Index

QUESTION 1
Exam Description
The 640-816 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)
Topic 2 – Implement IP addressing and Services(18 Questions) Calculate and apply a VLSM IP addressing design to a network Determine the appropriate classless addressing scheme using VLSM and summarization to satisfy addressing requirements in a LAN/WAN environment Describe the technological requirements for running IPv6 (including: protocols, dual stack, tunneling, etc) Describe IPv6 addresses Identify and correct common problems associated with IP addressing and host configurations
Topic 3 – Configure and troubleshoot basic operation and routing on Cisco devices. (69 Questions) Compare and contrast methods of routing and routing protocols Configure, verify and troubleshoot OSPF Configure, verify and troubleshoot EIGRP Verify configuration and connectivity using ping, traceroute, and telnet or SSH Troubleshoot routing implementation issues Verify router hardware and software operation using SHOW DEBUG commands Implement basic router security
Topic 4 – Implement, verify, and troubleshoot NAT and ACLs in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network. (20 Questions) Describe the purpose and types of access control lists Configure and apply access control lists based on network filtering requirements Configure and apply an access control list to limit telnet and SSH access to the router Verify and monitor ACL’s in a network environment Troubleshoot ACL implementation issues Explain the basic operation of NAT Configure Network Address Translation for given network requirements using CLI Troubleshoot NAT implementation issues
Topic 5 – Implement and verify WAN links. (24 Questions) Configure and verify Frame Relay on Cisco routers Troubleshoot WAN implementation issues Describe VPN technology (including: importance, benefits, role, impact, components) Configure and vary PPP connection between Cisco routers
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
To reduce administrative overhead in a switched network by allowing the configuration of a new VLAN to be distributed to all the switches in a domain, which protocol will be used?
A. VTP
B. STP
C. DHCP
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
P4S.Inc has decided to network three (3) locations to improve efficiency in inventory control. The routers have been named to reflect the location:
P4S-RA,P4S-RB,P4S-RC.
The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured with single area OSPF as the routing protocol. The P4S-RA router was recently installed but connectivity is not complete because of incomplete routing tables. Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration. NOTE: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to paricipate in the routing process.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4
The P4S network have been configured for OSPF area 0 shown below: Based on the information shown above, You wish to ensure that P4S1 will be preferred as the designated router (DR) for the 172.16.1.0 /24 LAN segment. What configuration tasks could be used to establish this preference? (Choose three)

A. Configure the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of P4S1 to a higher value than any other interface on the Ethernet network.
B. Change the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of P4S1 to zero.
C. Configure a loop back interface on P4S1 with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.
D. Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of P4S2 and P4S3 to zero.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 5
As a cisco technician, you need to know EIGRP protocol very well. Which of the following is true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
C. Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6
Problems may occur when a routing protocol tries to identify the next hop in discontinuous networks in the IP addressing scheme. But some routing protocols may minimize the effects of the problems. Which are these routing protocols? (Choose three.)
A. RIP v2
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. VLSM
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 7
On the basis of the exhibit presented. What does the 128 indicate in the router output O 192.168.12.240/30 via 192.168.12.233,00:35:36, Serial 0?

A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF administrative distance
C. OSPF priority
D. OSPF hop count
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
In order to establish a secure terminal connection to a remote network device, which protocol will you use?
A. WEP
B. SSH
C. SNMPv1
D. SNMPv2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
The exhibit below displays the topology and partial router configurations. The network is completely operational and all routing tables are converged. Which route will appear in the output of the show ip route command issued on the P4S-Branch router?

A. S* 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.10.82
B. C 192.168.12.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
C. R 172.16.11.4/30 via 192.168.10.82, 00:00:22, Serial0/0
D. R 192.168.10.80/30 via 192.168.10.81, 00:00:22, Serial0/0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Examine the following router commands, which one could be used for verifying the type of cable connected to interface serial 0/0?
A. show ip interface serial 0/0
B. show controllers serial 0/0
C. show running-config
D. show interfaces serial 0/0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol developed for Internet Protocol (IP) networks by the Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) working group of the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
A. 120
B. 100
C. 110
D. 90
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Look at the following exhibit. To connect the autonomous systems, which routing protocol should be used?

