Index

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Exam A

QUESTION 1
Which type of signaling is DTMF?

A. Supervisory
B. Route
C. Informational
D. Address

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2 You have set up a complex dial plan using translation rules. The following translation rule has been configured. What output would correspond to the test translation-rule command?
translation-rule 1 rule 0 ^0 .. 215550210 rule 1 ^1 .. 215550211 rule 2 ^2 .. 215550212 rule 3 ^3 .. 215550213 rule 4 ^4 .. 215550214 rule 5 ^5 .. 215550215 rule 6 ^6 .. 215550216 rule 7 ^7 .. 215550217 rule 8 ^8 .. 215550218 rule 9 ^9 .. 215550210
A. test translation-rule 1512 The replaced number: 21555021512
B. test translation-rule 1555 The replaced number: 55521555021
C. test translation-rule 1617 The replaced number: 61721555021
D. test translation-rule 1910 The replaced number: 21555021910

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
What is the optimal end-to-end delay that should be achieved in a VoIP network?

A. 20 ms
B. 100 ms
C. 150 ms
D. 400 ms

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Delay Specifications

QUESTION 4
What is the E.164 numbering plan?

A. A proprietary PBX number plan.
B. The IETF North American number plan.
C. The European PBX standard telephony number plan.
D. The ITU worldwide number plan.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
On the MOS scale, what does a 5 represent?

A. poor
B. fair
C. average
D. extra medium
E. excellent

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which of the following best describes the main difference between G.729 and G.729a?

A. G.729 has higher complexity.
B. G.729 requires a higher bit rate.
C. G.729a has built-in echo cancellation.
D. G.729a has improved speech performance.
E. G.729a is designed for use with 3DES encryption

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
What type of signalling is used for a circuit transmitted within the same channel as the voice?

A. PCM
B. SS7 Signalling
C. In-line Signalling
D. Common Channel Signalling
E. Channel Associated Signalling

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8 You are the Voice technician at Certkiller .com. The Certkiller network uses VoIP. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to knowwhat the disadvantage of using VoIP rather than VoFR or VoATM are. What will your reply be?
A. Data can arrive out of sequence.
B. Networks are complicated to design.
C. Data units can arrive out of sequence.
D. Network failures are not automatically found.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
You are the network engineer at Certkiller .com. You have configured real-time call control
processing on the Certkiller VoIP network. You want to verify this configuration.
What command should you use?

A. debug voip rtcp
B. debug call control
C. debug voip ccapi inout
D. debug voip call control
E. debug voice call control

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
How do a-law and mu-law reduce quantization error?

A. Use smaller step functions at lower amplitudes.
B. Use smaller step functions at higher frequencies.
C. Increase code points at lower amplitudes.
D. Increase code points at higher frequencies.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
You have a pair of voice enabled routers that have the capability of supporting only medium complexity codecs. You need to conserve bandwidth on WAN links without major impact to call quality. Which codecs will satisfy these requirements? (Choose two)
A. G.729
B. G.729A
C. G.729B
D. G.729.AB

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12 You are the network technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what does the connection tie-line command emulates. What will your reply be?
A. A temporary connection to a PBX.
B. A permanent connection to a PBX.
C. A temporary connection to the PSTN.
D. A permanent connection to the PSTN.
E. A permanent connection to the network.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
What is the most important piece to implement if you are considering a VoIP infrastructure?

A. QoS
B. Reinstallation of the PBX
C. A new Help Desk trained on Voice technologies D. POTS installation documentation.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14 Currently, unlike traditional phone service, IP telephone service is relatively unregulated by government.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15 You are the network engineer at Certkiller .com. Certkiller has its headquarters in New York and branch offices in Delaware, Detroit and Denver. Certkiller has a traditional time-division multiplexing (TDM) based network with automated call distribution (ACD) private branch exchanges (PBX) and desktop systems. You want to add an IP telephony solution to the Certkiller network. What will enable server and agent-level IP telephony to coexist with the existing network?
A. IPCC
B. XLD-t
C. PBX-R
D. CiscoWorks
E. Call Manager

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16 Calls between IP and PBX users can use all of the features provided by each system, and that subset is defined by the level of complexity of the voice interface between the IP network and the PBX.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
Which will provide your IP Phones with an IP Address?

A. The technician, it has to be statically assigned.
B. Any DHCP server
C. The Cisco CallManager DHCP snap-in with CiscoWorks.
D. IP Phones do not need an IP address.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
What explains how the Cisco IP SoftPhone uses the Cisco CallManager?

A. The IP SoftPhone does not work with the Cisco CallManager
B. Cisco IP SoftPhone uses the services of the Cisco CallManager to route calls through an IP telephony network.
C. Any IP SoftPhone plugs directly into the CallManager IPSP jack for onsite support
D. The IP SoftPhone will use CallManager to reset all voicemail on the PBX.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
Which organization approved the H.323 standard?

A. ITEF
B. IEEE
C. FEMA
D. Bell Atlantic
E. ITU

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Which are three required steps in digitizing voice? (Choose three)

A. Companding the signal.
B. Quantizing the amplitude.
C. Filtering the signal.
D. Sampling the soundwave.
E. Encoding the results in binary form.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
You are the VoIP engineer at Certkiller .com. A Certkiller user complains that she gets a busy tone
instead of a dial tone when she tries to call another user. You want to troubleshoot this problem.
What command should you use?

A. show voice dsp
B. show voice path
C. show voice connection
D. show voice port summary
E. show dial-peer voice summary

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22 Your manager asks you for a worksheet defining items that need to be addressed for the future VOIP and IP telephone rollout. What items do you put on the worksheets that need to be addresses for the wiring closets? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Switches with Inline Power
B. A 7000 series router to backup the switch with HSRP
C. PBX failover
D. UPS systems and Backup power
E. Cooling Requirements (a heat profile)

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23 Which device listed below has an intelligent power management system that grants or denies power to various system components based on power availability in the system for use with IP telephony?
A. Cisco 7309 VXD Router
B. Cisco Works plug in
C. CallManager
D. Catalyst 6000 switch

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24 From the list below, what allows a Cisco IP phone to detect the absence of audio and therefore does not transmit packets over the network?
A. Ipng
B. PBX Filters
C. Voice Activation Detection
D. DHE
E. Call Waiting

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25 What Cisco Catalyst Switch command produces the following inline power output? Defalut Inline Power allocation per port: 10.00 Watts (0.23 Amps @42V) Port InlinePowered PowerAllocated Admin Oper Detected mWatt mA @42V 7/1 auto off no 0 0 7/2 auto on yes 5040 120 7/3 auto faulty yes 12600 300 7/4 auto deny yes 0 0 7/5 off off no 0 0
A. show cam inlinepower <mod>|<mod/port>
B. show port inline <mod>|<mod/port>
C. show port inlinepower <mod>|<mod/port>
D. show port power <mod>|<mod/port>

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26 What are two constraints that you may encounter when trying to design a IP Telephone infrastructure?
A. Upper level management acceptance
B. Budgetary Constraints
C. STP reliability
D. IP convergence

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27 What is the biggest issue affecting voice transport when you implement IPSec VPNs in a converged network?
A. Hop count.
B. Using G.729 as the codec.
C. Throughput considerations.
D. Ensuring only software encryption is running.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28 What factors must be considered in the overall design when implementing an IPSec VPN for transport of voice?
A. Port numbers and added delay.
B. Added delay and added overhead.
C. Port numbers and longer dial plan.
D. Port numbers and added overhead.
E. Added overhead and longer dial plan.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29 When analyzing the WAN for IP Telephone deployment, you need to collect information from the WAN and LAN devices. You need to determine current Bandwidth usage before rolling out a solution. From the analysis you are performing, there are categories you can collect information from. Select two from the list below.
A. Device information, which includes router models, memory, CPU, interface card modules versions and software versions
B. The serial numbers from the Meridian Phone System
C. The existing WAN topology, which includes logical design information and bandwidth subscription rates
D. LAN information as in the make and model of the Remote site closet Nortel equipment
E. You need all the CiscoWorks server configurations to make sure you can install Call Manager

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30 If you were troubleshooting No Ringback Tone on ISDN-VoIP (H.323) Calls and had problem that POTS (PSTN/PBX) user places a call (through Cisco router/gateways) and does not hear ringback tone before call is answerered, what would you do?
A. Use the conf inline powercommand because it is not set in the terminating router.
B. Reset all the phone connections on the IP SoftPhones
C. Configure CiscoWorks CallManager to handle all errors automatically.
D. Configure the Cisco IOS global configuration command voice call send-alert in the terminating router

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which preference key word assigns top precedence to a dial peer in a hunt-group?

A. 0
B. priority
C. 1
D. high

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
What are two basic parameters needed to setup a dial peer connected to the PSTN? (Choose two)

A. voice port
B. signaling type
C. interface bandwidth
D. destination pattern

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which dial plan characteristic is most obviously improved by dropping a number translation step?

A. Availability
B. Post-dial delay
C. Scalability
D. Hierarchical design

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
When does an IP Phone receive the ring tones on the phone?

A. The phone downloads the wave file on boot.
B. The phone downloads based upon user selection.
C. The phone downloads the wave file on every request.
D. The phone downloads based on CallManager request.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 35 Which field can be manually entered into the database when using the BAT tool, but not when using the TAPS tool??
A. Partiition
B. Directory number
C. Device MAC address
D. Calling Search Space

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36 Name two factors that will need to be considered and may provide a hurdle to move forward with your VOIP rollout and IP telephony implementation:
A. Money Flow issues.
B. Business Requirement
C. Technical Constraints
D. Budget constraints
E. Project Management Meetings

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37 When the Directories button on the 7960 phone is pressed, what does the 7960 use to retrieve the Dirctory information?
A. XML
B. SQL
C. LDAP
D. Skinny

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
Which file does the BAT tool use to import users into the CallManager database?

A. CSV
B. Microsoft Word
C. Microsoft Excel
D. Tab-delimited text file

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
You are the network technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller
trainee wants to knowwhat the attributes of a scalable dialing plan are. What will your reply be?
(Choose four)

A. Logic distribution
B. Hierarchical design
C. Simplicity in provisioning
D. Reduction in pre-dial delay
E. reduction in post-dial delay

Correct Answer: ABCE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
What happens if no incoming dial peer matches a router or gateway?

A. The incoming call leg takes an alternate path.
B. The incoming call legmatches the default dial peer.
C. The incoming call leg sends a busy to the originator.
D. The incoming call leg is denied and the call is dropped.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41 A 9 digit number must be dialed to reach numbers on the PSTN. What process makes sure that the first 9 digit is not transmitted as part of the called number?
A. digit alternating
B. digit masking
C. digit manipulation
D. digit seizing

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
Which gateway interface connects to the standard station port of a PBX?

A. FXS
B. E&M
C. POST
D. FXO

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43 What from the list below combines voice mail, e-mail, and fax into a single application suite where a single application can be used to store and retrieve entire suite of message types?
A. PBSX Listing
B. Name Resolution IPTC
C. Call Manager 3.01
D. Cat 4000 STP v3
E. Unified messaging

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
In a distributed call processing model, which three are located at each site? (Choose three.)

A. gatekeeper
B. voice messaging
C. media resources
D. Cisco CallManager cluster

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45 What can be used not only to restrict dialing, but also to identify a subset of a subset of a wildcard pattern (when using the @ wildcard in the North American Dialing Plan)?
A. An IS sheet
B. A ACL
C. A Route Filter
D. A DN top

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
What does the Digit Discard Instruction of PreDot do to the pattern 9.2148134444?

A. prefix a 9 before the “-” if none is dialled
B. discard 2148134444 and send the 9 access code
C. only collect the first four digits counting right to left.
D. change it to 2148134444 before presenting it to the PSTN Answer: D

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47 What is the key element in call admission control when interconnecting CallManager sites via the IP WAN?
A. gatekeepers
B. voice messaging
C. media resources
D. call processing agents

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48 Certkiller has its headquarters in New York and branch offices in Delaware, Delhi and Dakar. Headquarters and the Delaware branch office has IP Phones. The other two offices have analog phones that are connected to FXS port on the router in the site′s administration building. Users at these offices complain that they are unable to call out in the PSTN or to each other. You receive the following output: 2611#s voice port 1/0/0 Foreign Exchange Station 1/0/0 Slot is 1, Sub-unit is 0, Port is 0 Type of VoicePort is FXS Operation State is DORMANT Administrative State is UP No Interface Down Failure Description is not set Noise Regeneration is enabled Non Linear Processing is enabled Non Linear Mute is disabled Non Linear Threshold is -21 dB Music On Hold Threshold is Set to 38 dBm In Gain is Set to 0 dB Out Attention is Set to 3 dB Echo Cancellation is enabled Echo Cancellation NLP mute is disabled Echo Cancellation NLP threshold is -21 dB Echo Cancel Coverage is set to default Playout-delay Mode is set to default Playout-delay Nominal is set to 60 ms Playout-delay Maximal is set to 200 ms Playout-delay Minimum mode is set to default, value 40 ms Playout-delay Fax is set to 300 ms Connection Mode is normal Connection Number is not set Initial Time Out is set to 10 s Interdigit Time Out is set to 10 s Call Disconnect Time Out is set to 60 s Ringing Time Out is set to 180 s Wait Release Time Out is set to 30 s Companding Type is u-law Region Tone is set for US Analog Info Follows: Currently processing none Maintenance Mode Set to None (not in mtc mode) Number of signaling protocol errors are 0 Impedance is set to 600r Ohm Station name None, Station number None Voice card specific Info Follows: Signal Type is ground Start Ring Frequency is 25 Hz Hook Status is On Hook Ring Active Status is inactive Ring Ground Status is inactive Tip Ground Status is inactive Digit Duration Status is inactive Digit Duration Timing is set to 100 ms InterDigit Duration Timing is set to 100 ms No disconnect acknowledge Ring Cadence is defined by CPTone Selection Ring Cadance are * 100 msec 2611#

What is the cause of this problem?
A. The cptone is incorrect
B. The dial-type is incorrect
C. The signal type is incorrect
D. The playout-delay is incorrect
E. The disconnect-ack is incorrect

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
Which type of delay is caused by the line speed of the interface?

