gateway or route list associated with eh +.! route pattern
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 5
Drag and Drop Question Drag the appropriate IOS command from the left and drop them in the spaces on the right. Configure an
H.323 gateway to provide call processing redundancy where the Subscriber (10.1.5.3) is the preferred server and if that isn’t available the Publisher (10.1.5.2) should be used after three (3) seconds. Not all options are used.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…

Explanation:
voice class h323 1 h225 timeout tcp establish 3 ! dial-peer voice 100 voip destination-pattern 1… voice-class h323 1 session target ipv4:10.1.5.3 ! dial-peer voice 101 voip destination-pattern 1… voice-class h323 1 preference 1 session target ipv4:10.1.5.2 !
QUESTION 6
When using unicast music on hold, how many streams will be sent to endpoints if a corporate marketing department has a customized message that is played whenever a customer is placed on hold?
A. one
B. one for each message in the music on hold system
C. one for each endpoint placed on hold
D. one per instance of music on hold in the server
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 7
Which two of these are characteristics of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager software conference resource? (Choose two.)
A. The number of participants is based on the number of DSP resources available.
B. If Cisco Unified Communications Manager is co-resident on the same server, the maximum number of audio streams per server is 128
C. It supports any combination of codec types.
D. Any combination of G.711 mu-law, G.711 a-law, or wideband audio streams may be connected.
E. It supports only unicast audio streams.
F. It supports both unicast and multicast audio streams.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 8
What is the accessibility of a DN assigned to the <None> partition?
A. accessible by all devices regardless of the CSS configured on the device on the calling device
B. not accessible by any device
C. only accessible by devices that have the None CSS configured
D. not accessible by any device by default, unless enabled in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameters
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 9
Which three of these are characteristics of multicast music on hold? (Choose three.)
A. It uses one-way RTP point-to-point.
B. There is a single user per audio stream.
C. Networks and devices have to support multicast.
D. It increments on IP address for different audio sources
E. It uses the multicast group address 239.1.1.1 to 239.255.255.255.
F. It uses service parameters to set the codec type(s) used by MoH services.
Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 10
Which two of these describe how media resources and audio streams operate with Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Audio streams are terminated differently depending on the signaling protocol, such as SCCP or SIP.
B. All media resources register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Signaling between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and hardware media resources uses the same protocol as the call-signaling type
D. Audio streams always use RTP or SRTP
E. There are no situations in which IP phone-to-IP phone audio streams will go directly between endpoints.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 11
If no SIP dial rules are configured on an IP phone, at what point in the collection of digits does a Type A SIP phone send digits to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. when the interdigit timer expires
B. when the collected digits match a SIP dial rule
C. when the user presses the Dial softkey
D. as each digit is collected (it is sent for analysis)
E. when the user presses the # key
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 12
Where is a Standard Local Route Group configuration applied?
A. in each IP phone
B. in each device pool
C. in each location
D. in each region
E. in each route list
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 13
Which two call-routing tools can be applied to a device pool? (Choose two.)
A. Called and Calling Party Translation patterns
B. Called and Calling Party Transformation CSS
C. Incoming Called and Calling Party Localization
D. Local Route Group
E. Application of time-of-day call routing
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 14
Which three of these are reasons to deploy media resource access control in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster? (Choose three.)
A. to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to share and access the resources that are available across multiple clusters
B. to enable hardware and software media resources to coexist within a Cisco Unified Communications Manager and to be used with different priorities.
C. to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to perform load distribution within a group of dissimilar media resources
D. to allow media resource access control based on the type of the resource.
E. to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to perform load distribution within a group of similar media resources.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 15
Which two statements regarding CUCM user privileges are correct?
A. a use can be a member of more than one user group
B. a role can only be assigned to one user group
C. a role refers to one or more applications
D. an application can be referred to by only one role
E. a resource is assigned one privilege per role.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 16
Which four of these media resources can be hardware-based in Cisco Unified Communication Manager?
A. MOH
B. voice termination
C. MTP
D. annunciator
E. transcoding
F. audio conferencing