A. RIP
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Look at the exhibit. Host P4S-PC1 fails to ping Host P4S-PC2. To enable the communication between the two hosts, what needs to be configured?

A. A router needs to be configured to route between the VLANs.
B. Spanning Tree Protocol needs to be configured on the switch.
C. The default gateway of the hosts needs be configured to 192.168.1.2.
D. The switch needs to be configured with an IP address on the correct subnet.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol – (EIGRP) is a Cisco proprietary routing protocol loosely based on their original IGRP. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. How does EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails?
A. It places the route in holddown until LSA updates inform it of a new route to the network.
B. It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
C. EIGRP sends a Hello packet to the DR to inform it of the route failure.
D. It sends queries out to neighbors until a new successor route is found.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
The following is the graphic and routing table for router P4S-R1. Based on the output of the P4S-R1# show ip route command and the information displayed in the graphic, which of the following is a potential routing problem?

A. the use of summarization for discontinuous networks
B. the use of VLSM with a routing protocol that does not support it
C. the use of CIDR with a routing protocol that does not support it
D. the use of the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command with a routing protocol that does not support it
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
In the P4S network, three routers are connected together as shown below:
IP Addresses and routing for the network are configured as shown above. The P4S network administrator
issued the “show ip eigrp neighbors” command from router P4S1 and receives the output shown. Based on
all the information shown above, which following statement is true?
A. The no auto-summary command configured on the routers prevents P4S1 and P4S2 from forming a neighbor relationship.
B. Routing is not completely configured on P4S3.
C. The IP addresses are not configured properly on the P4S1 and P4S3 interfaces
D. It is normal for router P4S1 to show one active neighbor at a time to prevent routing loops.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
The P4S network is shown below:
The output of P4S1 exhibit:
The output of P4S2 exhibit:
As the P4S network administrator, you found that the network has failed to converge. What is the likely
cause of the failure?

A. The no auto-summary command needs to be applied to the routers.
B. The bandwidth values have not been properly configured on the serial interfaces.
C. The autonomous system number has not been properly configured.
D. The subnet masks for the network numbers have not been properly configured.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Examine the exhibit below carefully. Which item is a requirement for allowing communication between host A and host B?

A. a crossover cable only
B. a router connected to the switches with straight-through cables
C. a straight-through cable only
D. a router connected to the switches with crossover cables
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
To maintain connectivity with neighboring routers, routers running OSPF will send some type of packets. What is the type of packets?
A. OSP packets
B. LSU packets
C. hello packets
D. dead interval packets
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
What does the number 782 stand for in the route highlighted in the following graphic?

A. hop count
B. cost of the route
C. delay to the destination
D. administrative distance

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Match the correct relationship between the description and the routing protocol. 1.is vendor-specific 2.uses cost as its metric
3.
uses hop count as its metric

4.
uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm

5.
select a DR on each multi-access network

6.
has a default administrative distance of 90
A. EIGRP II.OSPF
B. I-1,2;II-3,5
C. I-1,6;II-2,5
D. I-2,6;II-3,4
E. I-2,5;II-3,6

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
From EIGRP, OSPF, and a static route, a router learns about a remote network. Assuming that default administrative distance is used by all routing protocols, to forward data to the remote network, which route will the router use?
A. The router will use the EIGRP route.
B. The router will use the OSPF route.
C. The router will use the static route.
D. The router will load balance and use all three routes.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
You work as a network administrator at P4S, and you need
to block pings into the corporate networks from hosts outside the internetwork due to security reasons.
Which one of the
following protocols can be blocked with access control lists?