A. Queuing delay
B. Serialization delay
C. Propagation delay
D. Packetiziation delay

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Serialization Delay Serialization delay (?n) is the fixed delay required to clock a voice or data frame onto the network interface, and It is directly related to the clock rate on the trunk. Remember that at low clock speeds and small frame sizes the extra flag needed to separate frames is significant. Queuing/ Buffering Delay After the compressed voice payload is built, a header is added and the frame is queued for transmission on the network connection. Because voice should have absolute priority in the router/ gateway, a voice frame must only wait for either a data frame already playing out, or for other voice frames ahead of it. Essentially the voice frame is waiting for the serialization delay of any preceding frames in the output queue. Queuing delay (.n) is a variable delay and is dependent on the trunk speed and the state of the queue. Clearly there are random elements associated with the queuing delay. PacketizationDelay Packetization delay(?n) is the time taken to fill a packet payload with encoded/compressed speech. This delay is a function of the sample block size required by the vocoder and the number of blocks placed in a single frame. Packetization delay may also be called Accumulation delay, as the voice samples accumulate in a buffer before being released.
QUESTION 50 Certkiller has its headquarters in New York and branch offices in Delaware, Detroit and Denver.Each office has an analog phone at each location. These phones are connected to an FXS port on the on-site router. The Finance department at the Denver office is unable to make any phone class from these analog phones. You receive the following output: 2611#s voice port 1/0/0 Foreign Exchange Station 1/0/0 Slot is 1, Sub-unit is 0, Port is 0 Type of VoicePort is FXS Operation State is DORMANT Administrative State is UP No Interface Down Failure Description is not set Noise Regeneration is enabled Non Linear Processing is enabled Non Linear Mute is disabled Non Linear Threshold is -21 dB Music On Hold Threshold is Set to 38 dBm In Gain is Set to 0 dB Out Attention is Set to 3 dB Echo Cancellation is enabled Echo Cancellation NLP mute is disabled Echo Cancellation NLP threshold is -21 dB Echo Cancel Coverage is set to default Playout-delay Mode is set to default Playout-delay Nominal is set to 60 ms Playout-delay Maximal is set to 200 ms Playout-delay Minimum mode is set to default, value 40 ms Playout-delay Fax is set to 300 ms Connection Mode is normal Connection Number is not set Initial Time Out is set to 10 s Interdigit Time Out is set to 10 s Call Disconnect Time Out is set to 60 s Ringing Time Out is set to 180 Wait Release Time Out is set to 30 s Companding Type is u-law Region Tone is set for US Analog Info Follows: Currently processing none Maintenance Mode Set to None (not in mtc mode) Number of signaling protocol errors are 0 Impedance is set to 600r Ohm Station name None, Station number None Voice card specific Info Follows: Signal Type is groundStart Ring Frequency is 25 Hz Hook Status is On Hook Ring Active Status is inactive Ring Ground Status is inactive Tip Ground Status is inactive Digit Duration Status is inactive Digit Duration Timing is set to 100 ms InterDigit Duration Timing is set to 100 ms No disconnect acknowledge Ring Cadence is defined by CPTone Selection Ring Cadance are * 100 msec 2611# What is the cause of this problem?

A. The cptone is incorrect
B. The dial-type is incorrect
C. The signal type is incorrect
D. The playout-delay is incorrect
E. The disconnect-ack is incorrect

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which command would you use to determine if device aliases in VSAN 5 are configured for fabric-wide distribution?
A. show zoneset name alias vsan 5
B. show cfs application name device-alias
C. show fcalias distribution vsan 5
D. show vsan 5 device-alias status

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center

QUESTION 3
The MDS 9000 family switches use what three technologies to protect against unauthorized management access? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3
B. SSH
C. RBAC
D. RMON
E. SES
F. WEBM

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two of these environments suggest the use of FCIP Write Acceleration? (Choose two.)
A. remote tape backup
B. PortChannel links between sites
C. applications that support multiple outstanding I/Os
D. fast network with minimal delays
E. DWDM links

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which three of the following are possible reasons why a line card module does not come online? (Choose three.)
A. Port indexes have been taken offline.
B. Available port indexes are noncontiguous.
C. Not enough power is available in the chassis.
D. An invalid interoperability mode has been configured.
E. Unsupported SFPs have been installed.
F. Not enough port indexes are available.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two options from the Tools menu would you select to verify connectivity and latency to a Fibre Channel end device? (Choose two.)

A. Switch Health
B. Fabric Configuration
C. End to End Connectivity
D. Ping
E. Device Manager

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
During initial switch configuration, the administrator elects to enable full zoneset distribution. What is the impact of this choice during zoneset activation?
A. only the active zoneset is distributed to all switches in the fabric
B. both the full zone database and active zoneset are distributed to all switches in the fabric
C. both FCID and WWN information are distributed to all switches in the fabric
D. only the full zone database is distributed to all switches in the fabric

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You are asked to review the running configuration of a switch that a junior administrator has prepared to be placed in a heterogeneous SAN environment. This environment includes three different brands of Fibre
Channel switches. In this particular environment, only VSAN 1 is being used. Which of these attributes suggests that the switch has been incorrectly configured?
A. A static domain ID has been set to 0x21.
B. The src-dst-ox load balancing has been selected.
C. Interop mode 1 has been selected.
D. FCC has been enabled.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Drop

e
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 11
Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 12
What two commands must be executed on an MDS 9000 family switch in order to change a dynamically assigned Domain ID 5 to a static Domain ID 10 for VSAN 10? Choose two.
A. switch(config-if)# shut fcdomain 5
B. switch(config-if)# no shut fcdomain 10
C. switch(config)# fcdomain domain 10
D. switch(config)# fcdomain domain 10 static vsan 10
E. switch(config)# fcdomain restart vsan 10
F. switch(config)# fcdomain restart disruptive vsan 10

Correct Answer: DF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
When configuring FCIP, packet fragmentation should be avoided in order to achieve optimal throughput. Fragmentation can be avoided by knowing which of the following?
A. MTU of the source IP interface
B. largest MTU in the path
C. smallest MTU in the path
D. MTU of the destination IP interface
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators? (Choose three.)
A. iSCSI node name
B. host name
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSI WWN

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
You have been asked to convert three existing ISLs into a PortChannel as nondisruptively as possible. Which approach will best accomplish this?

A. Place all three ISLs into a PortChannel, because PortChannel creation is a nondisruptive operation.
B. Convert the ISLs into an EISL and then place them into a PortChannel.
C. Place one link into a single-link PortChannel and then add the other two links to the PortChannel.
D. Ensure that the VSAN allowed lists on both ends of each link are identically configured, then create the three-link PortChannel.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which three statements describe automatically supported, basic zone features (no additional configuration required) in the Cisco MDS 9000 Family of switches? (Choose three.)
A. A VSAN contains the zone sets.
B. Zone reactivation can disrupt existing traffic.
C. A zone or zone set with the same name can exist in each VSAN.
D. Hard zoning can be disabled.
E. Active zone sets are preserved across switch reboots.
F. Default zoning behavior is to distribute the Full Zone Database.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three options allow or enable nondisruptive upgrades? (Choose three.)
A. IPS module software upgrades
B. dual supervisor modules on a Cisco MDS 9500 Series switch
C. using the install-all command
D. upgrading the loader
E. installing a license
F. using the reload command

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which services are supported by a Cisco SAN-OS AAA configuration?
A. Telnet, SSH, FM and DM logins
B. console login, FC-SP authentication, FTP
C. FC-SP authentication, FM and DM logins, TFTP
D. iSCSI authentication, FTP, FC-SP authentication

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop?
A. 126
B. 127
C. 255
D. 256

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A customer with multiple vendor switches establishes an ISL between a non-Cisco switch and an E_Port on a Cisco MDS 9000 switch. Which three statements are true about the interop behavior between the two switches? (Choose three.)
A. Exchange-based load balancing is supported in all interop modes.
B. Interop mode affects all VSANs.
C. Only E_Ports can be used to connect to non-Cisco MDS switches.
D. The non-Cisco switch must have matching FC timers with the VSAN containing the E_Port on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series switch.
E. Adding another ISL between the switches will allow a PortChannel to be configured for HA.
F. Interop mode 1 allows full featured communication between all combinations of MDS and non-MDS switches

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which license is required on switches that are going to implement LUN zoning?
A. Storage Services Enabler
B. Enterprise license
C. Fabric Manager Server license
D. SAN Extension over IP license

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Drop e

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 23
Which two of these logging statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Call Home message level 0 is most urgent and level 7 is least urgent, whereas the syslog level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent.
B. Syslog message level 0 is most urgent and level 7 is least urgent, whereas the Call Home message level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent.
C. Syslog message level 7 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent, whereas the Call Home message level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent.
D. Accounting logs can be stored locally and sent to remote AAA servers.
E. Go to logs > syslog > setup in Device Manager to view the local accounting log.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which of these Cisco Fabric Manager debugging tools can compare the current configuration with a previously saved configuration file?
A. Switch Health Analysis
B. Fabric Configuration Analysis
C. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis
D. Zone Merge Analysis

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Choose the correct list of tasks to configure Remote Spanning.
A. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure a SPAN session in the source switch.
B. Create a VSAN interface.
Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel.
Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel.
Configure the ST_Port in the source switch.
Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch.
Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.

C. Create an RSPAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.
D. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the destination switch. Configure the SD_Port in the source switch. Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
When creating an Inter-VSAN routing topology, which type of World Wide Name (WWN) must be used?
A. Port WWN
B. Switch WWN
C. Fabric Port WWN
D. VSAN WWN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Your company has a multiswitch fabric including Switch A and Switch B. An administrator of Switch A creates the following zone set and successfully activates it: zoneset name ZoneSet1 vsan 1 zone name Zone1 vsan 1 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:03:b6 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:55:bb
Later in the day, a second administrator creates the following zone set on Switch B: zoneset name ZoneSet2 vsan 1 zone name Zone1 vsan 1 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:03:b6 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:55:aa What happens when the administrator of Switch B attempts to activate ZoneSet2?
A. ZoneSet2 becomes the active zone set for both Switches A and B.
B. The fabric segments and ZoneSet2 become the active zone set for Switch B only.
C. The fabric segments and ZoneSet2 become the active zone set for Switch A only.
D. The fabric segments and ZoneSet1 remain the active zone set for Switch B, while ZoneSet2 becomes the active zone set for Switch A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
You have been asked to configure a port on your Cisco MDS switch so that a host can join your fabric. Which of these switch port types should the port be set to?
A. N_Port
B. NL_Port
C. F_Port
D. E_Port
E. TE_Port
F. SD_Port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 30
Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. RMON
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise design, the customer requires that agents are able to make
personal outbound calls from their Cisco IP phone, but they do not want to allow the agent to use their
ACD line for these calls. How would this requirement be addressed given the following:
Agent ACD Line: 1000 (DN)

Allow PSTN calling search space: Allows outbound calls to PSTN. Block PSTN calling search space:
Blocks outbound calls to PSTN.

A. add second line on IP phone with DN 1000, but in different partition, allow PSTN calling search space
B. add second line on IP phone with DN 1000, but in same partition, block PSTN calling search space
C. add second line on IP phone with DN 2000, but in different partition, allow PSTN calling search space
D. add second line on IP phone with DN 2000, but in same partition, block PSTN calling search space

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of the following Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal call-flow models does not require a Cisco IOS-based VoiceXML Gateway?
A. Standalone Self-Service
B. Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Control
C. Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Control with Queue and Collect
D. Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Control with Queue and Self-Service
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Network Interface Controller-based Call Control with Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Queue, Collect, and Self-Service

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which protocol does the Cisco Unified ICM use to interface with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. AXL
B. SIP
C. H.323
D. JTAPI
E. SOAP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
When the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system transfers a call to the Cisco Unified IP IVR to
queue the call using a translation route to VRU, what label is sent to the routing client?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Busy label
B. Cisco Unified IP IVR CTI port
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MTP
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI route point

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which of the following configurations are supported with the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. Cisco Agent Desktop with Communications Manager Attendant Console
B. Cisco Agent Desktop without Communications Manager Attendant Console
C. Cisco CTI Object Server Agent Desktop with Communications Manager Attendant Console
D. Cisco Siebel Driver/CRM Desktop with Communications Manager Attendant Console

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which of these functions is not a function of the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. reporting with WebView
B. CTI desktop functionality for agent state control
C. call-routing functionality based on real-time conditions
D. instructing queue points to play specific messages to callers
E. accepting media streams and acting as a conference bridge

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which two of the following are not parts of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager device pool configuration? (Choose two.)
A. primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager group
B. SRST reference
C. region
D. location
E. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which two configuration tasks are necessary in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager for the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution? (Choose two.)
A. configure agent IP phone, supervisor IP phone, and CTI route points
B. configure agent ID, supervisor ID, and system administrator password
C. configure agent, supervisor, and CTI user accounts
D. configure scripts for call routing
E. configure call routing to agents
F. configure device associations of agent phones and CTI devices with the PG user

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which type of user access is not controlled by Microsoft Windows Active Directory in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise?
A. agent login
B. supervisor login
C. WebView user login
D. service account login

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
When sizing the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster in a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with the Cisco Unified IP IVR, which factor must be taken into account?
A. the number of dialed numbers configured in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Call Router
B. the maximum number of concurrent calls in progress in the Cisco Unified IP IVR, serviced by CTI ports
C. the number of Run VRU script nodes executed by the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing script once the call is terminated in the Cisco Unified IP IVR
D. the total number of CTI route points, CTI ports, and BHCAs associated with the Cisco Unified IP IVR
E. the maximum number of concurrent agents in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which interface in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution is supported over a firewall with NAT deployed?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise CTI OS Desktop and CTI OS for silent monitoring
B. DMP between the Peripheral Gateway and Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Call Routers
C. Cisco TAPI QBE between the Peripheral Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
D. MDS or private network path between Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Call Router pair (side A and side B)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
When using the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility feature with Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise, which two are the correct sequences for agent login and logout? (Choose two.)
A. Log in to Extension Mobility and Cisco Agent Desktop at the same time.
B. Log out of Extension Mobility followed by Cisco Agent Desktop.
C. Log in to Extension Mobility followed by Cisco Agent Desktop.
D. Log out of Cisco Agent Desktop followed by Extension Mobility.
E. Log in to Cisco Agent Desktop followed by Extension Mobility.
F. Log out of Extension Mobility and Cisco Agent Desktop at the same time.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which statement best describes the functions that the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal performs?
A. IP Call Control and queuing platform behind legacy or TDM ACD environments
B. IVR and queuing treatment for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployments
C. IP soft switch for integrating service provider networks to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solutions
D. IP Call Control and IVR application creation or execution, which can be deployed in many different call scenarios both with and without contact center

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Cisco Voice Gateways can provide services beyond just DSP. How are these services provided?
A. using external servers and gateways to support additional functions
B. integrated into subroutines stored in flash RAM on the gateway
C. integrated into Cisco IOS core on the gateway
D. written in Tcl scripts on the gateway to provide supplemental services

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which feature of Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is not supported when deployed using the System CCE deployment model introduced in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 7.0?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise dynamic re-skilling of agents on the System PG
B. Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal for queuing on the System PG
C. Cisco Unified IP IVR for queuing on the System PG
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Cisco Agent Desktop on the System PG
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Mobile Agent on the System PG

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
When using the Cisco Unified IP IVR in a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, what are three best practices to improve availability of the solution? (Choose three.)
A. Add multiple duplex or redundant Cisco Unified IP IVRs to create a Cisco Unified IP IVR cluster.
B. Use the Cisco Unified IP IVR high-availability option.
C. Use the Cisco Unified Communications Manager call forwarding features on CTI route points and devices associated with the Cisco Unified IP IVR.
D. Use Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise scripting to control call delivery to Cisco Unified IP IVRs based on available trunks or peripheral status.
E. Use default labels in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing scripts.
F. Use default scripts in the Cisco Unified IP IVR.