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…

Exam C
QUESTION 1
What are the two major types of services on Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers? (Choose two)
A. Device services
B. Mobility services
C. Platform services
D. Feature services
E. Network services
F. Security services
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 2
Which Cisco Unified Communication Manager tool would be the most appropriate to use to manage phones that auto register?
A. DRF
B. BAT
C. TAPS
D. BPS
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 3
Users that are subscribed to the default corporate directory are complaining that when they press the Directories button, they receive an error message regarding the URL. Which two parameters need to be edited?
A. Reset the Service Parameter -> Phone URL Parameter
B. Reset Enterprise Phone URL Parameters
C. Select the Service Parameter for the appropiate server and CCM (active) and change the URLs for each service to match the DNS name or IP address of the server being configured
D. Change the URLs under Enterprise parameters to match the DNS name or the IP address being used by the server being configured and reset the IP phones
E. Verify that the corporate directory has the Enabled check box checked in the IP Phone Services -> Configuration Service Information page
F. Verify that the corporate directory has the Enabled check box checked in the Enterprise Parameter -&g t; Phone URL Parameter page
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 4
When creating your own CSV file to be used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager BAT, which three rules do you need to follow? (Choose three.)
A. Do not enter blank lines; otherwise, errors occur during the insert transaction.
B. Edit the Excel macro for each separate Unified Communications Manager BAT transaction.
C. Use a separate line for each data record.
D. Separate each data field with a comma and include comma separators for blank fields.
E. Disable Excel macros after adding data and prior to the CSV file upload to the Unified Communications Manager BAT service.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 5
How does an IP phone maintain its connection with the primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers in the cluster?
A. Cisco IP phones register with their primary server. When idle, the IP phones and Cisco Unified Communications Manager exchange the signaling application keepalives. In addition, Cisco IP phones establish a UDP session with their secondary server and exchange UDP keepalives.
B. Cisco IP phones register with their primary server. When idle, the IP phones and Cisco Unified Communications Manager exchange the signaling application keepalives. In addition, Cisco IP phones establish a TCP session with their secondary server and exchange TCP keepalives.
C. Cisco IP phones register with their primary and secondary servers. When idle, the IP phones and Cisco Unified Communications Manager exchange the signaling application keepalives with both servers using UDP keepalives.
D. Cisco IP phones register with their primary and secondary servers. When idle, the IP phones and Cisco Unified Communications Manager exchange the signaling application keepalives. In addition, Cisco IP phones establish a TCP session with their secondary server and exchange TCP keepalives.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 6
Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager BAT features provide a robust alternative to DRF? (Choose two.)
A. performs bulk transactions for Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. exports data (phones, users, gateways, and so on); exported files can be modified and re- imported
C. supports globalization
D. has an import and export function that can be used to move data records from one Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster to another
E. exports data (phones, users, gateways, and so on); exported files can be modified and re- imported in the Active Directory database
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop Question

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…

QUESTION 8
Which information is provided to the IP phone from the TFTP server?
A. the IP address of the DNS server
B. device configuration files and firmware upgrade files
C. time and date information
D. the name resolution protocol that allows IP applications to refer to other systems by logical names instead of IP addresses
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…
QUESTION 9
How many backup sessions can be active at one time in the Disaster Recovery System?
A. two, one automatic incremental and one scheduled automatic full backup
B. one, either automatic or manual
C. two, one automatic and one manual backup
D. three, one scheduled automatic incremental, one scheduled automatic full backup and one manual backup
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MASUK BOSS…

Exam D

Well-regarded for its level of detail, assessment features, and challenging review questions and hands-on exercises,Cisco 642-447 helps you master the concepts and techniques that will enable you to succeed on the Cisco 642-447 exam the first time.

 

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QUESTION 1
Which three options correctly describe the role of a subsequent node in a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 cluster? (Choose three.)
A. processes IP telephony calls
B. collects CDRs
C. replicates the database to other Cisco Unified CallManager servers
D. maintains read-only copies of the configuration database

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 2
A Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster contains a publisher and four subscriber nodes. If the publisher becomes unavailable, which three of these statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All on-net calls are dropped.
B. The Informix database automatically locks.
C. All IP telephony devices continue to operate.
D. New Cisco Unified Communications Manager devices can be configureD.
E. Available Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers work from the local backup database.
F. The Informix database will save configuration changes on subscribers to be uploaded to the publisher when available.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which portion of the master Administrator account can be changed after installing using the CLI?
A. privilege level
B. username “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2
C. password
D. username and password

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

C:\Documents and Settings\RraAsShHiIdD\Desktop\untitled.JPG

QUESTION 4
Which three steps must be completed in order to assign a service URL to an IP phone button? (Choose three.)
A. Add an IP phone service.
B. Subscribe the phone to the service
C. Associate a valid user profile with the phone.
D. Assign the IP phone service partition to the CSS of the phone.
E. Create a soft key template that includes a service URL and assign it to the phone.
F. Create a phone button template that includes a service URL and assign it to the phone.

Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which two features are advantages of deploying a cluster over WAN? (Choose two.)
A. shared line appearances
B. centralized DSP resources
C. extension mobility within the cluster
D. scalability up to 20 sites, if there is sufficient IP WAN bandwidth
E. failover to co-resident Cisco Unified Call Manager Express platforms “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 3

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the type of access being controlled on the left to the account name on the right.

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Click and drag the type of access being controlled on the left to the account name on the right.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

QUESTION 7
The Show menu in which navigation window will allow you to determine the model, type of processors, and total memory in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0 server?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability
C. Disaster Recovery System
D. Platform Administration
E. Cisco Unified Operating System Administration

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 8
The Ajax Corporation is designing an IP telephony network using Cisco MCS 7845 Series servers, each one capable of supporting 7500 devices. The design must meet these requirements:
(1)
be cost-effective