A. UDP
B. ICMP
C. IP
D. TCP

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Tom works as a network administrator for P4S Ltd. In order to receive traffic from only the currently attached host devices, he must configure 200 switch ports. Which way will most effectively configure MAC-level security on all these ports?
A. Use show mac-address-table to determine the addresses that are associated with each port and then enter the commands on each switch for MAC address port-security.
B. Visually verify the MAC addresses and then telnet to the switches to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
C. Use the switchport port-security MAC address sticky command on all the switch ports that have end devices connected to them.
D. Have end users e-mail their MAC addresses. Telnet to the switch to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Match the proper relationship between each category and its corresponding router output line. Each router output line is the result of a show ip interface command. Not all categories are used
1.
Layer 1 problem

2.
Layer 2 problem

3.
Layer 3 problem

4.
port operational

5.
port disabled
A. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is up II.Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down III.Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down IV.Serial0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down
B. I-4;II-3;III-2;IV-5
C. I-4;II-2;III-1;IV-5
D. I-4;II-2;III-1;IV-3
E. I-4;II-3;III-1;IV-5
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
A P4S network is shown in the exhibit below:
Please study the exhibit shown above carefully, all of the P4S routers in the P4S network are configured
with the IOS command “ip subnet-zero”. Because of this, which network addresses should be used for Link
P4S and Network P4S? (Choose two.)
A. Link P4S – 172.16.3.112/30
B. Network P4S – 172.16.3.128/25
C. Network P4S – 172.16.3.48/26
D. Link P4S – 172.16.3.0/30

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 27
The P4S network have been configured for OSPF area 0 shown below: Based on the information shown above, You wish to ensure that P4S1 will be preferred as the designated router (DR) for the 172.16.1.0 /24 LAN segment. What configuration tasks could be used to establish this preference? (Choose three)

A. Configure the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of P4S1 to a higher value than any other interface on the Ethernet network.
B. Change the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of P4S1 to zero.
C. Configure a loop back interface on P4S1 with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.
D. Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of P4S2 and P4S3 to zero.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 28
Part of the P4S WAN is shown below:
In this P4S network segment, subnet 10.1.3.0/24 is unknown to router P4S2. Which router command will
prevent router P4S2 from dropping a packet destined for the 10.1.3.0/24 network if a default route is
configured?
A. ip classless
B. network 10.1.1.0
C. ip default-network
D. network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 1

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks?
A. 172.16.0.1
B. 192.168.0.5
C. 223.0.0.1
D. 224.0.0.5

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
In order to establish a secure terminal connection to a remote network device, which protocol will you use?
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. WEP
D. SNMPv1

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Look at the graphic in the following. With the output from the router, can you determine which of the following are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Router P4S-R uses a link-state routing protocol.
B. Router P4S-R will send routing updates out the Serial0/1 interface.
C. Router P4S-R will send routing updates out the Serial0/0 interface.
D. Router P4S-R will receive routing updates on the Serial0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 32
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a dynamic routing protocol for use in Internet Protocol (IP) networks, while EIGRP is short for Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol. A large corporate which often integrates networks from newly acquired businesses has just decided to use OSPF to replace EIGRP as the corporate routing protocol. Which two benefits will the corporation obtain by changing from EIGRP to OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. the ability to automatically summarize networks
B. the ability to support multi-vendor routers
C. the ability to redistribute default and static routes
D. the ability to create a hierarchical design using areas

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 33
In P4S Network, you use the command “show ip route”, the
routing table of router P4SA is shown below:
According to the information shown above, Which address and mask combination represents a summary
of the routes learned by EIGRP?
A. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252
B. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240
C. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240
D. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
A router always loses its configuration when rebooting. What is the most likely cause of this problem on the basis of the output displayed in the exhibit?

A. There is insufficient NVRAM.
B. There is insufficient flash memory.
C. There is insufficient RAM for the IOS image.
D. The configuration register is misconfigured.

Correct Answer: D

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Exam A QUESTION 1

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchX (config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
C. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 3
A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?
A. The VLAN database was not erased.
B. The management VLAN is disabled.
C. The running configuration should have been erased.
D. The “mode” button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
E. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5

The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.
What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/1.
F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded out fa0/1.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 6
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 7

A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of this failure?
A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 8
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice
VLAN. Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 9
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.