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which two of the following statements are correct regarding Cisco voice gateways in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution? (Choose two.)
A. Additional call processing is available by using H.323 Tcl scripts and additional dial peers.
B. Additional call processing is available by using MGCP Tcl scripts and additional dial peers.
C. An eight-port T1 card fails in a Catalyst 6500 chassis, which could impact 184 calls using ISDN PRI service.
D. An eight-port T1 card fails in a Catalyst 6500 chassis, which could impact 192 calls using ISDN PRI service.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which agent-initiated transfer method is not supported by the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with either Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal nor Cisco Unified IP IVR?
A. Blind Transfer
B. Warm Transfer
C. Hook Flash Transfer
D. Carrier Services – Two B-Channel Transfer
E. Carrier Services – Transfer Connect or Take Back and Transfer

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What is the codec requirement when using Cisco Unified Mobile Agent in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 7.1.x?
A. The CTI ports used to place calls to the agent (remote CTI ports) can use any mix codecs (G.711/ G.729), depending on the agent location.
B. The CTI ports used to route new inbound calls to the the agent (local CTI ports) can use any mix codecs (G.711/G.729), depending on the location of the ingress Cisco Voice Gateway.
C. The CTI ports used for both placing calls to the agents (remote CTI ports) and for handling new inbound calls (local CTI ports) can use any mix of codecs (G.711/G.729), provided that the correct transcoding resources are engaged to match the regions correctly.
D. The CTI ports used for both placing calls to the agents (remote CTI ports) and for handling new inbound calls (local CTI ports) must all be the same codec (G.711 or G.729).

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
The process of sending pre-call data about a call to a targeted site in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution is known as which of these terms?
A. pre-routing
B. post-routing
C. translation routing
D. event-based routing
E. service control routing

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which three features or functionalities does the Cisco Unified Communications Manager provide for the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution? (Choose three.)
A. call routing from PSTN gateway to agents
B. CTI data on Cisco Agent Desktop screen pop
C. call routing from PSTN gateway to voice response systems
D. agent, supervisor, and team configuration
E. Extension Mobility for agents
F. hunt groups and pickup groups for Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
How is service-level information obtained in a Cisco Unified Contact Center
Enterprise parent/child model with calls queued at the parent in Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal?

A. in the parent Cisco Unified ICM system, using services data
B. in the parent Cisco Unified ICM system, using skill group data
C. in the child Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise System, using call type data
D. in the child Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise System, using services data

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
What is the primary advantage of agent targeting rules in a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise configuration?
A. to eliminate the configuration of agent device target labels
B. to simplify the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise scripting environment
C. to enhance Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise agent reporting
D. to allow agents to log into remote devices

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Why are call types important in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system?
A. They replace skill group data for a call.
B. They allow the system to track a call across multiple peripherals.
C. They allow CTI screen-pop data to be sent to agents with the call.
D. They are required to translation-route the call to the Cisco Unified IP IVR or Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, what is the impact to the system if inbound call volumes increase?
A. Agent capacity on the Peripheral Gateways are decreased.
B. Agent capacity on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber in the cluster are decreased.
C. Agent capacity on the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Call Routers are decreased.
D. Agent reporting capacity in WebView is decreased.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Which of the following processes on a Cisco Unified ICM Logger works over the private network to maintain database synchronization?
A. LGR
B. RCV
C. RPL
D. CSFS
E. RTR
F. OPC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
What is the recommended way to configure redundant Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscribers for Cisco IP phone registration in a single cluster for the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. add a redundant device pool to the Cisco Unified CallManager Group configuration
B. add a second TFTP server to the cluster
C. add an additional Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Group defined in Device pool of the Cisco IP Phone
D. use an SRST reference in the device pool

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 28
What role does Cisco Unified Communications Manager play in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. automatic call distribution
B. integrated call distribution
C. interactive voice response system
D. call switching to agent and Cisco Unified IP IVR

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which three of these conditions are reasons to incorporate a Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal VoiceXML Server into the solution? (Choose three.)
A. if Automatic Speech Recognition is required
B. if back-end server or host system access is required using a nonstandard mechanism
C. if a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing script passes data to a Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal VoiceXML script and receives data in return when the script terminates
D. if data collected in a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing script is stored in the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal 4.0 reporting server database without having to invoke a Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal VoiceXML Server application
E. if development of a library of custom script elements that can be used repeatedly in Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal VoiceXML Server applications is required
F. if the capabilities of the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal VoiceXML Server need to be extended in order to play numeric, time, date, or currency data using high-quality recorded voice in languages which are not supported out of the box

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
In the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal branch model deployment using a centralized Cisco Unified CVP VoiceXML server, over which three communication paths may the VoiceXML documents be transmitted? (Choose three.)
A. between the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Server and the VoiceXML Gateway
B. between the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Server and the Cisco Unified CVP VoiceXML Server
C. between the VoiceXML Gateway and the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal VoiceXML Server
D. between the VoiceXML Gateway and the media server
E. between the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Server and the media server
F. between the VoiceXML Gateway and the ASR server

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise design, the customer requires that agents are able to make
personal outbound calls from their Cisco IP phone, but they do not want to allow the agent to use their
ACD line for these calls. How would this requirement be addressed given the following:
Agent ACD Line: 1000 (DN)

Allow PSTN calling search space: Allows outbound calls to PSTN. Block PSTN calling search space:
Blocks outbound calls to PSTN.

A. add second line on IP phone with DN 1000, but in different partition, allow PSTN calling search space
B. add second line on IP phone with DN 1000, but in same partition, block PSTN calling search space
C. add second line on IP phone with DN 2000, but in different partition, allow PSTN calling search space
D. add second line on IP phone with DN 2000, but in same partition, block PSTN calling search space

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of the following Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal call-flow models does not require a Cisco IOS-based VoiceXML Gateway?
A. Standalone Self-Service
B. Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Control
C. Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Control with Queue and Collect
D. Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Control with Queue and Self-Service
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Network Interface Controller-based Call Control with Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Queue, Collect, and Self-Service

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which protocol does the Cisco Unified ICM use to interface with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. AXL
B. SIP
C. H.323
D. JTAPI
E. SOAP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
When the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system transfers a call to the Cisco Unified IP IVR to
queue the call using a translation route to VRU, what label is sent to the routing client?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Busy label
B. Cisco Unified IP IVR CTI port
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MTP
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI route point

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which of the following configurations are supported with the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. Cisco Agent Desktop with Communications Manager Attendant Console
B. Cisco Agent Desktop without Communications Manager Attendant Console
C. Cisco CTI Object Server Agent Desktop with Communications Manager Attendant Console
D. Cisco Siebel Driver/CRM Desktop with Communications Manager Attendant Console

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which of these functions is not a function of the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. reporting with WebView
B. CTI desktop functionality for agent state control
C. call-routing functionality based on real-time conditions
D. instructing queue points to play specific messages to callers
E. accepting media streams and acting as a conference bridge

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which two of the following are not parts of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager device pool configuration? (Choose two.)
A. primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager group
B. SRST reference
C. region
D. location
E. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which two configuration tasks are necessary in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager for the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution? (Choose two.)
A. configure agent IP phone, supervisor IP phone, and CTI route points
B. configure agent ID, supervisor ID, and system administrator password
C. configure agent, supervisor, and CTI user accounts
D. configure scripts for call routing
E. configure call routing to agents
F. configure device associations of agent phones and CTI devices with the PG user

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which type of user access is not controlled by Microsoft Windows Active Directory in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise?
A. agent login
B. supervisor login
C. WebView user login
D. service account login

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
When sizing the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster in a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with the Cisco Unified IP IVR, which factor must be taken into account?
A. the number of dialed numbers configured in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Call Router
B. the maximum number of concurrent calls in progress in the Cisco Unified IP IVR, serviced by CTI ports
C. the number of Run VRU script nodes executed by the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing script once the call is terminated in the Cisco Unified IP IVR
D. the total number of CTI route points, CTI ports, and BHCAs associated with the Cisco Unified IP IVR
E. the maximum number of concurrent agents in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which interface in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution is supported over a firewall with NAT deployed?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise CTI OS Desktop and CTI OS for silent monitoring
B. DMP between the Peripheral Gateway and Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Call Routers
C. Cisco TAPI QBE between the Peripheral Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
D. MDS or private network path between Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Call Router pair (side A and side B)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
When using the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility feature with Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise, which two are the correct sequences for agent login and logout? (Choose two.)
A. Log in to Extension Mobility and Cisco Agent Desktop at the same time.
B. Log out of Extension Mobility followed by Cisco Agent Desktop.
C. Log in to Extension Mobility followed by Cisco Agent Desktop.
D. Log out of Cisco Agent Desktop followed by Extension Mobility.
E. Log in to Cisco Agent Desktop followed by Extension Mobility.
F. Log out of Extension Mobility and Cisco Agent Desktop at the same time.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which statement best describes the functions that the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal performs?
A. IP Call Control and queuing platform behind legacy or TDM ACD environments
B. IVR and queuing treatment for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployments
C. IP soft switch for integrating service provider networks to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solutions
D. IP Call Control and IVR application creation or execution, which can be deployed in many different call scenarios both with and without contact center

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Cisco Voice Gateways can provide services beyond just DSP. How are these services provided?
A. using external servers and gateways to support additional functions
B. integrated into subroutines stored in flash RAM on the gateway
C. integrated into Cisco IOS core on the gateway
D. written in Tcl scripts on the gateway to provide supplemental services

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which feature of Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is not supported when deployed using the System CCE deployment model introduced in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 7.0?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise dynamic re-skilling of agents on the System PG
B. Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal for queuing on the System PG
C. Cisco Unified IP IVR for queuing on the System PG
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Cisco Agent Desktop on the System PG
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Mobile Agent on the System PG

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
When using the Cisco Unified IP IVR in a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, what are three best practices to improve availability of the solution? (Choose three.)
A. Add multiple duplex or redundant Cisco Unified IP IVRs to create a Cisco Unified IP IVR cluster.
B. Use the Cisco Unified IP IVR high-availability option.
C. Use the Cisco Unified Communications Manager call forwarding features on CTI route points and devices associated with the Cisco Unified IP IVR.
D. Use Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise scripting to control call delivery to Cisco Unified IP IVRs based on available trunks or peripheral status.
E. Use default labels in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing scripts.
F. Use default scripts in the Cisco Unified IP IVR.

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which two of the following statements are correct regarding Cisco voice gateways in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution? (Choose two.)
A. Additional call processing is available by using H.323 Tcl scripts and additional dial peers.
B. Additional call processing is available by using MGCP Tcl scripts and additional dial peers.
C. An eight-port T1 card fails in a Catalyst 6500 chassis, which could impact 184 calls using ISDN PRI service.
D. An eight-port T1 card fails in a Catalyst 6500 chassis, which could impact 192 calls using ISDN PRI service.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which agent-initiated transfer method is not supported by the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with either Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal nor Cisco Unified IP IVR?
A. Blind Transfer
B. Warm Transfer
C. Hook Flash Transfer
D. Carrier Services – Two B-Channel Transfer
E. Carrier Services – Transfer Connect or Take Back and Transfer

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What is the codec requirement when using Cisco Unified Mobile Agent in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 7.1.x?
A. The CTI ports used to place calls to the agent (remote CTI ports) can use any mix codecs (G.711/ G.729), depending on the agent location.
B. The CTI ports used to route new inbound calls to the the agent (local CTI ports) can use any mix codecs (G.711/G.729), depending on the location of the ingress Cisco Voice Gateway.
C. The CTI ports used for both placing calls to the agents (remote CTI ports) and for handling new inbound calls (local CTI ports) can use any mix of codecs (G.711/G.729), provided that the correct transcoding resources are engaged to match the regions correctly.
D. The CTI ports used for both placing calls to the agents (remote CTI ports) and for handling new inbound calls (local CTI ports) must all be the same codec (G.711 or G.729).

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
The process of sending pre-call data about a call to a targeted site in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution is known as which of these terms?
A. pre-routing
B. post-routing
C. translation routing
D. event-based routing
E. service control routing

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which three features or functionalities does the Cisco Unified Communications Manager provide for the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution? (Choose three.)
A. call routing from PSTN gateway to agents
B. CTI data on Cisco Agent Desktop screen pop
C. call routing from PSTN gateway to voice response systems
D. agent, supervisor, and team configuration
E. Extension Mobility for agents
F. hunt groups and pickup groups for Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
How is service-level information obtained in a Cisco Unified Contact Center
Enterprise parent/child model with calls queued at the parent in Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal?