(2)
support up to 7500 phones

(3)
provide a minimal level of redundancy
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 5 Which configuration will meet Ajax Corporation’s needs?
A. two Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher and TFTP server combined 1 primary subscriber
B. three Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher and TFTP server combined 1 primary subscriber 1 backup subscriber
C. four Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher 1 TFTP server 1 primary subscriber 1 backup subscriber
D. five Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher 1 TFTP server 1 primary subscriber 2 backup subscribers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 9
In a Cisco Unified Communications Manager 8.0 cluster, how is database replication accomplished for run-time data?
A. Replication is through a master database from publisher to all active subscribers.
B. Replication is a mesh from subscriber to subscriber and subscriber to publisher.
C. Replication is a hybrid using both a hierarchical and mesh process.
D. Replication is a push from subscriber to publisher.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The database replicates nearly all information in astar topology (one publisher, many subscribers). However, Cisco Unified Communications Manager nodes also use a second communication method to replicate run-time data in a mesh topology (every node updates every other node). This type ofcommunication is used for dynamic information that changes more frequently than database changes. The primary use of this replication is to communicate newly registered phones, gateways, and digital signal processor (DSP) resources, so that optimum routing of calls between members of the cluster and the associated gateways occurs.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 6

QUESTION 10
What is one of the features of deploying Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers in a 1:1 redundancy design?
A. When the primary servers approach 100% utilization, the backup servers can take over a portion of the load
B. If a single primary server fails, multiple servers can distribute the load generated by users reregistering from the failed server.
C. If multiple servers fail concurrently, the resulting load generated by users reregistering does not overwhelm the dedicated backup servers due to 1:1 redundancy.
D. Recovery happens faster when the load generated by the users from a failed server is spread over more than one backup server

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Incorrect answer : ABD Link : http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/8x/callpros.html#wp1151374 Reference : Cisco Unified Communications System Release 8.x SRND , page- 283. Explanation : One to one (1:1) — For every primary call processing subscriber, there is a secondary or backup call processing subscriber.

QUESTION 11
The Ajax Corporation is designing an IP telephony network using Cisco MCS 7845 Series servers, each one capable of supporting 7500 devices. The design must meet these requirements:
be cost-effective
support up to 7500 phones
provide a minimal level of redundancy
Which configuration will meet Ajax Corporation needs?
A. two Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: ?1 publisher and TFTP server combined ?1 primary subscriber “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 7
B. three Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: ?1 publisher and TFTP server combined ?1 primary subscriber
?1 backup subscriber
C. four Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: ?1 publisher ?1 TFTP server ?1 primary subscriber ?1 backup subscriber
D. five Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers ?1 publisher ?1 TFTP server ?1 primary subscriber ?2 backup subscribers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 12
Which two services need to be activated on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager for it to function as the publisher in a cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco DirSync
B. Cisco Extension Mobility
C. Cisco Messaging Interface
D. Cisco TFTP
E. Cisco CallManager
F. Cisco DHCP Monitor Service

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Incorrect Answer : BCDE Link : http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/service/8_6_1/admin/sasrvdes.html Reference : Cisco Unified Serviceability Administration Guide Release 8.6(1), page-91. Explanation : The Cisco Extension Mobility feature allows users to temporarily access their Cisco Unified IP Phone configuration such as line appearances, services, and speed dials from other Cisco Unified IP Phones.

QUESTION 13
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 8 When a new subscriber is added to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster, how must the subscriber be configured so that is can receive database updates?
A. The subscriber uses the security password configured when the subscriber was configured. This is also configured in the publisher and validated on the initial replication of the database.
B. The subscriber uses the subscriber security password configured in the publisher.
C. The subscriber uses the same security password configured in the publisher when it was created.
D. The subscriber uses the IDS security password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
The Cisco Unified Communications architecture supports which three technologies? (Choose three.)
A. Physical Security
B. Cisco Unified Video Advantage
C. Intelligent Building Management
D. Contact Center
E. Workforce Optimization
F. Smart Grid Management

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Explanation : Workforce Optimization is mentioned in the student material. Page 1-5

QUESTION 15
What are the three characteristics that govern the type of Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment model? (Choose three.)
A. number of applications
B. size
C. type of applications
D. network characteristics
E. services provided by the PSTN carrier
F. geographical distribution “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 9

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Selection ofthe type ofdeployment model isbased onseveral factors, including tlie following:

-Size: Number of IPphones. Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers, and other resources, such asgateways ormedia resources (conference bridges, music onhold servers, and so on)
-Geographical distribution: Number and location of sites
-Network characteristics: Bandwidth anddelay of network links, andtype of traffic that is carried over ttie network

QUESTION 16
What is the maximum number of call processing servers supported in a single cluster?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
E. 20
F. 24

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Incorrect answer : ACDEF
In Single cluster we can have 8 call processing servers. Link : http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/

voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/8x/callpros.html#wp1151359.