Correct Answer: CF QUESTION 10
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12

What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?
A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24

Correct Answer: B

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Q A3
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing.
With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Q A6

RouterA# show ip interface brief
Interface IP Address OK? Method Status
Protocol
FastEthernet0/0upSerial0/0down 192.168.2.1 192.168.1.5 YES YES manual manual up up
Serial0/1down unassigned YES manual administratively down

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two)
A. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
B. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.
F. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 3
Q A7 A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician.
What should the network administrator tell the new technician about VTP configuration? (Choose three)
A. A switch in the VTP client mode cannot update its local VLAN database.
B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 4
Q A17

New York(config)# router eigrp 20New York(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0New York(config)-router# network 10.0.0.0New York(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0New York(config-if)# ip address 192.168.20.65 255.255.255.192 New York(config)# interface serial 0/0New York(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
Sydney(config)# router eigrp 20
Sydney(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
Sydney(config)-router# network 10.0.0.0
Sydney(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 192.168.20.129 255.255.255.192
Sydney(config)# interface serial 0/0
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.255.252

Why has the network shown in the exhibit failed to converge?
A. The no auto-summary command needs to be applied to the routers.
B. The network numbers have not been properly configured on the routers.
C. The subnet masks for the network numbers have not been properly configured.
D. The autonomous system number has not been properly configured.
E. The bandwidth values have not been properly configured on the serial interfaces.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Q A21
R1# show frame-relay pvc 202
PVC Statistics for interface Serial1 (Frame Relay DTE)
DLCI = 202, DLCI USAGE = LOCAL, PVC STATUS = ACTIVE, INTERFACE = Serial0/0
input pkts 2878 output pkts 2879 in bytes 964143out bytes 964641 dropped pkts 0 in pkts dropped 0out pkts dropped 0 out bytes dropped 0in FECN pkts 0 in BECN pkts 0 out FECN pkts 0out BECN pkts 0 in DE pkts 0 out DE pkts 0out bcast pkts 2699 out bcast bytes 753021pvc create time 1d20h, last time pvc status changed 1d20h<< output omitted >>
What does STATUS=ACTIVE indicate based on the output of the show frame-relay pvccommand?
A. The Frame Relay switch is correctly programmed with the DLCI and is operational.
B. The router R1 is actively broadcasting to establish a link to the Frame Relay switch.
C. The router R1 is connected to the local Frame Relay switch, but not to the far end device.
D. The PVC is experiencing congestion.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Q A31

In the following Frame Relay network, some IP addresses would be assigned to the interfaces with point-to-point PVCs, which IP addresses would be used?
A. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24DLCI 28: 192.168.11.2 /24
B. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24DLCI 17: 192.168.10.1 /24DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24DLCI 28: 192.168.10.3 /24
C. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24DLCI 17: 192.168.10.2 /24DLCI 99: 192.168.10.3 /24DLCI 28: 192.168.10.4 /24
D. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24DLCI 99: 192.168.12.1 /24DLCI 28: 192.168.13.1 /24
Correct Answer: A

Cisco 640-816 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-816 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 7
Q A33

Host 1 configuration: | Host 2 configuration:IP Address: 10.1.32.48 | IP Address: 10.1.40.96 Mask: 255.255.240.0 | Mask: 255.255.252.0 Gateway: 10.1.32.45 | Gateway: 10.1.40.255
Host 1 can not receive packets from Host 2. Assuming that RIP v1 is the routing protocol in use. What is wrong with the IP configuration information shown? (Choose two)
A. The fa0/1 interface of router R2 has been assigned a broadcast address.
B. The fa0/1 network on router R2 overlaps with the LAN attached to R1.
C. Host 2 has been assigned the incorrect subnet mask.
D. Host 1 has been configured with the 255.255.248.0 subnet mask.
E. Host 2 on router R2 is on a different subnet than its gateway.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 8
Q A34

S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in the hub-and-spoke
Frame Relay topology.
While testing this configuration, a technician notes that pings are successfully from hosts on the
172.16.1.0/24 network to hosts on both the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 networks.
However, pings between hosts on the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 network are not successful.

What could explain this connectivity problem?