A. in the parent Cisco Unified ICM system, using services data
B. in the parent Cisco Unified ICM system, using skill group data
C. in the child Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise System, using call type data
D. in the child Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise System, using services data

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
What is the primary advantage of agent targeting rules in a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise configuration?
A. to eliminate the configuration of agent device target labels
B. to simplify the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise scripting environment
C. to enhance Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise agent reporting
D. to allow agents to log into remote devices

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Why are call types important in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system?
A. They replace skill group data for a call.
B. They allow the system to track a call across multiple peripherals.
C. They allow CTI screen-pop data to be sent to agents with the call.
D. They are required to translation-route the call to the Cisco Unified IP IVR or Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, what is the impact to the system if inbound call volumes increase?
A. Agent capacity on the Peripheral Gateways are decreased.
B. Agent capacity on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber in the cluster are decreased.
C. Agent capacity on the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Call Routers are decreased.
D. Agent reporting capacity in WebView is decreased.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Which of the following processes on a Cisco Unified ICM Logger works over the private network to maintain database synchronization?
A. LGR
B. RCV
C. RPL
D. CSFS
E. RTR
F. OPC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
What is the recommended way to configure redundant Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscribers for Cisco IP phone registration in a single cluster for the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. add a redundant device pool to the Cisco Unified CallManager Group configuration
B. add a second TFTP server to the cluster
C. add an additional Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Group defined in Device pool of the Cisco IP Phone
D. use an SRST reference in the device pool

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 28
What role does Cisco Unified Communications Manager play in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. automatic call distribution
B. integrated call distribution
C. interactive voice response system
D. call switching to agent and Cisco Unified IP IVR

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which three of these conditions are reasons to incorporate a Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal VoiceXML Server into the solution? (Choose three.)
A. if Automatic Speech Recognition is required
B. if back-end server or host system access is required using a nonstandard mechanism
C. if a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing script passes data to a Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal VoiceXML script and receives data in return when the script terminates
D. if data collected in a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing script is stored in the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal 4.0 reporting server database without having to invoke a Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal VoiceXML Server application
E. if development of a library of custom script elements that can be used repeatedly in Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal VoiceXML Server applications is required
F. if the capabilities of the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal VoiceXML Server need to be extended in order to play numeric, time, date, or currency data using high-quality recorded voice in languages which are not supported out of the box

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
In the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal branch model deployment using a centralized Cisco Unified CVP VoiceXML server, over which three communication paths may the VoiceXML documents be transmitted? (Choose three.)
A. between the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Server and the VoiceXML Gateway
B. between the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Server and the Cisco Unified CVP VoiceXML Server
C. between the VoiceXML Gateway and the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal VoiceXML Server
D. between the VoiceXML Gateway and the media server
E. between the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Server and the media server
F. between the VoiceXML Gateway and the ASR server

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 31
How does Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise provide security to the system?
A. Microsoft Windows Active Directory is used to control access to the system.
B. Microsoft SQL Server accounts and logins for all users are used to control access to the system.
C. Cisco Synchronization Service is used to control access to the system.
D. Administrator accounts for the system are encrypted and kept in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise database to control access to the system.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Which two Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise components impact visible network WAN bandwidth sizing to the central controllers? (Choose two.)
A. number of and type of remote administrative workstations
B. number of dialed numbers in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise configured for remote Cisco Voice Gateways
C. size and number of Cisco Unified Contact Center ECC variables passed to remote CTI OS agent desktops for screen pop
D. number and type of configured Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise agents

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
When a call is processed using the Ring No Answer dialed number in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise, what is the caller experience?
A. The caller hears a standard system error greeting and the call is terminated.
B. The caller hears queue music and is sent to the default queue for that call type.
C. The caller hears ringing at the agent and then whatever treatment is in the Ring No Answer script.
D. The caller is automatically transferred to the next agent without any indication.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
When using redundant Cisco Unified IP IVR systems for queuing in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which of these statements must be true?
A. The pair of Cisco Unified IP IVRs must be deployed using the Cisco Unified IP IVR high-availability option.
B. Each Cisco Unified IP IVR must be pointed to a different subscriber in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
C. Both Cisco Unified IP IVRs must use the same resource manager JTAPI and CRS JTAPI users when connecting to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
D. The private network between the duplex Cisco Unified IP IVRs must have QoS applied for both Layer 2 and Layer 3 markings.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment with geographically redundant central controllers, a new site is added with two new Admin Workstations as the only AWs at the site. What is the recommended configuration (AW type) for these two machines?
A. 1 – Primary Distributor AW, 1 – Secondary Distributor AW
B. 1 – Primary Distributor AW, 1 – Client AW
C. 1 – Secondary Distributor AW, 1 – Client AW
D. 2 – Client AWs
E. 2 – Secondary Distributor AWs
F. 1 – Primary Client AW, 1 – Secondary Client AW

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
In order to properly determine how many Cisco Voice Gateways are needed in a Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal deployment, the following information is provided by the customer: “We typically receive about 6000 calls a day, higher on Mondays. Each call lasts an average of four minutes once the caller is talking to an agent, and the average queue time is about five minutes. Also, there is about a one-minute prompt and collect activity when the call first arrives. All calls go to a single contact center, and the data center is located on-site. All the contact center agents are on Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP phones with Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Cisco Agent Desktop.”
What two additional pieces of information are required? (Choose two.)
A. Are calls planned to use SIP or H.323 for call control?
B. What codec will be used for the Cisco Unified IP phones?
C. Are there “down periods” when the contact center is closed?
D. How much redundancy is required?
E. How many calls are received during the busiest hour?

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which two statements about QoS are not correct in the Cisco Unified ICM solution? (Choose two.)
A. In a Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management network, if the traffic is marked in the ICM, QoS trust needs to be enabled on access-layer routers and switches.
B. 90 percent of the total available bandwidth should be granted to the high-priority queue.
C. 75 percent of the total available bandwidth should be granted to the high-priority queue.
D. Traffic marking in Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management means that configuring dual IP addresses on the Network Interface Controller is no longer necessary because the network is QoS-aware.
E. Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management Release 7.0 and greater provides QoS marking capability of both Layer 3 DSCP and Layer 2 IEEE 802.1p.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
What is the maximum number of agents and interfaces supported on a standalone Media Routing Peripheral Gateway in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 7.1(2) solution?
A. 500 agents / 5 interfaces (PIMs)
B. 1000 agents / 5 interfaces (PIMs)
C. 1500 agents / 10 interfaces (PIMs)
D. 2000 agents / 10 interfaces (PIMs)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which one of the following types of traffic from the PG to the central
controller is considered high priority in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?

A. configuration requests
B. skill group data
C. routing and DMP control traffic
D. Real-Time Monitoring

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which two functions are performed by the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise CTI options for agents? (Choose two.)
A. controls call and agent state
B. places outbound calls for agents in the Outbound Option Progressive mode
C. presents information provided by the caller from the voice response system
D. accepts Instant Messaging requests from third-party chat clients routed to the agent
E. presents caller data to agent in pre-call whisper with the Cisco IP phone
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

The Cisco 642-241 certification can make you a competent person. It may enable a technician to know about the Cisco 642-241 configurations,get information about the Cisco 642-241 data center products and hardware and knowledge about Cisco 642-241 united computing systems.

Cisco 642-165 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

CCNA Composite Exam:Cisco 642-165 CCNAX is the composite exam associated with the Cisco CCNA Routing and Switching certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices: Accelerated (CCNAX) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The topics include all the areas covered under ICND 1 and ICND2 Exams.
QUESTION 4
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group?
A. CRS CTI Route Point
B. CTI Ports
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Where do you enable the CRS engine?
A. Cluster Setup page
B. Server Setup page
C. Publisher Activation page
D. Component Activation page

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
What is the main function of the CRS Editor?
A. remotely manages the LDAP Directory
B. creates CRS Engine reports
C. creates application scripts for call flows
D. manages the CRS Server

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
B. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Administrator
C. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Repair button in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express

5.0 Installation Wizard?
A. repair the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster associated with this Cisco CRS system
B. remove a version of Cisco CRS that the user had attempted but failed to remove previously
C. recover a Cisco CRS system
D. reinstall the same version of Cisco CRS on top of the currently installed version

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is a benefit of using subflows?
A. creates a framework for CRS Server status reporting
B. decreases latency through increased bandwidth on CRS Server
C. collects information about callers to agents
D. decreases the amount of flows
E. provides more efficient management of flows that are called by multiple other flows

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
In the CRS Application Editor, where do you start the debugger?
A. Toolbar
B. Step palette
C. Variable window
D. Design window
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which three feature enhancements are included in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 Supervisor Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. dockable windows
B. graphical reports
C. multi-tab browsers
D. URL push to agents

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What formula do you use to calculate the number of Voice Gateway ports?
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang A
C. Erlang C
D. IVR ports + agent phones

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
What does it mean for a variable in the Application Editor to be defined as a parameter?
A. The variable can be used to pass data to and from VoiceXML applications.
B. The variable can be used in conditional steps.
C. The value for that variable can be supplied via Application Configuration in Application Administration.
D. The variable can be used to pass data to and from subflows.
E. The value for that variable is defined by the calling application.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express v. 5.0?
A. a two-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Communications Manager cluster
B. two Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Communications Manager cluster
C. a one-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Communication Manager clusters D. a one-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Communication Manager Express router

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which step library is included in the license for Cisco Unified CCX Standard?
A. ICM steps
B. e-mail steps
C. database steps
D. media steps

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
An Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 deployment requires support for 20 concurrently logged-in agents. The agents are split across two remote sites, and the high-availability Cisco CRS Engine, Database Server, VoIP Monitoring, and Recording server processes run at a central data center. The agents will be using CAD with Cisco Unified IP Phone 7960G and end-point monitoring. Very little recording and silent monitoring will be performed, and no historical reporting will be done during call center open hours. Assume the minimum number of servers is desired. How many Cisco Unified Contact Center Express hardware servers would be required for this Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3
E. 4

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
A Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment must have the following characteristics: High Availability Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 two remote sites agent pool split evenly between both sites 3 concurrent supervisors 20 concurrent agents agents using Cisco IP Phone Agent and Citrix terminals silent monitoring and recording in use no historical reporting during call center open hours What is the minimum number of servers needed to support this configuration?
A. six servers
B. five servers
C. three servers
D. two servers
E. the answer depends on where the supervisors are located
F. four servers

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which feature is added when upgrading from the Enhanced to Premium Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. keystroke macros
B. sending email
C. a wrap-up timer
D. agent-to-agent text chatting
E. supervisory recording

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which action blocks further inbound and preview outbound calls when an agent is presented with a preview outbound call?
A. Reject-close
B. Cancel Reservation
C. Skip
D. Reject

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which step is designed to prompt a user to press or say a single-digit number to perform a specific function?
A. Get Call Contact Info
B. Menu
C. Extended Get Digit String
D. Get Digit String

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 21
What issues notification messages for CRS engine errors?
A. CDP
B. syslog
C. SNMP Trap
D. Alarm

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
For which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 packages is the preview outbound dialer available?
A. Enhanced and Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Unified Communications Manager Express packages
B. Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express packages
C. Enhanced and Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager packages
D. Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager packages

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
If an existing script is uploaded to the CRS, what does it ask?
A. Do you want to save the application?
B. Do you want to refresh the script?
C. Do you want to debug the script?
D. Do you want to return to Script Management?

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which three are steps in adding a CRS application? (Choose three.)
A. configure default session timeout
B. create a trigger
C. restart the CRS engine
D. upload script to repository
E. create an application
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
What tool is used to estimate the hardware server resources required for an IPCC Express deployment?
A. CRS Applications Administration
B. Configuration and Ordering Tool
C. IPC Resource Calculator
D. CTI Port Calculator

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployment?
A. 10 agents
B. 50 agents
C. 300 agents
D. 100 agents

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
What types of orders are exempt from using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool?
A. orders with less than five seats
B. orders for upgrading from standard
C. orders for adding more seats
D. all orders require using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool
E. orders for coresident deployments

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which criterion can be used to control the actions of supervisor workflows?
A. number of calls abandoned
B. number of agents logged in
C. average talk duration
D. duration of oldest call in queue

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which feature is available on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployments?
A. barge-in on Cisco Supervisor Desktop
B. preview outbound dialer
C. high availability
D. wrap-up data

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
What can help expose problems with script logic or validity by simulating the execution of a script?
A. script refresh
B. script validation
C. debug session
D. Alarm and Trace Configuration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
When a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?
A. Connection Not Available
B. SQL Error
C. Successful
D. Timeout

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Where are users managed and their data stored in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. in Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Communications Manager Express database B. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Communications Manager Express database
C. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
D. in Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which interface is used to configure debug parameters for log files?
A. Control Center
B. Custom File Configuration
C. Datastore Control Center
D. Alarm and Trace Configuration

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
The CRS Installer is used to perform which functions? (Choose three.)
A. back up CRS data
B. activate CRS components
C. repair a CRS installation
D. remove a CRS installation (uninstall)
E. back up CallManager data
F. install CRS software

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
What should you set the Client Configuration to when configuring the ODBC Data Source for the Database Subsystem?
A. Multiprotocol
B. Named Pipes
C. TCP/IP
D. NWLink IPX/SPX

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36
You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with three requirements:
250 configured agents
150 agents maximum logged in at any given time 30 agents able to make outbound calls
How many seats should be purchased?