QUESTION 17
If an IP phone loses connectivity with its primary server and registers with its backup server, what happens when connectivity to the primary server is restored?
A. The IP phone will try to re-establish a connection to the primary server every 90 seconds.
B. The IP phone will continuously try to re-establish a connection with the primary server; if successful, the IP phone will re-register with the primary.
C. Once the IP phone registers with the backup server, the administrator will need to reset the IP phone for it to re-register with the primary server. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 10
D. Once connectivity is re-established with the primary server, the IP phone will wait until there have been three successful TCP keepalive exchanges before it will re-register with the primary server.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Incorrect Answer : ACD Explanation : If Ip phone have register with backup server then it first try to communicate with backup server.
QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 11
there must be 3 options for user-facing features, 2 for admin Examples for user-facing features are the following:
?Call forward All (CFA) ?Message Waiting Indicator (MWI) ?Privacy enable/disable ?Do Not Disturb (DND) enable/disable ?Cisco Intension Mobility login ?Htint-Group login status
Topic 2, Single Site On-net Calling

QUESTION 19
What happens when the TFTP server is not available?
A. CUCM can’t read phone configurations
B. Phones can’t download configuration
C. Phones need to be restarted
D. TFTP server needs to be restarted

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 12

QUESTION 20
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Abc.com. Your boss, Miss ABC, is interested in 8.0 SIP phones and the NTP clock. Place the sources in the appropriate sequence.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 13 if the phone configuration contains NTP servers where A – primary NTP server and B – secondary/backup NTP server, the phone uses the broadcast packets (derives the dale and time) from NTP server A. If NTP server A is not broadcasting, the phone accesses date and time information from NTP server B If neither NTP server is broadcasting, the phone accesses date and time information from any other NTP server. If no other NTP server is broadcasting, the phone willderive the date and time from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager 200 OK response to the REGISTER message

QUESTION 21
What happens when you try to configure the fourth member of a Cisco Unified CallManager group?
A. Cisco Unified CallManager Administration will display an error and replace the last entered member of the Cisco Unified CallManager group with the new entry.
B. Cisco Unified CallManager Administration will display an error message when you attempt to add the fourth member.
C. The fourth member will be added to the sequential list.
D. The new member will replace the first member on the list.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 22
Which three Cisco Unified CallManager configuration steps are required to support third party SIP phones? (Choose three.)
A. configure the device in Cisco Unified CallManager
B. change the proxy address in the SIP phone to an IP address or the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) of Cisco Unified CallManager
C. associate the device with the end user
D. configure the phone with the TLS username and password
E. configure the end user in Cisco Unified CallManager
F. add the MAC address of the Cisco Unified CallManager server to the SIP phone configuration page

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 14
Explanation:
Perform the following steps when configuring third-party SIP endpoints:

–
Configure an end user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

–
Configure the third-party SIP phone and its directory numbers in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
-Select the configured end user as Digest User on the third-party SIP phone configuration window.
-Configure the third-party SIP phone with the IP address of Cisco Unified Communications Manager (proxy address), end-user ID, digest credentials (optional), and directory numbers

QUESTION 23
What is the relationship between a Region and a Location?
A. The Region codec parameter is used between a Region and its configured Locations.
B. The Region setting for a Location sets the number of audio and video calls that Location can support.
C. The codec parameter configured in the Region is only used between Regions and Location bandwidth is only used between Locations.
D. The Region codec parameter is combined with Location bandwidth when communicating with other Regions.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 24
How are Cisco Unified CallManager location parameters used?
A. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network
B. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls.
C. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment.
D. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 15

QUESTION 25
The abc.com Corporation is experiencing poor, choppy audio quality on voice calls placed across their WAN link to and from Madison. What can be done to the Location parameter for Madison to help alleviate this problem?
A. Nothing, the audio bandwidth Location parameter for Madison is not related to the problem.
B. Increase the audio bandwidth setting in the Location configuration window for Madison.
C. Decrease the audio bandwidth setting in the Location configuration window for Madison.
D. Remove the audio bandwidth parameter in the Location configuration window for Madison.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 26
What is the purpose of using device pools?
A. to provide an easily modified set of system parameters for the Cisco Unified CallManager server and endpoints
B. to provide all the IP phone parameters required for auto-registration
C. to consolidate the dial plan for a set of IP phones in the same location
D. to provide a convenient way to define a set of common characteristics that can be assigned to devices

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: device pool definition -Device pools define sets of common characteristics for devices, the device pool structure supports the separation of user and location information. The device pool contains only device- and location-related information

QUESTION 27
Which two SIP issues should be considered when deploying KPML? (Choose two.)
A. Additional MTP resources will be required.
B. There will be significantly more signaling traffic on the network.
C. Additional configuration steps will be required for SIP phone dial rules. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 16
D. Social engineering will be required to educate users about how to dial a call with SIP.
E. There will be additional processing demands on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 28
What are the minimum configuration parameters required to manually add an IP phone to Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0?
A. MAC address, device pool, and phone button template
B. MAC address, user profile, phone security profile, and phone button template
C. MAC address, device pool, phone security profile, and phone button template
D. MAC address, device profile, user security profile, and phone button template

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 29
Which three menu choices will open a window in which you can assign softkey templates? (Choose three.)
A. Device > Phone Configuration
B. Device > Device Settings > Device Profile
C. Service > Service Parameters
D. System > Device Defaults Configuration
E. System > Device Pool Configuration
F. System > Enterprise Parameters

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If it is in exam as ‘choose three’ choose Device Pool as well verified from CM
Device pool does not contain Softkey templates (older version does!!!) Device Default does containt Phone
Button Template not Softkey Template only A, B are correct.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 17