A. The ip subnet-zero command has been issued on the R1 router.
B. The RIPv2 dynamic routing protocol cannot be used across a Frame Relay network.
C. Split horizon is preventing R2 from learning about the R3 networks and R3 from learning about R2 networks.
D. The 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 networks are overlapping networks that can be seen by R1, but not between R2 and R3.
E. The 172.16.3.0/29 network used on the Frame Relay links is creating a discontiguous network between the R2 and R3 router subnetworks.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Q A35 You want to add a line to an access list that will block only Telnet access by the hosts on subnet 192.168.1.128/28 to the server at 192.168.1.5.
To accomplish this task, what command should be used?
A. access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23access-list 101 permit ip any any
B. access-list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23access-list 1 permit ip any any
C. access-list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21access-list 1 permit ip any any
D. access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.240 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq23 access-list 101 permit ip any any
E. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.240 192.158.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23access-list 101 permit ip any any
F. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23access-list 101 permit ip any any
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Q A38
SwitchA# show spanning-tree vlan 20
VLAN0020 Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp
Root ID PriorityAddress 245960017.596d.2a00
Cost 38
Port Hello Time 11 (FastEthernet0/11)2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec

Bridge ID Priority 28692 (priority 28672 sys-id-ext 20)
Address 0017.596d.1580
Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec
Aging Time 300

Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type
Fa0/11 Root FWD 19 128.11 P2pFa0/12 Altn BLK 19 128.12 P2p
Which of the following is true about the output shown above?
A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Q A39
SwitchA# show vtp statusVTP Version: 2 Configuration Revision: 240Maximum VLANs supported locally: 1005Number of existing VLANs: 33VTP Operating Mode: ServerVTP Domain Name: Lab_NetworkVTP Pruning Mode: Enabled<<output omitted>>
SwitchB# show vtp statusVTP Version: 2 Configuration Revision: 0Maximum VLANs supported locally: 1005Number of existing VLANs: 17VTP Operating Mode: TransparentVTP Domain Name: Lab_NetworkVTP Pruning Mode: Enabled<<output omitted>>
SwitchC# show vtp statusVTP Version: 2 Configuration Revision: 247Maximum VLANs supported locally: 250Number of existing VLANs: 30VTP Operating Mode: ClientVTP Domain Name: Lab_NetworkVTP Pruning Mode: Enabled<<output omitted>>
The network administrator has discovered that the VLAN configuration of SwitchC is not synchronized with
the rest of the switched network.
Why is SwitchC not receiving VTP updates? __________________________________________
A. SwitchB is not relaying VTP advertisements to SwitchC.
B. SwitchC has fewer existing VLANs than does SwitchA.
C. SwitchA supports a greater number of VLANs than does SwitchC.
D. SwitchC has a revision number higher than that being advertised.
E. SwitchC should be operating in VTP server mode to receive VTP updates.
F. SwitchB should be operating in VTP server or client mode to relay VTP updates.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Router# show ip dhcp conflictIP address Detection method Detection time 172.16.1.32 Ping Feb 16 1998 12:28 PM 172.16.1.64 Gratuitous ARP Feb 23 1998 08:12 AM __________________________________________ Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict? __________________________________________ Q A40
A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
B. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
C. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
D. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
E. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 The network default gateway applying to a host by DHCP is 192.168.5.33 /28. Which option is the valid IP address of this host? __________________________________________ Q A42
A. 192.168.5.55
B. 192.168.5.47
C. 192.168.5.40

D. 192.168.5.32
E. 192.168.5.14

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14

Q A43

The networks connected to router R2 have been summarized as a 192.168.176.0 /21 route and sent to R1. Which two packet destination addresses will R1 forward to R2? (Choose two)
A. 192.168.194.160
B. 192.168.183.41
C. 192.168.159.2
D. 192.168.183.255
E. 192.168.179.4
F. 192.168.184.45

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 15
Q A44 Which two subnetworks would be included in the summarized address of 172.31.80.0 /20? (Choose two)
A. 172.31.17.4/30
B. 172.31.51.16/30
C. 172.31.64.0/18
D. 172.31.80.0/22
E. 172.31.92.0/22
F. 172.31.192.0/18

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 16

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
NationalAct has been assigned three Class C network addresses: 196.56.12.0, 196.56.13.0 and
196.56.14.0. You want to combine these addresses into one logical network to increase the number of
host
IDs you can have on the NationalAct network.
Which subnet mask must you use? (Select the best choice.)