A. 120 seats with 30 outbound seats
B. 150 seats with 30 outbound seats
C. 180 seats with 30 outbound seats
D. 250 seats with 30 outbound seats

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which two releases require physical media to be ordered and received prior to patching or upgrading Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? (Choose two.)
A. Major Release
B. Minor Release
C. Engineering Special
D. Service Release
E. Maintenance Release

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Where are CTI route points added or configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Media Subsystem
B. Cisco Unified CallManager Device Configuration
C. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Directory Management
D. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
E. Cisco CRS Administration, JTAPI Trigger Creation

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which three components are installed from the Cisco CRS Installer media? (Choose three.)
A. iPlanet Web Server
B. Cisco CRS Engine
C. Cisco Recording
D. Cisco IP Telephony Windows 2000 Server OS
E. Cisco Unified CallManager
F. MS SQL Server

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
By which ways does remote monitoring allow the monitored call to be selected? (Choose two.)
A. CSQ ID
B. Agent Name
C. Agent Extension
D. application ID
E. Media Group ID

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
In addition to writing information to a trace file, the Cisco CRS System sends standard event logging messages to a syslog server through which service?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Win32
C. Alarm
D. CDP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
What formula do you use to calculate the number of agents in a Call Center?
A. Erlang C
B. VG ports + IVR ports
C. AHT * BHCA
D. Erlang B
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
What is the maximum number of CTI ports supported by a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 7.0 Standard deployment?
A. 300
B. varies based on the number of expansion servers
C. varies based on the number of configured applications
D. 150
E. 200

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
How many languages can be installed for the Cisco Agent Desktop (CAD) and the Cisco Supervisor Desktop (CSD)?
A. two languages for the CAD and one language for the CSD
B. two languages for both the CAD and the CSD
C. one language for both the CAD and the CSD
D. one language for the CAD and a different language for the CSD

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?
A. a CTI port to the customer
B. the agent line to the customer
C. the agent’s personal line to the customer
D. a CTI port to the agent, then redirected to the customer

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Where do you enable the CRS engine?
A. Publisher Activation page
B. Component Activation page
C. Cluster Setup page
D. Server Setup page

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
When a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?
A. Timeout
B. SQL Error
C. Successful
D. Connection Not Available

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What three tasks are required to add a CRS application? (Choose three.)
A. create a trigger
B. create an application
C. restart the CRS engine
D. upload script to repository
E. configure default session timeout

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources
B. User Tracking to track IP telephones
C. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity
D. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements
E. Problem alerts for operations personnel

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
When would the Cisco Supervisor Desktop fail to show an agent that is logged in?
A. The agent is not ready.
B. The agent is not on a call.
C. The agent is an IP phone agent.
D. The agent is not in the team currently being viewed by the supervisor.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Where are CTI route points added or configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Cisco Unified CallManager Device Configuration
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Directory Management
C. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
D. Cisco CRS Administration, JTAPI Trigger Creation
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Media Subsystem

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 7
What is a benefit of using subflows?
A. decreases the amount of flows
B. collects information about callers to agents
C. creates a framework for CRS Server status reporting
D. decreases latency through increased bandwidth on CRS Server
E. provides more efficient management of flows that are called by multiple other flows

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
What formula do you use to calculate the number of Voice Gateway ports?
A. Erlang A
B. Erlang B
C. Erlang C
D. IVR ports + agent phones

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which configuration object can have skills assigned to it in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. resources
B. Skill Groups
C. Resource Groups
D. competence levels

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
In a high availability scenario, what is the longest expected downtime for a Cisco Agent Desktop failover?
A. 30 seconds
B. 45 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 60 seconds

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements
B. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity
C. Problem alerts for operations personnel
D. User Tracking to track IP telephones
E. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile.
B. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI ports.
C. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address.
D. No special configuration is needed.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group?
A. CRS CTI Route Point
B. CTI Ports
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
How is the default e-mail address in the E-mail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send E-mail step as a bcc.
B. It is used if no e-mail contact is specified in the Create E-mail step.
C. It becomes the From address in the Send E-Mail step if no address is specified.
D. It automatically receives alarms generated by the Cisco CRS Server.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Where do you enable the CRS engine?
A. Cluster Setup page
B. Server Setup page
C. Publisher Activation page
D. Component Activation page

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting. Then, using a keystroke macro, they want to pop the account number into the account number field in the agent’s CRM desktop application. The keystroke macro will also initiate the CRM desktop application, executing a database lookup from the CRM Database server to retrieve the customer record. Assuming the organization wants the lowest cost solution, what product does this organization need for this capability?
A. IPCC Express Premium
B. IP IVR
C. IPCC Express Standard
D. IPCC Express Enhanced
E. IPCC Enterprise

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
What does CSQ stand for in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Common Service Queue
B. Contact Skill Queue
C. Common Skill Queue
D. Contact Service Queue
E. Competence Skill Queue
F. Competence Service Queue

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What is the main function of the CRS Editor?
A. remotely manages the LDAP Directory
B. creates CRS Engine reports
C. creates application scripts for call flows
D. manages the CRS Server

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
B. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Administrator
C. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Repair button in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
5.0 Installation Wizard?
A. repair the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster associated with this Cisco CRS system
B. remove a version of Cisco CRS that the user had attempted but failed to remove previously
C. recover or restore a Cisco CRS system
D. reinstall the same version of Cisco CRS on top of the currently installed version

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What allows you to monitor the system performance of the Cisco CRS System (CPU, memory, etc.)?
A. Microsoft Windows 2000 Performance Monitoring
B. CRS Application Administration
C. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
D. CRS Application Editor
E. Cisco Desktop Administrator

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment scenario is valid?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.1
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.0
C. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 5.0
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.5 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.3

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
How is product licensing stored and viewed in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0?
A. stored in local files, viewed in Cisco CRS Application Administration
B. stored in LDAP, viewed in Cisco CRS Application Administration
C. stored in local files, viewed in Cisco CRS License Update Utility
D. stored in LDAP, viewed in Cisco CRS License Update Utility

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 18
What is a benefit of using subflows?
A. creates a framework for CRS Server status reporting
B. decreases latency through increased bandwidth on CRS Server
C. collects information about callers to agents
D. decreases the amount of flows
E. provides more efficient management of flows that are called by multiple other flows

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
How can you configure the Prompt step to play different prompts following subsequent timeouts or retries?
A. Configure it as a Random Container Prompt.
B. Configure it as an Escalating Container Prompt.
C. Configure it as a Generated Prompt.
D. Configure it as a Concatenated Container Prompt.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
In the Expression Editor panel of CRS Script Editor, why would you use the Java tab? (Choose three.)
A. to pass variables between two different workflows
B. to get a reference to the Contact and Session states
C. to allow for arguments to be passed to a specified method
D. to reference a variable or invoke a method of a custom Java Object
E. to execute a specified method of a Java class
F. to create an object for the purpose of executing methods on a remote computer

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Description
The Cisco 640-878 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)
Topic 2 – Implement IP addressing and Services(18 Questions) Calculate and apply a VLSM IP addressing design to a network Determine the appropriate classless addressing scheme using VLSM and summarization to satisfy addressing requirements in a LAN/WAN environment Describe the technological requirements for running IPv6 (including: protocols, dual stack, tunneling, etc) Describe IPv6 addresses Identify and correct common problems associated with IP addressing and host configurations
Topic 3 – Configure and troubleshoot basic operation and routing on Cisco devices. (69 Questions) Compare and contrast methods of routing and routing protocols Configure, verify and troubleshoot OSPF Configure, verify and troubleshoot EIGRP Verify configuration and connectivity using ping, traceroute, and telnet or SSH Troubleshoot routing implementation issues Verify router hardware and software operation using SHOW DEBUG commands Implement basic router security
Topic 4 – Implement, verify, and troubleshoot NAT and ACLs in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network. (20 Questions) Describe the purpose and types of access control lists Configure and apply access control lists based on network filtering requirements Configure and apply an access control list to limit telnet and SSH access to the router Verify and monitor ACL’s in a network environment Troubleshoot ACL implementation issues Explain the basic operation of NAT Configure Network Address Translation for given network requirements using CLI Troubleshoot NAT implementation issues
Topic 5 – Implement and verify WAN links. (24 Questions) Configure and verify Frame Relay on Cisco routers Troubleshoot WAN implementation issues Describe VPN technology (including: importance, benefits, role, impact, components) Configure and vary PPP connection between Cisco routers

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which spanning-tree mode can be used to map several VLANs to a single spanning-tree instance?
A. MST
B. PVST+
C. PVRST+
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which spanning-tree mode uses the name command to configure a region name?
A. MST
B. PVST+
C. PVRST+
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which procedure is used as the last resort disaster recovery procedure to completely replace the currently installed IOS XR software on Cisco IOS XR routers?
A. netboot
B. turboboot
C. install recovery
D. install rollback
E. install add and install activate
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which file extension indicates a bootable installation file in Cisco IOS XR software?
A. .bin
B. .tar
C. .smu
D. .pie
E. .vm
F. .mini
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5
When configuring an ACL entry, which network and wildcard mask matches only IP addresses 10.8.144.0 to 10.8.151.255?
A. 10.8.144.0 0.0.3.255
B. 10.8.144.0 0.0.7.255
C. 10.8.144.0 0.0.15.255
D. 10.8.144.0 0.0.252.255
E. 10.8.144.0 0.0.248.255
F. 10.8.144.0 0.0.240.255
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which IP addresses are matched by the permit 192.168.80.64 0.0.0.15 access-list entry?
A. 192.168.80.64 to 192.168.80.255
B. 192.168.80.64 to 192.168.80.96
C. 192.168.80.64 to 192.168.80.95
D. 192.168.80.64 to 192.168.80.80
E. 192.168.80.64 to 192.168.80.79
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7
Which two statements about NAT444 are true? (Choose two.)
A. NAT444 packets are translated three times.
B. NAT packets traverse three IPv4 addressing domains.
C. NAT444 needs to work together with DNS64.
D. There are two types of NAT444 (stateful or stateless).
E. NAT is performed by the CPE and also by the service provider router.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

The access list has been configured on the Gi0/0/0/0 interface in the inbound direction. Which four packets that are sourced from 10.1.1.1 TCP port 1060, if they are routed to the Gi0/0/0/0 interface, will be permitted? (Choose four)
A. destination IP address: 192.168.15.37, destination TCP port: 8080
B. destination IP address: 192.168.15.41, destination TCP port: 8080
C. destination IP address: 192.168.15.49, destination TCP port: 8080
D. destination IP address: 192.168.15.36, destination TCP port: 80
E. destination IP address: 192.168.15.46, destination TCP port: 80
F. destination IP address: 192.168.15.49, destination TCP port: 80

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 9
Which two statements about NAT64 are true? (Choose two.)
A. NAT64 packets traverse two IPv4 addressing domains.
B. NAT64 packets are translated two times.
C. There are two types of NAT64 (stateful or stateless).
D. NAT is performed by the CPE and also by the service provider edge router.
E. The DNS64 server embeds the IPv4 address from the DNS A record with a preconfigured IPv6 translation prefix.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

The access list has been configured on the Gi0/0/0/0 interface in the inbound direction. Which two packets that are sourced from 172.16.1.1 TCP port 1050, if they are routed to the Gi0/0/0/0 interface, will be permitted? (Choose two)
A. destination IP address: 10.10.192.201, destination TCP port: 80
B. destination IP address: 10.10.193.255, destination TCP port: 80
C. destination IP address: 10.10.196.1, destination TCP port: 80
D. destination IP address: 10.10.195.254, destination TCP port: 23
E. destination IP address: 10.10.193.145, destination TCP port: 23
F. destination IP address:10.10.197.32, destination TCP port: 23

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Which first-hop router redundancy protocol uses the active virtual gateway to assign a virtual MAC address to the active virtual forwarders?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. FHRP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which two statements about the BGP weight attribute on Cisco routers are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is a well-known discretionary attribute.
B. It is only locally significant.
C. Routes with higher weight are the preferred routes.
D. It is used to influence the inbound traffic from the upstream AS.
E. It is set to 100 by default.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 13
Which BGP attribute is also used for loop prevention?
A. weight
B. local preference
C. MED
D. AS path
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
The permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255 access-list entry permits exactly which IP address range?
A. 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.47.255
B. 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.48.255
C. 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.62.255
D. 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.63.255
E. 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.64.255
F. 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.255.255
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
On the Cisco ME 3400 switch, spanning tree is enabled by default on which type of switch port?
A. UNI
B. ENI
C. NNI
D. ENI and NNI
E. UNI, ENI, and NNI
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Refer to the two show output examples below. The switch with the e8ba.70b5.7180 MAC address is the root bridge for which VLAN or VLANs?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 8 Cisco 640-878 Exam
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 70
C. VLAN 80
D. VLANs 1, 70, and 80
E. VLANs 1 and 70
F. VLANs 1 and 80
G. VLANs 70 and 80
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Refer to the Cisco IOS XR commands exhibit.