QUESTION 30
When an IP phone boots up, which mechanism provides the VLAN ID?
A. CDP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. TFTP
E. Option 150

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: If a voice VLAN ID is configured on the switch it will respond to the received Cisco Discovery Protocol message and inform the Cisco IP phone about the voice VLAN ID
QUESTION 31
When a Cisco Unified Communications Manager group has its primary, secondary, and tertiary servers changed, how are those changes propagated to the IP phones registered to the group?
A. The IP phones will automatically register with the new primary server.
B. The IP phones will need to be reset so that a new configuration file can be downloaded from the TFTP server.
C. The primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server automatically pushes a new configuration file to the IP phones in the affected device pool.
D. The device pools will need to be edited so that the new Cisco Unified Communications Manager group information is applied to the appropriate device pools.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 32
Which three characteristics are used to determine which devices go into a device pool? (Choose three.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 18
A. Device type
B. Class of service
C. Geographic proximity
D. Extension mobility CSS
E. User hold MOH source
F. auto-registration CSS

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 33
Which of these is a characteristic of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool is part of Bulk Administration.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager BAT needs to be installed from the plug-in page.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager BAT pages are available from the Serviceability page.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool requires a Customer Response System.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 34
Which three events describe the relationship of an IP phone to its secondary subscriber in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager system? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Phone sends a TCP connect message.
B. The IP Phone sends a TCP keepalive message every 30 seconds.
C. The IP Phone sends a TCP keepalive message every 60 seconds.
D. The IP Phone registers with the primary system when the secondary system is unavailable.
E. The IP Phone attempts to register with the secondary system when the primary system is unavailable.
F. The IP Phone registers with all the Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscribers in the group simultaneously, including the secondary subscriber.

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 19
QUESTION 35
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the hyperlink label on the left to the information it supplies on the right when a user browses to a Cisco Unified IP Phone 7970G. Not all labels will be used.

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Click and drag the hyperlink label on the left to the information it supplies on the right when a user browses to a Cisco Unified IP Phone 7970G. Not all labels will be used.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 20
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

The Cisco 642-447 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of Cisco 642-447.We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional Cisco 642-447 expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our Cisco 642-447 free pdf

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QUESTION 1
When setting up a VoIP call, what is the first thing a gateway router tries to match to a dialed number?
A. session target
B. call leg
C. destination pattern
D. IP route

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
In North America, which E&M signaling type is used most often for geographically separated equipment?
A. Type III
B. Type II
C. Type V
D. Type I
E. Type IV

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
When using CUBE, which two statements describe how media flow-through differs from media flow-around? (Choose two.)
A. Media flow-through terminates the signaling channel and the RTP streams flow directly between endpoints.
B. Media flow-through terminates the RTP streams but allows signaling to flow directly between endpoints.
C. Media flow-around and media flow-through function in a similar manner, but media flow-around supports NAT traversal.
D. Media flow-around provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
E. Media flow-through provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
F. Media flow-around terminates the signaling stream and allows RTP streams to flow directly between endpoints.

Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which two are types of Call Admission Control? (Choose two.)
A. gateway zone bandwidth
B. topology-based
C. resource-based
D. gatekeeper-controlled RSVP
E. local
F. QoS-based

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Site A uses three-digit internal numbers and remote Site B uses four-digit internal numbers. All calls to the PSTN are routed through Site B. What dial plan below best represents provision simplicity, assuming the NANP numbering plan?
A. Translate all called numbers within Site A to four digits.
B. Translate all called numbers within Site B to three digits.
C. Translate all called numbers at either site to ten digits.
D. Translate all called numbers leaving Site A to ten digits.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which three are supervisory signals? (Choose three.)
A. call waiting
B. on hook
C. ring
D. busy
E. off hook

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which command parameter specifies that the router should not attempt to initiate a trunk connection but should wait for an incoming call before establishing the trunk?
A. connection trunk answer-mode 408555
B. connection trunk 408555….
C. connection-trunk 404555…. answer-mode
D. ds0-group timeslots 1-23 type ext-sig
E. voice-port 1/0:1
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
What does a gatekeeper do when it matches a technology prefix?
A. strips off the zone prefix and forwards the technology prefix to the remote gatekeeper
B. strips off the technology prefix and sends the matching zone prefix to the remote gatekeeper
C. sends both the technology prefix and zone prefix to the remote gatekeeper
D. strips off both the technology prefix and zone prefix and forwards the remaining destination number

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. after the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection request to the source
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection
C. does not release call path setup
D. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
E. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
What is the best description of an MGCP endpoint?
A. the gatekeepers in a VoIP network
B. IP phones
C. any analog telephony device (PBX, switch, etc.)
D. the interconnection between packet and traditional telephone networks

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, what four steps are necessary to implement COR? (Choose four.)
A. Define COR labels.
B. Configure COR lists on voice ports.
C. Configure dial peers and assign COR lists.
D. Assign COR list to ephone-DN.
E. Configure SRST.
F. Configure COR lists.

Correct Answer: ACDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
A telemarketing firm needs to use number translation for incoming and outgoing calls. They have defined
two translation profiles, one for incoming and one for outgoing calls.
What can be used to simplify this task?