A. 255.255.252.0

B. 255.255.255.254

C. 255.255.254.0

D. 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
How often do Cisco routers broadcast Service Advertisement Protocol (SAP) information by default?
(Select
the best choice.)

A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 90 seconds
D. 240 seconds
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What is the correct order of the following data encapsulation steps, according to the Department of Defense model, when using TCP/IP?
1.
The address of the destination network is placed in the frame header, and the data is placed behind it.

2.
The signal is encoded onto the media, and the bits are transmitted.

3.
A user application creates data, which is passed to the Transport layer.

4.
The data is converted to 0s and 1s, and a header and trailer are added to the data.

5.
A TCP or UDP header is added to the data. (Select the best choice.)
A. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
B. 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
C. 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
D. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
E. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
Telstar Corporation uses TCP/IP for their internetwork. Adam, the network administrator, has installed Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) for dynamic configuration of routing tables. Why would Adam have chosen to use OSPF rather than Routing Information Protocol (RIP)? (Select the best choice.)
A. RIP requires more metrics.
B. OSPF updates the routing tables more frequently.
C. Link-state routing protocols converge faster than distance vector routing protocols.
D. Link-state routing protocols require less processing power than distance vector routing protocols.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
You are configuring a Cisco router to use Routing Information Protocol (RIP) as the IP routing protocol. The router has two Ethernet interfaces, E0 and E1. E0 is configured as IP address 10.0.1.1, and E1 is configured as IP address 10.0.2.1. Which of the following commands most easily configure RIP on both Ethernet interfaces? (Select 2 choices.)
A. router rip
B. network 10.0.0.0
C. network 10.0.1.0
D. network 10.0.2.0
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
Why do half-duplex Ethernet 10BaseT topologies have a slower data transmission rate than full-duplex Ethernet 10BaseT topologies? (Select all choices that are correct.)
A. Half-duplex transmissions have more frequent collisions.
B. Half-duplex transmissions can travel in only one direction at a time.
C. Half-duplex transmissions are sent at half the nominal speed of the transmission media.
D. Full-duplex uses faster hubs.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
Which statement best describes the configuration of communication channels in a standard ISDN Primary Rate Interface (PRI)? (Select the best choice.)
A. two 64-Kbps bearer channels and one 16-Kbps data channel
B. two 16-Kbps data channels and one 64-Kbps bearer channel
C. twenty-three 64-Kbps bearer channels and one 16-Kbps data channel
D. twenty-three 64-Kbps bearer channels and one 64-Kbps data channel
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What is the function of the Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)? (Select the best choice.)
A. It translates a MAC address for a specified IP address.
B. It translates an IP address for a specified MAC address.
C. It translates IP addresses from NetBIOS names.
D. It translates NetBIOS names from IP addresses.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
How do you log in to a router from a console? (Select the best choice.)
A. by pressing ENTER and then typing a password if required
B. by typing login and then a password if required
C. by typing EXEC to enter user EXEC mode
D. by typing enable to enter privileged EXEC mode
E. by typing console, aux or Telnet, depending on how you accessed the router
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is the default Cisco encapsulation protocol for synchronous serial links? (Select the best choice.)
A. HDLC
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. PPP
Correct Answer: A

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Exam A QUESTION 1

Identify the command to display the IP routing table?
A. show route
B. show ip route
C. show ip table route
D. show ipx route

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Identify the command to display all the valid commands at the given mode?
A. Help all
B. Help
C. All commands
D. ?
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Identify the keystroke used to terminate the setup mode?
A. Ctrl-K
B. Crtl-C
C. Ctrl-Z
D. Crtl-End

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
Identify the command to display the IP host table?
A. show ip hostnames
B. show ip names
C. show hosts
D. show ip hosts