The router administrator is trying to activate a software package on the router but is not able to do so. Which statement about this problem is true?
A. The router needs to be in the global configuration mode.
B. The router needs to be in the admin global configuration mode.
C. The router needs to be in the admin EXEC mode.
D. The install activate command is not the correct command to use.
E. The administrator needs to log in as the “root” user instead of the “admin” user.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
During the BGP route selection process on Cisco routers, which BGP attribute is examined first, to determine the best path to use?
A. AS path
B. MED
C. local preference
D. weight
E. origin
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Which type of service provider is responsible for offering backbone connectivity services to other service providers?
A. CSP
B. TSP
C. NSP
D. ISP
E. ASP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Cisco IP NGN service providers can offer multiple services to their customers by using which type of technology in their core networks?
A. ATM
B. SONET/SDH
C. Frame Relay

D. IP/MPLS
E. PBB
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
ISPs use which protocol to establish peering sessions in an Internet exchange point environment?
A. LDP
B. IS-IS
C. BGP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
You are enabling OSPF on a router and notice that all the Fast Ethernet and the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces have the same OSPF cost of 1. Which single configuration change can you make in router ospf configuration mode so that the Fast Ethernet interfaces have a higher OSPF cost than the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces?
A. Change the OSPF interface cost globally.
B. Change the OSPF default metric.
C. Change the OSPF auto-cost reference bandwidth.
D. Change the OSPF administrative distance.
E. Change the OSPF metric type from E2 to E1.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
On Cisco IOS XR software, which set of commands enables OSPF area 0 on the Gi0/0/0/0 interface that has an IPv4 IP address of 192.168.1.1/24?
A. router ospf 1 network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
B. router ospf 1 network 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255 area 0
C. router ospf 1 area 0 interface gi0/0/0/0
D. router ospfv3 1 network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
E. router ospfv3 1 network 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255 area 0
F. router ospfv3 1 area 0 network 192.168.1.0
G. router ospfv3 1 area 0 interface gi0/0/0/0

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which three statements about OSPFv2 or OSPFv3 authentication are true? (Choose three.)
A. On Cisco IOS XR platforms, OSPFv3 authentication can be configured at the OSPF routing process, area, or interface level.
B. OSPF authentication on Cisco IOS and IOS XE platforms can be configured per area or per interface.
C. On Cisco IOS and IOS XE and IOS XR platforms, the authentication key can only be configured per interface.
D. OSPFv3 uses IPsec for authentication and encryption.
E. On Cisco IOS XR platforms, the OSPF authentication that is configured for the area overrides the authentication that is configured for the interface.
F. On Cisco IOS and IOS XE platforms, the two OSPFv2 authentication methods that are supported are MD5 and SHA1.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 25
Which statement is true about enabling IS-IS routing and using the net command to configure the NSAP address?
A. NSAP addresses have a fixed size of 20 bytes.
B. The NSEL must always be 00 to identify the router.
C. The area address follows the system ID field before the NSEL field.
D. An AFI of 39 indicates that the AFI is a locally administered private address.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
You have just enabled IS-IS on the lab testing network. You notice that IS-IS is not using the optimal path selection based on the interface bandwidth. Currently, the IS-IS routing process seems to be selecting the best path based on the hop count.
What configuration change can you make to cause IS-IS to select the optimal path based on the interface bandwidth?
A. Enable a wide-style IS-IS metric.
B. Enable a narrow-style IS-IS metric.
C. Change the default auto-cost reference bandwidth to a higher value.
D. Change the default IS-IS metric on each of the router interfaces to better correspond to the interface bandwidth.
E. Change the interface bandwidth by using the bandwidth interface configuration mode command.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
You have installed a new router and configured OSPF on it. However, this new router is not able to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with the neighbor OSPF router. Which four conditions could cause this problem? (Choose four.)
A. mismatched OSPF hello/dead interval between the new router and the neighbor router
B. mismatched OSPF area ID between the new router and the neighbor router
C. mismatched OSPF authentication data between the new router and the neighbor router
D. mismatched OSPF router ID between the new router and the neighbor router
E. mismatched interface MTU between the new router and the neighbor router
F. mismatched interface bandwidth between the new router and the neighbor router

Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 28
Refer to the Cisco IOS XR configuration exhibit.

Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. This is a Level-2-only router.
B. This is a Level-1-only router.
C. The maximum IS-IS path metric is 63.
D. This router belongs to area ID 0001.
E. This configuration is missing the net configuration for the IPv6 unicast address family.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Which statement about the benefits of MPLS PHP is true?
A. PHP is implemented to increase the performance on the egress edge LSR. PHP allows the egress edge LSR to perform only one lookup to route the IP packet based on destination IP address and routing table.
B. PHP is implemented to increase the performance on the egress edge LSR. PHP enables the egress edge LSR to perform only one lookup based on the ingress label.
C. PHP is implemented to increase the performance on the egress edge LSR. PHP enables the egress edge LSR to perform two lookups, first lookup based on the ingress label and a second route lookup
based on the destination IP address.
D. PHP is implemented to increase the performance on the LSR (P routers). PHP enables the LSR (P routers) to perform only one lookup based on the ingress label.
E. PHP is implemented to increase the performance on the LSR (P routers). PHP enables the LSR (P routers) to perform only one route lookup based on the destination IP address.
F. PHP is implemented to increase the performance on the LSR (P routers). PHP enables the LSR (P routers) to perform two lookups, first lookup based on the ingress label and a second route lookup based on the destination IP address.
G. PHP is implemented to increase the performance on the ingress edge LSR. PHP enables the ingress edge LSR to perform only one lookup based on the ingress label.
H. PHP is implemented to increase the performance on the ingress edge LSR. PHP enables the ingress edge LSR to perform two lookups, first lookup based on the ingress label and a second route lookup based on the destination IP address.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements about MPLS LDP operations are true?
A. The incoming label for 10.2.10.1/32 is 16010 (which is allocated by the local router), and the outgoing label is 22 (as advertised by the next-hop router).
B. The 16003 and 16010 labels are learned from the 192.168.112.40 LDP neighbor.
C. The ImpNull outgoing label for the 192.168.102.0/24 network means that the outgoing label should be removed when sending packets to the 192.168.112.40 next-hop router, when the incoming label is 16003.
D. The ImpNull outgoing label for the 192.168.102.0/24 network means that the local router has not received a label for that network from its neighbor.
E. The Unlabeled outgoing label for 10.10.10.100/32 indicates that a label pop is required when sending packets to the 10.10.10.1 next-hop router.
F. The outgoing label of 22 for 10.2.10.1/32 is learned from the 192.168.112.40 LDP neighbor.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 31
On Cisco IOS XR software, how is LDP enabled on an interface?
A. LDP is automatically enabled globally on all interfaces, when ip cef is enabled globally.
B. LDP is enabled on each interface, using the mpls ip interface configuration command.
C. LDP is enabled on each interface, using the interface command under mpls ldp (MPLS LDP configuration mode).
D. LDP is enabled globally on all interfaces, using the mpls ldp global configuration command.
E. LDP is enabled globally on all interfaces, using the mpls ip global configuration command.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Which four statements about REP configurations on a Cisco ME 3400 switch port are true? (Choose four.)
A. The port must be an NNI type and must be in trunk mode.
B. Use the rep segment number command to enable REP on the switch port.
C. A REP segment cannot be wrapped into a ring topology. REP supports only a topology where each REP segment has two exit points via two edge switches.
D. The port where the segment terminates is called the edge port.
E. With REP, at least one port is always blocked in any given segment-that is, the alternate port.
F. If a failure occurs within the segment, the blocked port goes to the forwarding state after it goes through the listening state and the learning state.

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 33
A VLAN is a logical grouping of switch ports that belong to which two of these? (Choose two.)
A. the same virtual switch cluster
B. the same IP subnet
C. the same collision domain
D. the same broadcast domain
E. the same virtual routing and forwarding instance
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. VLAN 1 traffic is sent untagged on the fa0/11 trunk port.
B. All VLANs traffic, including the native VLAN traffic, is tagged with a VLAN ID when it is sent over the fa0/11 trunk port.
C. The switchport trunk allowed vlan command is not configured; therefore, no VLANs are allowed on the trunk.
D. The encapsulation type that is used is 802.1ad.
E. The switchport trunk native vlan command is not configured; therefore, the trunk is not operational.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Refer to the partial configurations exhibit.

What additional configurations are required to enable inter-VLAN routing for VLANs 10 and 20 on the Cisco ME 3400 switch using the metro IP access image?
A. interface Fa0/1 ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface Fa0/2 ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 !
B. interface Fa0/1 ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface Fa0/2 ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 ! router eigrp 1 network 192.168.10.0 network 192.168.20.0 !
C. interface vlan 10 ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface vlan 20 ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 !
D. interface Fa0/1 encapsulation dot1q 10 ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface Fa0/2 encapsulation dot1q 20 ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 19 Cisco 640-878 Exam !
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Refer to the topology diagram in the exhibit.

Which two interface configuration commands on the Cisco ME 3400-1 switch Fa 0/1 interface are required to support the VLANs for Customer A to be trunked across the service provider network? (Choose two.)
A. switchport access vlan 30
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport mode dot1q-tunnel
D. switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-100

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 37
Which IPv6 address block is reserved for 6to4 tunneling?
A. 2000::/16
B. 2001::/16
C. 2002::/16
D. 3ffe::/16
E. fe80::/16
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
When upgrading a Cisco ASR 1001 Router, when is the request platform software package expand file bootflash:image-name command required?
A. to copy the consolidated Cisco IOS XE image to the bootflash:
B. to perform Cisco IOS ISSU on the standby route processor
C. to run the router using a consolidated package
D. to run the router using individual subpackages
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
Which Cisco router platform supports running either the Cisco IOS or IOS XR operating system?
A. Cisco CRS
B. Cisco ASR9k
C. Cisco ASR1K
D. Cisco ISR-G2
E. Cisco 12000 GSR

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 40
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 21 Cisco 640-878 Exam You want to configure HSRP between a Cisco IOS and a Cisco IOS XR router for the 192.0.2.0/24 subnet. Half of the PCs on the 192.0.2.0/24 subnet are configured to use 192.0.2.1 as the default gateway, and the other half of the PCs are configured to use 192.0.2.254 as the default gateway. The intent is to load balance the traffic across both routers.
Which two IOS and IOS XR configurations are needed? (Choose two.)
A. ! IOS-XR interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0/0 ip address 192.0.2.3 255.255.255.0 router hsrp interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0/0 hsrp 1 ipv4 192.0.2.1 hsrp 1 priority 95 hsrp 1 preempt hsrp 2 ipv4 192.0.2.254 hsrp 2 priority 105 hsrp 2 preempt
B. ! IOS-XR interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0/0 ip address 192.0.2.1 255.255.255.0 router hsrp interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0/0 hsrp 1 ipv4 192.0.2.1 hsrp 1 priority 99 hsrp 1 preempt hsrp 2 ipv4 192.0.2.254 hsrp 2 priority 101 hsrp 2 preempt
C. ! IOS-XR interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0/0 ip address 192.0.2.3 255.255.255.0 router hsrp interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0/0 hsrp 1 ipv4 192.0.2.1 hsrp 1 priority 1 hsrp 1 preempt hsrp 2 ipv4 192.0.2.254 hsrp 2 priority 1 hsrp 2 preempt
D. ! IOS interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 ip address 192.0.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 1 ip 192.0.2.1 standby 1 priority 105 standby 1 preempt standby 2 ip 192.0.2.254
standby 2 priority 95
standby 2 preempt
E. ! IOS interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 ip address 192.0.2.254 255.255.255.0 standby 1 ip 192.0.2.1 standby 1 preempt standby 2 ip 192.0.2.254 standby 2 preempt
F. ! IOS interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 ip address 192.0.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 1 ip 192.0.2.1 standby 1 preempt standby 1 priority 2 standby 2 ip 192.0.2.254 standby 2 preempt standby 2 priority 2

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 41
On Cisco IOS XR software, which two of the address-family command options in IS-IS configuration mode are valid? (Choose two)
A. address-family clns
B. address-family ipv4 unicast
C. address-family ipv6 unicast
D. address-family vpnv4
E. address-family vpnv6

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 42
On Cisco routers, the address-family configuration command in BGP configuration mode is used to enable which BGP feature?
A. BGP route policy
B. multiprotocol BGP
C. BGP policy accounting
D. BGP communities

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Your switch network has been configured to support multiple VLANs. In order for the users on one VLAN to communicate with users on another VLAN, which additional configuration is required?
A. Enable a routing protocol like EIGRP on a routeror on a Layer 3 capable switch
B. Enable inter-VLAN routing on a routeror on a Layer 3 capable switch
C. Enable a switch virtual interface on the router, using the interface vlan global configuration command
D. Enable a switch virtual interface on the switch, using the encapsulation dot1q
E. subinterface configuration command
F. EnableIP routing on a Layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Within an MPLS domain, which table is used by the label switch routers to make forwarding decisions when a labeled packet is received?
A. FIB
B. RIB
C. LFIB
D. LIB
E. CEF
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
On Cisco IOS XR software, what is the default commit option?
A. best-effort
B. psuedo-atomic
C. replace
D. force
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Refer to the show command exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. It shows the result of the target configuration merged with the running configuration.
B. It shows the contents of the uncommitted configuration.
C. It shows the contents of the failed configuration.
D. It shows the contents of the running configuration.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
When configuring a new VLAN on Cisco IOS switches, which configuration parameter is required?
A. VLAN name
B. native VLAN ID
C. VLAN ID
D. VLAN map

E. VLAN MTU
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
What is a requirement for performing Cisco IOS ISSU on the Cisco IOS XE-based ASR 1006 and ASR 1013 routers?
A. must use consolidated package mode
B. must use subpackage mode
C. must have redundant RPs
D. must have owner and nonowner SDRs

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
Refer to the partial Cisco IOS router configuration exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. To support the subinterface configuration, the Fa0/0 main interface configuration is missing the encapsulation dot1Q command.
B. The Fa0/0 interface/subinterfaces are configured correctly to operate as a trunk port to provide inter-VLAN routing for three VLANs (VLANs 1, 2, and 3).
C. To provide inter-VLAN routing, the Fa0/0.1, Fa0/0.2 and Fa0/0.3 subinterface configuration is missing the encapsulation dot1Q vlan-id subinterface configuration command.
D. To provide inter-VLAN routing, the router is missing the vlan 1, vlan 2, and vlan 3 global configuration commands.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Refer to the partial Cisco IOS XR BGP configuration exhibit.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. This router uses its Loopback 0 interface IP address when establishing BGP peering with the 10.2.1.1 router.
B. This router uses its Loopback 0 interface IP address when establishing BGP peering with the
192.168.101.11 router.
C. Test1 refers to a route policy that is defined using the RPL.
D. Both the IBGP and EBGP sessions will be authenticated.
E. The IBGP session is missing the mandatory route-policy configuration.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 51
When is a route-policy configuration needed on a Cisco IOS XR router using RPL?
A. when enabling an IGP routing protocol configuration
B. when enabling an EBGP peering configuration
C. when enabling an IBGP peering configuration
D. when enabling route redistribution
E. when enabling an LDP peering configuration

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
Refer to the partial Cisco IOS router configuration exhibit.