A. dial peer
B. source IP group
C. trunk group
D. voice port
E. hunt group

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
The SJ local zone contains a gatekeeper that controls two gateways, SJ1 and SJ2. Both gateways provide access to area code 408. Which two command strings should be entered into the gatekeeper to give the SJ2 gateway priority over the SJ1 gateway? (Choose two.)
A. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 0 SJ2, 10 SJ1
B. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ1
C. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1
D. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ2
E. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1, 10 SJ2
F. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ2

Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
What is the most common E&M type used outside North America?
A. Type III
B. Type I
C. Type II
D. Type V
E. Type IV

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which statement is true about MGCP?
A. Call completion is always shared, with some intelligence on the endpoint, some on the call agent.
B. Endpoints may act alone or cooperate with call agent to complete calls.
C. Endpoints always take all actions to complete calls.
D. Call agents order and direct each step of call completion for the endpoints.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which dial-peer command can set the parameters that search through a series of dial peers for a destination that is not in use?
A. distribute
B. request
C. circulate
D. rotary
E. hunt
F. query

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
What is the E.164 standard?
A. national numbering plan
B. dial plan
C. private numbering plan
D. international public telecommunications numbering plan

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which option is true concerning the MGCP call agent?
A. manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
B. acts only as a recorder of call details
C. provides only call signaling and call setup
D. monitors the quality of each call after setup

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which best defines an ACD?
A. a telephone system that switches calls between users on local lines
B. a telephone system that responds to a caller with a voice menu and helps to appropriately connect the call
C. a telephone system that is connected to the exchange to provide conventional voice services to several subscribers
D. a local company that provides phone capability and distribution from the phone company’s central office

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which two statements describe the purpose of the technology prefix? (Choose two.)
A. Technology prefixes are prepended to the destination address by the gateway.
B. Technology prefixes must always be configured on gateways.
C. Technology prefixes are configured on gateways to indicate to the gatekeeper whether they support voice or video.
D. Technology prefixes have to be unique on each gateway.
E. Technology prefixes are used to identify different types or classes of gateways.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
You have set up a complex dial plan using translation rules. The following translation rule has been configured. What output would correspond to the test translation-rule command? translation-rule 1 rule 0 ^0.. 215550210 rule 1 ^1.. 215550211 rule 2 ^2.. 215550212 rule 3 ^3.. 215550213 rule 4 ^4.. 215550214 rule 5 ^5.. 215550215 rule 6 ^6.. 215550216 rule 7 ^7.. 215550217 rule 8 ^8.. 215550218 rule 9 ^9.. 215550210
A. test translation-rule 1 555 The replaced number: 55521555021
B. test translation-rule 1 617 The replaced number: 61721555021
C. test translation-rule 1 910 The replaced number: 21555021910
D. test translation-rule 1 512 The replaced number: 21555021512

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
A customer wants to roll out IP telephony to the regional office. They are currently using the G.711 codec at headquarters. Which codec will support voice activity detection and comfort noise generation?
A. G.723.1
B. G.726
C. G.711
D. G.729B

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which three services are supported by CUBE when supporting H323-to-SIP calls? (Choose three.)
A. codec transparent support
B. media flow-through
C. Transport Layer Security
D. H.261, H.263, and H.264 video codecs
E. SIP cause codes
F. media flow-around

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
Which statement is true about only out-of-band signaling?
A. Signaling bits are sent in a special order in a dedicated signaling frame.
B. All voice packets carry their own signaling.
C. All signaling is directly associated with its corresponding voice frame.
D. A signaling bit is robbed from each frame.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
A customer needs to configure a CAS E & M circuit that will support inbound and outbound DNIS and inbound ANI. Which configuration will accomplish this task?
A. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type fgd-eana
B. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type e&m-fgd
C. pri-group timeslots 1-24
D. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type none
E. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-31 type r2-digital r2-compelled ani

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
The D channel in ISDN is an example of which two signaling methods? (Choose two.)
A. in-band
B. gateway
C. CAS
D. CCS
E. out-of-band

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Examine the example output. hostname GW1 ! interface Ethernet 0/0 ip address 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 h323-gateway voip interface h323-gateway voip id GK1-zone1.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.2 h323-gateway voip h323-id GW1 h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.1 ! dial-peer voice 1 voip destination-pattern 1212. session-target ras ! dial-peer voice 2 pots destination-pattern 2125551212 no register e164 ! end Choose the command that will restore communication with gatekeeper functionality to this device.
A. h323-gateway voip GW1-zone2.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.1
B. h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.2
C. h323-gateway voip h323-id GK1
D. gateway

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which statement best describes gatekeeper operation when the technology prefix is matched and the gatekeeper is using the technology prefix with hopoff?
A. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the hopoff zone, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command.
B. The gatekeeper only forwards the call to the hopoff zone if the zone prefix does not match.
C. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command first, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
D. The gatekeeper always forwards the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
A new business in Great Britain needs to have a PSTN connection that will handle a maximum of 30 inbound and outbound calls at any given time. The customer only has one slot available on the designated PSTN router. Which digital line type should be recommended?
A. QSIG
B. ISDN E1 PRI
C. ISDN BRI
D. ISDN T1 PRI