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
Identify the command to display the configured IP routing protocols?
A. show protocols
B. show protocols all
C. show routing-protocols
D. show ip protocols

Cisco 640-801 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-801 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Identify the command to configure ALL the default VTY ports?
A. Router(config)# line vty 0 4
B. Router# line vty 0 4
C. Router(config)# line vty
D. Router(config)# line vty 0

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Identify the command to reload the router?
A. Router(config)# reload
B. Router# reset
C. Router# reload
D. Router> reload

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
Identify command that configures ‘Cisco1’ as a secret password?
A. Router(config)# enable secret password Cisco1
B. Router(config)# enable secret cisco1
C. Router(config)# enable password Cisco1
D. Router(config)# enable secret Cisco1

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Identify the statement which connects access-list 101 inbound to interface e0?
A. Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in
B. Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101
C. Router(config)# ip access-group 101 e0 in
D. Router(config)# ip access-group 101 e0 in

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
Identify the command that displays ethernet0/1 interface status?
A. show interface ethernet0/1
B. show interface ethernet e0/1
C. show interface ethernet0.1
D. show ethernet0/1

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Based upon the exhibit, create a static route to 172.16.10.0 on Router A
A. Router# ip route 172.16.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.0.2
B. Router(config)# ip static route 172.16.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.0.2
C. Router(config)# ip route 172.16.10.0 10.1.0.2
D. Router(config)# ip route 172.16.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.0.2

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Identify the command that saves the configuration stored in RAM to NVRAM?
A. copy running-config startup-config
B. copy tftp running-config
C. copy startup running
D. copy active to backup

Correct Answer: A

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
While looking at a Cisco CRS syslog, you see this message:
%ROUTING-FIB-1-FIBTBLINIT
Based on the message alone, should you consider it a high-priority message?

A. Yes, because router syslog messages require immediate action.
B. Yes, because the severity of the syslog message requires immediate action.
C. No, because router syslog messages are informational only.
D. No, because the severity of the syslog message is informational only.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
According to the ITIL@v3 framework, how does problem management contribute to network availability?
A. by maintaining optimal levels of service quality
B. by developing and documenting workarounds to known problems
C. by providing inputs for calculating SLA penalties
D. by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Refer to the Gigabit Ethernet link in the exhibit. Which of the following IP address schemes would allow for IP reachability across this link?

A. Router A with IP 10.1.1.0/31 to Router B with IP 10.1.1.1/31
B. Router A with IP 10.1.1.1/31 to Router B with IP 10.1.1.2/31
C. Router A with IP 10.1.1.7/30 to Router B with IP 10.1.1.8/30
D. Router A with IP 10.1.1.255/31 to Router B with IP 10.1.1.253/31

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which one of these items is used to define key elements for successfully building obtainable service levels?
A. critical success factors
B. key performance indicators
C. key quality indicators
D. metrics “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 4 Cisco 640-760 Exam

Correct Answer: A

640-760 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of 640-760 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification.
QUESTION 5
What action should you take if the NMS is receiving temperature alarms from a router?
A. Check the fan tray to ensure that all of the fans are functioning properly.
B. Check the line card to ensure that it is not generating excessive heat.
C. Check the interfaces to ensure that they are not generating excessive heat.
D. Check the grounding wire to ensure that it is attached properly.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
According to the ITIL@v3 framework, what five characteristics can you use to identify effective KPIs? (Choose five.)
A. specific
B. agreed
C. realistic
D. budget-based
E. heuristic
F. time-based
G. measurable
H. Boolean

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7
Which one of the following statements is true for syslog messages?
A. A syslog packet is limited to 1024 bytes.
B. Syslog messages use UDP port 520.
C. At the application layer, syslog sends acknowledgments.
D. Syslog is a peer-to-peer protocol.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You are responsible for monitoring the IP network. You have noticed since the beginning of your shift that a particular interface on a network switch has been flapping, and it has finally gone down. You open an incident ticket. According to the ITIL@v3 framework, what should you do to determine if it is a recurring issue?
A. Use Telnet to connect to the device and troubleshoot.
B. Ping the device to verify connectivity.
C. Perform a search of the known-error database.
D. Clear the alarm from the event system to see if it recurs.
E. Clear the interface counters and see if additional errors are incurred “First Test, First Pass” -www.lead2pass.com 5 Cisco 640-760 Exam