Which type of tunnel configuration is shown?
A. GRE tunnel
B. manual 6in4 tunnel
C. 6to4 automatic tunnel
D. 6RD
E. IPv4-in-IPv6 tunnel
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
Which two protocols are most often deployed in Cisco IP NGN multiservices core networks to support services like VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. MPLS
B. GRE
C. mGRE

D. SSL
E. VTI
F. multiprotocol BGP
Correct Answer: AF

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Given the IP address 172.16.170.15 255.255.224.0, which three options are the subnet that this IP address belongs to, the host IP address range on this subnet, and the subnet broadcast IP address? (Choose three.)
A. subnet = 172.16.160.0/19
B. subnet = 172.16.170.0/19
C. subnet = 172.16.192.0/19
D. host IP address range = 172.16.160.1 to 172.16.191.254
E. host IP address range = 172.16.170.1 to 172.16.170.254
F. host IP address range = 172.16.160.1 to 172.16.223.254
G. subnet broadcast IP address = 172.16.170.255
H. subnet broadcast IP address = 172.16.191.255
I. subnet broadcast IP address = 172.16.223.255
Correct Answer: ADH
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two options are the number of broadcast domains and collision domains shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. 1 collision domain
B. 2 collision domains
C. 4 collision domains
D. 7 collision domains
E. 1 broadcast domain
F. 2 broadcast domains
G. 4 broadcast domains
H. 7 broadcast domains
Correct Answer: DF QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two options are the number of broadcast domains and collision domains shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. 2 collision domains
B. 4 collision domains
C. 5 collision domains
D. 8 collision domains
E. 2 broadcast domains
F. 4 broadcast domains
G. 5 broadcast domains
H. 8 broadcast domains

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
Which three IP addresses are valid for hosts that belong to the 10.152.0.0/13 subnet?
(Choose three.)
A. 10.152.0.0/13
B. 10.153.0.1/13
C. 10.158.255.255/13
D. 10.159.255.254/13
E. 10.160.0.1/13
F. 10.161.0.1/13
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 5
Which type of IPv6 address does the ff00::/8 prefix denote?
A. local loopback
B. global unicast
C. unique link local
D. link local unicast
E. multicast
F. anycast
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
With IPv6, for which purpose are router solicitation and router advertisement used?
A. routing protocol updates
B. routing protocol neighbor peerings
C. router and prefix discovery
D. Layer 3 to Layer 2 address resolution (similar to IPv4 ARP)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which statement about IPv6 global unicast addresses is true?
A. The first 3 bits is 001.
B. The first 4 bits is 0011.
C. The first 4 bits is 1111.
D. The first 16 bits is FE80 in hex.
E. The first 16 bits is FF00 in hex.
F. The first 16 bits is 2002 in hex.
G. The first 16 bits is 3FFE in hex.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Given the IP address 10.106.170.145 255.248.0.0, which three options are the subnet that this IP address belongs to, the host IP address range on this subnet, and the subnet broadcast IP address?
A. subnet = 10.104.0.0/13
B. subnet = 10.106.0.0/13
C. subnet = 10.112.0.0/13
D. host IP address range = 10.104.0.1 to 10.111.255.254
E. host IP address range = 10.106.0.1 to 10.106.255.254
F. host IP address range = 10.106.0.1 to 10.119.255.254
G. subnet broadcast IP address = 10.106.255.255
H. subnet broadcast IP address = 10.111.255.255
I. subnet broadcast IP address = 10.119.255.255
Correct Answer: ADH
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Robert is sending an instant message to Mary. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. Which four options are the MAC and IP source and destination addresses that will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router2 to Router1? (Choose four.)
A. source MAC = 0000.00a1.2222
B. source MAC = 0000.000c.0123
C. destination MAC = 0000.00a1.3333
D. destination MAC = 0000.000c.0124
E. source IP 10.1.2.2
F. source IP 10.1.1.253
G. destination IP = 10.1.3.3
H. destination IP = 10.1.1.254

Correct Answer: BDEG
QUESTION 10
Which Layer 2 WAN protocol uses DLCI as the virtual circuit identifier?
A. ATM
B. PPP
C. Frame Relay
D. Packet over SONET
E. Metro Ethernet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two statements about Packet over SONET are true? (Choose two.)
A. POS is a Layer 2 technology that uses PPP in ATM encapsulation and SONET framing.
B. The Layer 2 frame is encapsulated into a generic HDLC header (not Cisco proprietary HDLC) and placed into the appropriate SONET Payload Envelope.
C. The FCS field can be set to 16 bits on one end and 32 bits on the other end of a POS connection without causing any connectivity issues.
D. The Cisco POS interface supports Cisco HDLC and PPP encapsulation.
E. POS can be used in a point-to-point or point-to-multipoint environment.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12
Which pair of mechanisms are often used together to allow dynamic routing over a secured site-to- site VPN tunnel?
A. GRE + SSL
B. VTI + SSL
C. VRF + SSL
D. GRE + IPsec
E. L2TP + IPsec
F. VRF + IPsec
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which two statements about IPv4 DHCP operations are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the DHCP clients and servers are on the same subnet, DHCP uses UDP broadcasts to communicate between the clients and servers.
B. The DHCP server that receives a DHCPDISCOVER message may respond with a DHCPOFFER message on UDP port 67.
C. A client can receive DHCPOFFER from multiple servers and it can accept all the offers by broadcasting the DHCPREQUEST message to all the servers.
D. A DHCP relay is required if the DHCP clients and the servers are on the same subnet.
E. If the client and server are on different subnets, DHCPDISCOVER and DHCPREQUEST messages are sent via UDP broadcasts, but DHCPOFFER and DHCPACK messages are unicast.
F. The client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message on UDP port 68 with its own MAC address to discover available DHCP servers.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 14
Which Cisco router feature allows multiple independent routing table instances to co-exist within the same router at the same time?
A. Virtual Contexts
B. Virtual Machines
C. VTI
D. VRF
E. VPLS
F. GRE
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. Company 1 has merged with Company 2. Company 1 is using RIPv2 as its IGP and Company 2 is using EIGRP as its IGP. EIGRP also is running between R1 and R2 over the WAN link.

Which action must be taken to allow these two configurations?
?The Company 1 RIP routes appear as external EIGRP routes within Company 2.

?The Company 2 EIGRP routes appear as RIPv2 routes within Company 1.
A. Enable RIPv2 on the R2 router.
B. Enable RIPv2 on the R2 router and on all internal routers of Company 2. Enable EIGRP on all internal routers of Company 1.
C. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R1 and R2 routers.
D. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R1 router.
E. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R2 router.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about these partial Cisco IOS/IOS-XE configurations are true? (Choose two.)
A. 10.1.1.2 is the inside local address.
B. 192.168.1.2 is the outside local address.
C. 192.168.1.2 is the outside global address.
D. This is an example of static one-to-one Network Address Translation.
E. This is an example of static Port Address Translation.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration is necessary to support this output?
A. interface Ethernet0
B. ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat outside ! interface Ethernet1 ip address 192.168.4.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat outside ! interface Serial0 ip address 172.17.38.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat inside !
ip nat inside source list 1 interface Serial0 overload !
access-list 1 permit 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 1 permit 192.168.4.0 0.0.0.255
interface Ethernet0

C. ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat inside ! interface Ethernet1 ip address 192.168.4.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat inside ! interface Serial0 ip address 172.17.38.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat outside ! ip nat inside source list 1 interface Serial0 overload ! access-list 1 permit 172.17.38.0 0.0.0.255 interface Ethernet0
D. ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat inside ! interface Ethernet1 ip address 192.168.4.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat inside ! interface Serial0 ip address 172.17.38.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat outside ! ip nat inside source list 1 static 172.17.38.1 ! access-list 1 permit 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 1 permit 192.168.4.0 0.0.0.255 interface Ethernet0
E. ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat inside ! interface Ethernet1 ip address 192.168.4.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat inside ! interface Serial0 ip address 172.17.38.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat outside ! ip nat inside source list 1 interface Serial0 overload ! access-list 1 permit 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 1 permit 192.168.4.0 0.0.0.255
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Which IPv6 feature replaced and enhanced the IPv4 ARP functions?
A. ARPv6
B. DHCPv6
C. neighbor discovery protocol in ICMPv6
D. router solicitation and router advertisement
E. autoconfiguration
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
Which three statements correctly describe DSL-based Internet services for residential users? (Choose three.)
A. Most residential deployments use PPPoE encapsulation where the end user PC or the DSL CPE will require a PPP username and password configuration.
B. Most residential deployments use PPPoA encapsulation where the DSL CPE device needs to provide Layer 3 routing functions.
C. The most commonly installed DSL variant for residential deployments is ADSL.
D. The most commonly installed DSL variant for residential deployments is SDSL.
E. The most commonly installed DSL variant for residential deployments is HDSL.
F. At the DSL service provider location, a DSLAM typically is used to terminate all the PPP connections of the DSL subscribers.
G. At the DSL service provider location, a DSLAM is used to terminate and then aggregate the DSL connections over an ATM network.

Correct Answer: ACG
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.

Given the Class C IP network of 192.168.1.0, using VLSM, which five subnets meet the requirements in the exhibit? (Choose five.)
A. 192.168.1.0/27
B. 192.168.1.32/27
C. 192.168.1.48/27
D. 192.168.1.48/28
E. 192.168.1.64/28
F. 192.168.1.80/28
G. 192.168.1.80/29
H. 192.168.1.88/30
I. 192.168.1.96/30
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.

Which layer(s) of the TCP/IP model operates end-to-end (Host A to Host B)?
A. physical layer B. link layer
C. transport and application layers
D. link and internet (network) layers
E. physical and link layers

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which two applications require the network to have the least amount of jitter, delay, and packet loss? (Choose two.)
A. FTP
B. SSH
C. VoIP
D. email
E. Cisco TelePresence
F. web browsing
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 23
What is the default spanning-tree mode of an NNI port on a Cisco ME3400 switch?
A. multiple spanning tree (mst)
B. per-vlan rapid spanning tree (rapid-pvst)
C. per-vlan spanning tree (pvst)
D. IEEE 802.1D (stp)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which two statements about transparent bridging operations are true? (Choose two.)
A. A bridge builds its MAC address table dynamically using the spanning-tree protocol.
B. A bridge operates at the data link layer.
C. A bridge sends unknown unicast frames out on all ports except the incoming port.
D. A bridge forwards traffic based on the destination IP address.
E. All the ports on the bridge belong to the same collision domain.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

According to this show output, what are sticky MAC addresses?
A. dynamically learned MAC addresses on the port that are stored in the MAC address table and also in the start-up configuration
B. statically configured MAC addresses on the port that are stored in the MAC address table
C. statically configured MAC addresses on the port that are stored in the start-up configuration
D. dynamically learned MAC addresses on the port that are stored in the running configuration

Correct Answer: D

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Exam A
QUESTION 1 Spanning Layer 2 across geographically separate data centers is a key consideration for current data center designs. Which is the name of the NX-OS technology that facilitates MAC in IP transport for Layer 2 VLANs across any IP network?
A. Overlay Transport Virtualization
B. Virtual Private LAN Services
C. Generic Routing Encapsulation
D. QinQ tunneling

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which three technologies are recommended to be used for WAN connectivity in today’s Enterprise Edge designs? (Choose three.)
A. DWDM
B. Metro Ethernet
C. Frame Relay
D. MPLS VPN
E. ISDN
F. DSL
G. Wireless

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 3
Which is usually used to connect to an upstream ISP?

A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. IS-IS
D. RIPv2
E. EIGRP

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module?
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center
E. MAN
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 5
At which layer of the network is route summarization recommended?

A. data link layer
B. core layer
C. distribution layer
D. access layer

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Which Cisco device has the sole function at looking at threat detection and mitigation at the Enterprise edge?
A. Cisco IOS router
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Catalyst FWSM
D. Cisco IPS

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 If a teleworker is required to access the branch office via a secure IPSEC VPN connection, which technology is recommended to provide the underlying transport?
A. ISDN
B. Metro Ethernet
C. Frame Relay
D. ADSL
E. ATM

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 You are asked to design a new branch office that will need to support 25 users. These users will be using an ISP connection and will need to connect to the main office for network services.
Which two Cisco devices are the most appropriate to fulfill all these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IPS
B. Cisco ISR G2
C. Cisco ASA
D. Cisco 2960
E. Cisco CRS-1
F. Cisco ACS

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9 WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy. Which is the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?
A. security
B. static versus dynamic routing
C. bandwidth
D. QoS
E. latency

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 To provide Layer 2 connectivity between the primary and remote data centers, given that the two data centers are using Layer 3 routed DCIs, which NX-OS technology can be used to facilitate this requirement?
A. VRF
B. OTV
C. MPLS
D. SPT
E. vPC

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which subnet address and mask would you use for all Class D multicast addresses to be matched within an access list?
A. 224.0.0.0/20
B. 224.0.0.0/4
C. 239.0.0.0/24
D. 239.0.0.0/8
E. 225.0.0.0/8

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which three are features of LWAPP? (Choose three.)

A. firmware synchronization
B. local management of APs
C. configuration changes manually synced
D. encryption of control channel
E. configuration data only on the WLC
F. wireless control free operation
G. replaces 802.1x for authentication in wireless connections

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 13
Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points?

A. monitor mode
B. sniffer mode
C. rogue detector mode
D. local mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 Cisco Identity-Based Networking Services relies heavily on the 802.1X protocol. Which other authentication solution is used hand-in-hand with 802.1X to authenticate users for network access?
A. RADIUS
B. LEAP
C. IPsec
D. TACACS
E. ISAKMP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15 Which two devices would you place in your DMZ to ensure enterprise edge security? (Choose two.)
A. IPS
B. NAC
C. ASA
D. ACS
E. WCS

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 16
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?

A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. CDP
E. ICMP

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Your supervisor wants you to recommend a management protocol that will allow you to track overall bandwidth utilization, utilization by traffic type, and utilization by source and destination. Which is ideally suited for this function?
A. MRTG B. Netflow
C. RRD
D. SNMP

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which WLC interface is dedicated for WLAN client data?

A. virtual interface
B. dynamic interface
C. management interface
D. AP manager interface
E. service port interface

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
A hierarchical design of the EIGRP domain facilitates which two of the following?
(Choose two.)

A. route summarization
B. faster convergence
C. unequal cost load balancing
D. redistribution
E. virtual links

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design?
(Choose three.)