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Where would you assign COR lists in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. ephone
B. voice register dn
C. ephone-dn
D. voice register pool

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two statements describe the purpose of the technology prefix? (Choose two).
A. Technology prefixes are configured on gateways to indicate to the gatekeeper whether they support voice or video.
B. Technology prefixes must always be configured on gateways.
C. Technology prefixes are uses to indentify different types or classes of gateways.
D. Technology prefixes are prepended to the destination address by the gateway.
E. Technology prefixes have to be unique on each gateway.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about only out-of-band signaling?
A. A signaling bit is robbed from each frame
B. Signaling bits are sent in a special order in a dedicated signaling frame.
C. All signaling is directly associated with its corresponding voice frame.
D. All voice pacckets carry their own signaling.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Examine the example output.
hostname GW1 ! interface Ethernet 0/0 ip address 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 h323-gateway voip interface h323-gateway voip id GK1-zone1.abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.2 h323-gateway voip h323-id GW1 h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.1 ! dial-peer voice 1 voip destination-pattern 1212. session-target ras ! dial-peer voice 2 pots destination-pattern 2125551212 no register e164 ! end
Choose the command that will restore communication with gatekeeper functionality to this device.
A. h323-gateway voip h323-id GK1
B. gateway
C. h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.2
D. h323-gateway voip GW1-zone2.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.1

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which actions would be initiated by a UAS? (Choose two.)

A. contacts the user when a SIP invitation is received.
B. originates the REFER method to initiate call termination.
C. returns a response on behalf of the user to the invitation originator.
D. originates the INVITE method including a description of the session parameters.
E. originate the ACK method to indicate that it has received a response to an invitation.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which option is true concerning the MGCP call agent?
A. acts only as recorder of call details
B. provides only call signaling and call setup
C. manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
D. monitors the quality of each call after setup

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which statement best describes gatekeeper operation when the technology prefix is matched and the gatekeeper is using the technology prefix with hopoff?
A. The gatekeeper always forwards the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
B. The gatekeeper only forwards the call to the hopoff zone if the zone prefix does not match.
C. The gatekeeper attemps to forward the call to the hopoff zone, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command.
D. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command first, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. All IP phones are sccp phones. Phone D makes an internal call to phone G. Which call

A. Phone D signals phone G directly. Call setup is handled by the phones.
B. Phone D signals gateway A, which processes the call and signals phone G.
C. Phone D signals gateway B, which processes the call and signals phone G.
D. Phone D signals gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals phone G.
E. Phone D signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals phone G.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. All IP phones use SCCP. Fax machine F calls fax machine J. Which call setup signaling statement is correct?

A. Fax F signals Fax J directly. Call setup is handled by the fax machines.
B. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the request.
C. Gateway A signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals gateway B.
D. Gateway A signals the gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals gateway B.
E. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the call. During the setup, the gateways query the gatekeeper for address resolution and call setup permission.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. Three department managers share the directory number 3000. The Marketing manager′s phone is attached to port 1/1. The Engineering manager′s phone is attached to port 1/2. The Shipping manager′s phone is attached to port 1/3. In which situation would an incoming call ring on the Shipping manager′s phone?
A. The Marketing manager is on the phone.
B. None of the managers are on the phone.
C. The Engineering manager is on the phone.
D. The Shipping manager and Marketing manager are on the phone
E. The Engineering manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, what four steps are necessary to implement COR? (Choose four.)
A. Configure SRST.
B. Define COR labels.
C. Configure COR lists.
D. Assign COR list to ephone-DN.
E. Configure COR lists on the voice ports.
F. Configure diall peers and assign COR lists.

Correct Answer: BCDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. After the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway.
B. After the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection.
C. Does not release call path setup.
D. After the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path.
E. After the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection request to the source.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which two codes together make up the number that follows the E.164 recommendation numbering scheme? (Choose two.)
A. Country code
B. subscriber code
C. national destination code
D. provider code

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
When using CUBE, which two statements describe how media flow-through differs from media flow-around? (Choose two.)
A. Media flow-around provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
B. Media flow-through terminates the signaling channel and the RTP streams flow directly between endpoints.
C. Media flow-around and media flow-through function in a similar manner, but media flow-around supports NAT traversal.
D. Media flow-through terminates the RTP streams but allows signaling to flow directly between endpoints.
E. Media flow-around terminates the signaling stream and allows RTP streams to flow directly between endpoints.
F. Media flow-through provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.

Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to exhibit. The Acme Corp. uses H.323 to place calls to their supplier RR industries. Acme also has a voice connection to an ITSP for long distance over a SIP network. Which configuration should Acme use to deploy the CUBE?

A. service voice voip allow-connections h323 to h323 allow-connections h323 to sip
B. voice service voip allow-connections h323 to h323 allow-connections h323 to sip
C. voice service voip allow-connections h323 to h323 allow-connections h323 to sip allow-connections sip to h323
D. service voice voip allow-connections h323 to h323 allow-connections h323 to sip allow-connections sip to sip allow-connections sip to h323

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which two are types of Call Admission Control? (Choose Two.)
A. local
B. QoS-based
C. resource-based
D. topology-based
E. gateway zone bandwidth
F. gatekeeper-controlled RSVP

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Using a standalone IOS gateway, which three steps are necessary to implement COR (Choose three.)
A. Configure SRST.
B. Define COR labels.
C. Configure COR lists.
D. Assign COR list to ephone-DN.
E. Configure COR lists on voice ports.
F. Configure dial peers and assign COR lists.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit. You have configured a gatekeeper and an IP-IP gateway on the same router. When you look at the output from the show gatekeeper endpoint command, the IP-IP gateway is not registered with the gatekeeper. What needs to be configured to resolve this issue?

A. You need stop and restart the gateway.
B. You need to add a Voip dial peer to the configuration.
C. The H323-gateway voip id command has a incorrect IP address.
D. The H323-gateway voip id command has a incorrect gatekeeper ID and IP address.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which process changes an internal extension into a fully qualified external PSTN number before matching to a dial peer?
A. digit masking
B. forward digits
C. number expansion
D. prefix extension

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
The SJ local zone contains a gatekeeper that controls two gateways, SJ1 and SJ2. Both gateways provide access to area code 408. Which two command strings should be entered into the gatekeeper to give the SJ2 gateway priority over the SJ1 gateway? (Choose two.)
A. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1
B. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ2
C. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ1
D. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ2
E. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 0 SJ2, 10 SJ1
F. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1, 10 SJ2

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which command parameter specifies that the router should not attempt to initiate a trunk connection but should wait for an incoming call before establishing the trunk?
A. voice-port 1/0:1
B. connection trunk 408555….
C. ds0-group timeslots 1-23 type ext-sig
D. connection trunk answer-mode 408555
E. connection-trunk 404555….answer-mode
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. Choose the correct configuration command set that will allow the gateway in zone BR to register with the gatekeeper at HQ so that the gateway is placed in zone BR.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which best defines an ACD?
A. a telephone system that switches calls between users on local lines
B. a local company that provides phone capability and distribution from the phone company′s central office.
C. a telephone system that responds to a caller with a voice menu and helps to appropriately connect the call
D. a telephone system that is connected to the exchange to provide conventional voice services to several subscribers

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
You have been asked to deploy a gatekeeper to support CUBE that will connect your organizational domain to the domain of an Internet Telephony Service Provider so that callers can reach the 407 area code. Which configuration will support this function?

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
What is the E.164 standard?
A. dial plan
B. private numbering plan
C. national numbering plan
D. international public telecommunications numbering plan

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25

You have set up a complex dial plan using translation rules. The following translation rule has been configured. What output would correspond to the test translation-rule command?
A. test translation-rule 1 512 The replaced number: 21555021512
B. test translation-rule 1 555 The replaced number:55521555021

C. test translation-rule 1 617 The replaced number: 61721555021
D. test translation-rule 1 910 The replaced number:21555021910
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
A customer needs to configure a CAS E & M circuit that will support inbound and outbound DNIS and inbound ANI. Which configuration will accomplish this task?
A. pri-group timeslots 1-24
B. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type none
C. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type e&m-fgd
D. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type fgd-eana
E. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-31 type r2-digital r2-digital-compelled ani

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
To hide identity when initiating calls, Phone B requests that Server B place its calls for it. What kind of device is Server B?

A. proxy
B. redirect
C. registrar
D. user agent client
E. user agent server

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which dial-peer command can set the parameters that search through a series of dial peers for a destination that is not in use?
A. hunt
B. query
C. rotary
D. request
E. circulate
F. distribute

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Refer to the H.323 message in the exhibit. What is the gateway doing with the gatekeeper?

A. initial registration
B. full registration
C. lightweight registration
D. registration retry

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
A customer wants to roll out IP telephony to the regional office. They are currently using the G.711 codec at headquarters Which codec will support voice activity detection and comfort noise generation?
A. G.711
B. G.726
C. G.729B
D. G.723.1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which three services are supported by CUBE when supporting H323-to-SIP calls? (Choose three.)
A. SIP causes code
B. media flow-around
C. media flow-through
D. codec transparent support
E. Transport Layer Security
F. H.261, H.263 and H.264 video codecs

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32

A. 8204
B. 49579
C. 1640003356
D. 10.100.100.100 Correct Answer: A Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 34

Refer to exhibit. What is the minimum WAN bandwith required to support three simultaneous VOIP calls in this network?

A. 19,200 bps
B. 51,600 bps
C. 79,200 bps
D. 247,200 bps

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Where would you assign COR lists in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. ephone
B. ephone-dn
C. voice register dn
D. voice register pool

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
What does a gatekeeper do when it matches a technology prefix?
A. strips off the technology prefix and sends the matching zone prefix to the remote gatekeeper
B. send both the technology prefix and zone prefix to the remote gatekeeper
C. strips off the zone prefix and forwards the tecnology prefix to the remote gatekeeper
D. strips off both the technology prefix and zone prefix and forwards the remaining destination number

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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