A. access layer aggregation
B. route summarization
C. network trust boundary
D. next-hop redundancy
E. layer 2 switching
F. port security
G. broadcast suppression

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 21 Which two methods are used to reduce the mesh links required between iBGP peers in the same AS? (Choose two.)
A. community
B. router reflectors
C. local preference
D. confederations
E. atomic aggregate
F. MED

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 22 Which network virtualization technology involves creating virtual routers with its own individual routing tables on a physical router?
A. VSS
B. vPC
C. VRF
D. VLAN

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Which of the following three options represents the components of the Teleworker
Solution?
(Choose three.)

A. Cisco Unified IP Phone
B. Cisco 880 Series Router
C. Aironet Office Extend Access Point
D. Catalyst 3560 Series Switch
E. Cisco 2900 Series Router
F. MPLS Layer 3 VPN
G. Leased lines

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 24
Which two features are supported by single wireless controller deployments?
(Choose two.)

A. automatic detection and configuration of LWAPPs
B. LWAPP support across multiple floors and buildings
C. automatic detection and configuration of RF parameters
D. Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming
E. controller redundancy
F. mobility groups

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
Which three describe challenges that are faced when deploying an environment
for teleworkers?
(Choose three.)

A. supporting a mix of technically knowledgeable and nontechnical users
B. simplifying router installation and configuration
C. verifying available power at employee’s house for necessary equipment
D. avoiding situations where employees might use nonstandard hardware or configurations
E. reducing daily commuting time to main office location
F. providing access to FTP servers located in main office location
G. implementing leased line connectivity between main office and employee’s home location
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 26 Which consideration is the most important for the network designer when considering IP routing?
A. convergence
B. scalability
C. on-demand routing
D. redistribution

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMFV3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28 Which two of these practices are considered to be best practices when designing the access layer for the enterprise campus? (Choose two)
A. Implement all of the services (QoS, security, STP, and so on) in the access layer, offloading the work from the distribution and core layers.
B. Always use a Spanning Tree Protocol; preferred is Rapid PVST+.
C. Use automatic VLAN pruning to prune unused VLANs from trunked interface to avoid broadcast propagation.
D. Avoid wasted processing by disabling STP where loops are not possible.
E. Use VTP transparent mode to decrease the potential for operational error

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 29
Which of these statements is true concerning the data center access layer design?

A. one-way router redistribution avoids the requirement for state or default routes.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP address on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30 Which one of these statements should the designer keep in mind when considering the advanced routing features?
A. one-way router redistribution avoids the requirement for state or default routes.
B. Redistribution, summarization, and filtering are most often applied between the campus core and enterprise edge.
C. Filtering only occurs on the routing domain boundary using redistribution
D. Summarize routes at the core toward the distribution layer.
E. The hierarchical flexibility of IPv6 addressing avoids the requirement for routing traffic reduction using aggregation.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31 Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content server?
A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
E. Global aggregatable

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32 Which one of these statements is true about addressing redundancy within the WAN environment?
A. The reliability and speed of DSL allow for cost savings by not including redundant links.
B. CAMDM and dark fiber offer advanced redundancy features such as automatic backup and repair mechanism to cope system faults
C. An SLA is one way to eliminate the need for redundancy.
D. The failure of a single SONET/SDH link or network element does not lead to failure of the entire network.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which one of these statements is true concerning the enterprise data center?

A. It can be located either at the enterprise campus or at a remote branch.
B. Remote data center connectivity requirements align with the small office design.
C. The data center designs will differ substantially depending on whether the location is on campus or remote.
D. A remote branch with a data center becomes the enterprise campus.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
A global corporation has an internal network with the following characteristics:

-2,000,000+ hosts
-10,000 + routers
-Internal connectivity
-high traffic volumes with business partners and customers
Which statement best describes what a flexible IPv6 strategy would look like for this corporation?
A. Both hosts and routers would run dual stack
B. Hosts would run IPv4 and routers would run native IPv6
C. Hosts would run dual stack and routers would run IPv4 only
D. Hosts would run IPv6 and routers would run native IPv6
Correct Answer: A Exam B

QUESTION 1 In terms of remote office design, which one of these statements is a characteristics only of a small remote office (up to 50 user), and not of medium or remote offices?
A. Link redundancy to access layer switches is not possible with an integrated design.
B. A collapsed access and distribution layer is required.
C. There are no loops in the network design.
D. Layer 3 services such as DHCP, firewall, and NAT are provided by enterprise campus.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which two statements about the data Center Aggregation layer are correct?
(Choose two)

A. Layer 4 through layer 7 services are provided in that layer
B. STP should never be supported in that layer
C. That layer is the critical point for control and application services
D. Layer 2 connectivity is provided in that layer from the data center to the core

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3 With respect to IPv6 addressing, from a design perspective, which of these statements is it important to keep in mind?
A. IPv6 addressing provides convenience of anycast addressing without any configuration requirements.
B. IPv6 does not use multicast addressing.
C. An IPv6 router will not forward packets from one link to other links if the packet has either a link- local source or a link-local destination address.
D. Dynamic address assignment requires DHCPv6.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
When designing the infrastructure protection portion for the enterprise edge,
which of these solutions would be the most appropriate solution to consider?

A. 802. IX
B. ACLs in the core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. AAA

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 What is primary consideration when choosing a routed network design over a traditional campus network design?
A. Layer 3 service support at the network edge
B. the routing protocol choice: open (OSPF) or proprietary (EIGRP)
C. the routing abilities of the host devices
D. the need to control the broadcast domains within the campus core

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A large enterprise requires sensitive information be transmitted over a public infrastructure. It requires confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity. Which security solution best meets these requirements?
A. Cisco IOS Firewall
B. Intrusion Prevention
C. IPSEC
D. AAA
E. Traffic Guard Protector
F. SECURE CONECTIVITY

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 When selecting which hardware switches to use throughout an enterprise campus switched network, which consideration is not relevant?
A. whether data link layer switching based the MAC address is required
B. the number of shared media segments
C. which infrastructure service capabilities are required
D. whether to support Layer 3 services at the network edge.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Layer 2 switching is exclusively used in which Enterprise Campus Module layer?

A. Server Farm
B. Campus Core
C. Building Access
D. Building Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which one of these statements describes why, from a design perspective, a managed VPN approach for enterprise teleworkers is a most effective?
A. A managed VPN solution uses a cost effective, on-demand VPN tunnel back to the enterprise
B. This solution supports all teleworkers who do not require voce or video
C. This architecture provides centralized management where the enterprise can apply security policies and push configurations.
D. It provides complete flexibility for remote access through a wireless hotspot or a guest network at a host, in addition to a home office.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
For which network scenario is static routing most appropriate?

A. parallel WAN links
B. IPSec VPN
C. expanding networks
D. hierarchical routing

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which aspect would most likely be found in the draft design document?

A. a list of QoS requirements
B. a note that there are no segments with more than 70 percent broadcast or multicast traffic
C. the level of redundancy or high availability that currently exists or is required in the network
D. the list of network infrastructure services which are in use, such as voice and video

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Your company’s Cisco routers are operating with EIGRP. You need to join networks with an acquisition’s heterogeneous routers at 3 sites, operating with EIGRP and OSPF. Which describes the best practice for routing protocol deployment?
A. apply OSPF throughout both networks
B. apply one-way redistribution exclusively at each location
C. apply two way redistribution exclusively at each location
D. apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route filter at only one location
E. apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route filter at each location
F. apply EIGRP with the same autonomous system throughout both networks

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13 When considering the enterprise campus design, which network application category most influences the network design?
A. peer-to-peer
B. client-local server
C. client-enterprise edge server
D. client-server farm

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14 When designing the wireless portion of an enterprise campus network, which one of these statements should serve as a strict guideline?
A. Wireless controllers should be distributed throughout the building distribution layers
B. Dynamic controller redundancy, where the access points attempt to join the least loaded controller, is a best-practice approach.
C. Wireless controllers should be centralized in the core layer
D. To improve the RF coverage, the controllers of any building should be put in the same mobility group.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in which Enterprise Campus layer does the remote Access and VPN module establish its connection?
A. Building Access
B. Campus Core
C. Enterprise Branch
D. Enterprise Data Center

Correct Answer: B

CCNA Composite Exam: Cisco 640-864 CCNAX is the composite exam associated with the Cisco CCNA Routing and Switching certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices: Accelerated (CCNAX) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The topics include all the areas covered under ICND 1 and ICND2 Exams.
QUESTION 16
Which of these is the equation used to derive a 64 Kbps bit rate?

A. 2 x 8 kHz x 4-bit code words
B. 8 kHz x 8-bit code words
C. 2 x 4-bit code words x 8 kHz
D. 2 x 4 kHz x 8-bit code words

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17 Which one of these statements best describes the challenge of the designer when dealing with IP routing?
A. OSPF supports fast convergence does not require periodic routing table updates, so the optional network design is best simplified with the network as a single backbone area.
B. Manual summarization is limited to ABRs and ASBRs, therefore the designer must pay strict attention to the EIGRP topology.
C. EIGRP, as a proprietary protocol, has special challenges when dealing with networks deployed with IPv6.
D. Effective scalability with OSPF requires the designer to pay strict attention to the hierarchical network structure, localizing topology changes.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18 When designing the identity and access control portions for the enterprise campus network, which of these solutions would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACLs in the core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. NetFlow

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19 DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two.)
A. PSTN
B. E-commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 20
Which codec does Cisco recommend for WAN links?

A. G.711
B. G.723
C. G.728
D. G.729

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
The enterprise campus core layer has requirements that are unique from the distribution and access layers. Which of the following is true about the core layer?
A. The core layer provides convergence using Layer 2 and Layer 3 services and features.
B. The core layer provides high availability to support the distribution layer connections to the enterprise edge.
C. The campus core layer is optional.
D. The core layer requires high performance to manage the traffic policing across the backbone.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22 Which one of these statements is true concerning the data center distribution (aggregation) layer design?
A. With Layer 3 at the aggregation layer, the physical loops in the topology must still be managed by STP.
B. The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 must reside in the multilayer switches, independent of any other devices such as firewalls or content switching devices.
C. A mix of both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access is sometimes the most optimal.
D. In a small data center, the aggregation layer can connect directly to the campus core, exchanging IP routes and MAC address tables.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23 When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1X
B. ACLs in the core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24

Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 25
A Cisco Self-Defending Network has been installed, but DoS attacks are still being
directed at e- commerce hosts. The connection rate at the Internet firewall was
limited, but the problem persists.
What more can be done?

A. Move the servers to the DMZ.
B. Install all relevant operating system patches.
C. Block the servers’ TCP traffic at the Internet firewall.
D. Block the servers’ UDP traffic at the Internet firewall.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
RST Corporation is planning to upgrade its current network. The chief technology officer has supplied a topology diagram and an IP addressing scheme of the current network during an interview.
RST has been growing at about twenty percent per year. It has been difficult to maintain customer support at a satisfactory level. Therefore, the RST board has met with and directed the chief technology officer to look into network improvements.
Which two items are most relevant in documenting RST’s business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. existing network topologies
B. network performance requirements
C. the IP addresses assigned by the ISP
D. improved customer support requirements
E. projected growth estimates
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 27
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.)
A. the segmenting of collision domains
B. a limited corporate budget
C. the use of multivendor equipment
D. security between departments
E. video streaming on the LAN
F. the segmenting of broadcast domains
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 28
Which two methods are used to enhance VPN performance on Cisco ISRs? (Choose two.)
A. SSL Acceleration Network Module
B. VPN Shared Port Adapter
C. VPN Acceleration Module
D. high-performance VPN encryption AIM
E. VPN Service Adapter
F. built-in hardware-based encryption acceleration
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 29
Which three factors best justify WAN link redundancy between geographically dispersed sites? (Choose three.)
A. high expense of transmitting data
B. important traffic flows
C. excessive packet transmission rate
D. uncertain reliability
E. high link utilization
F. lack of speed
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 30
The topology map in the draft design document should cover which two layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. session B. data link
C. transport
D. application
E. physical
F. network
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 31
In a Cisco CatOS switch, what is the recommended practice when configuring switch-to-switch intercommunications to carry multiple VLANs for Dynamic Trunk Protocol?
A. auto to auto_negotiate
B. disable Dynamic Trunk Protocol when operating in the distribution layer
C. auto to auto_no_negotiate
D. desirable to desirable_no_negotiate
E. on to on_negotiate
F. desirable to desirable_negotiate
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 32
What are the two most likely driving forces motivating businesses to integrate voice and data into converged networks? (Choose two.)
A. Voice networks cannot carry data unless the PRI circuits aggregate the BRI circuits.
B. Their PSTNs cannot deploy features quickly enough.
C. Data, voice, and video cannot converge on their current PSTN structures.
D. Voice has become the primary traffic on networks.
E. WAN costs can be reduced by migrating to converged networks.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 33
Which three mechanisms are required to deploy QoS on an IP WAN? (Choose three.)
A. queuing and scheduling
B. Call Admission Control
C. traffic shaping
D. link efficiency techniques
E. traffic classification
F. bandwidth provisioning
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 34
Which two statements best describe the implementation of Overlay VPN connectivity for remote access in the Enterprise Edge WAN module? (Choose two.)
A. Bandwidth is provisioned on a site-to-site basis.
B. It uses dedicated point-to-point links.
C. Optimum routing between customer sites requires a full mesh of virtual circuits.
D. It must use Layer 2 labels to forward packets
E. The ISP actively participates in customer routing.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 35
A manufacturing company has decided to add a website to enhance sales. The web servers in the E-Commerce module must be accessible without compromising network security. Which two design recommendations can be made to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Move the E-Commerce servers to the WAN module.
B. Use intrusion detection on the E-Commerce server farm.
C. Limit the number of incoming connections to the E-Commerce module.
D. Use private and public key encryption.
E. Place E-Commerce servers and application servers on isolated LANs (DMZs).

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 36
A very large organization has received its IPv6 address range from its Internet Service Provider and intends to use only IPv6 addresses internally. Employees will access the Internet using port address translation. What is a requirement for their DNS servers?
A. There are no changes required to their DNS servers.
B. Their DNS servers need to support only IPv6 addresses.
C. Their DNS servers need to support only IPv4 addresses.
D. They need additional DNS servers in their network just for IPv6 addresses.
E. They no longer need DNS servers.
F. Their DNS servers need to support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses.

Correct Answer: F

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