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which of these items enables an agent to notify the management station of significant events by sending an unsolicited message?
A. syslog message
B. SNMP trap
C. managed object code
D. RMON notification

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
When connecting to the console port, you see this message:
%SYS-2-MALLOCFAIL: Memory allocation of 1028 bytes failed from 0x6015EC84, Pool Processor,
alignment 0
What two situations could cause this message? (Choose two.)

A. The router does not have the minimum amount of I/O memory to support certain interface processors.
B. The memory has fragmented into such small pieces that the router cannot find a usable available block.
C. The router has temporarily or permanently used all available memory.
D. The router ran out of “fast” memory, and will use its main DRAM instead.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 11

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two security features are associated with a wireless network employing 802.11i configured as a Robust Security Network? (Choose two.)
A. WEP
B. AES-CCMP
C. 802.11x
D. IPsec
E. TKIP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 2
Before conducting a passive RF site survey with a standalone AP, which two of these should be statically configured on the AP? (Choose two.)
A. passive client
B. channel assignment
C. DTPC
D. Tx power level
E. channel scan defer priority
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
After interviewing a customer to understand wireless client requirements, you determine that 802.11b must be enabled to support legacy clients within a mixed-mode environment. Which recommendation will have the greatest impact on mitigating the effects of 802.11b clients on the rest of the network?
A. Restrict OFDM modulation from being used.
B. Make 11 Mb/s the lowest mandatory rate.
C. Enable a separate SSID for 802.11b clients.
D. Enable a short preamble. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2 Cisco 350-050 Exam
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
In a Cisco Unified Wireless Network environment, which two of these are required in order for clients to connect with MCS data rates? (Choose two.)
A. EDCF
B. client MFP
C. multiple spatial streams
D. AES-CCMP
E. 40-MHz channels
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
The 802.11-2007 standard includes which two amendments to the original 802.11 standard? (Choose two.)
A. 802.11c
B. 802.11d
C. 802.11j
D. 802.11r
E. 802.11u
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 6
You are designing a wireless network utilizing EAP-TLS. One design requirement is to provide per-user differentiated QoS using only one SSID. What is the best way to achieve this goal?
A. using WMM override
B. using Cisco Airespace VSAs “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 350-050 Exam
C. using QoS Enhanced BSS
D. using AP groups

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
What does the letter P in the designation of the AIR-CAP3502P AP indicate?
A. The AP supports the new IEEE 802.11p (WAVE) wireless standard.
B. The AP requires professional installation.
C. The AP can be used in plenum applications.
D. The AP is compatible with polarization type antennae.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
You are converting your wireless infrastructure from a data-only design to a location services design. Which task do you need to complete?
A. Disable the DSSS speeds for RFID compatibility.
B. Use fewer APs to avoid RFID 3D imaging.
C. Set APs to maximum power for RF fingerprinting.
D. Locate APs at the edges of your coverage area for trilateration.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Which statement about heat maps on Cisco WCS is true?
A. They are predictive and rely only on the accuracy of the information that is provided with the map.
B. They are based on real-time actual values if Cisco Compatible Extensions is enabled on the “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4 Cisco 350-050 Exam APs.
C. They are predictive but can be converted to real values by using the Refresh from network button.
D. They are based on real-time actual values because of fingerprinting.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
A clause 15 radio uses ___________ and supports data rates of ___________ .
A. FHSS or DSSS, 1 Mb/s up to 11 Mb/s
B. DSSS, 1 Mb/s and 2 Mb/s
C. FHSS, 1 Mb/s and 2 Mb/s
D. DSSS, 1 Mb/s up to 11 Mb/s

Correct Answer: B

Exam A QUESTION 1
Which two options are correct according to debug output presented in the following exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. The wireless client uses a static IP address, so “0.0.0.0 START (0)” can be found in the logs.
B. The wireless client has been successfully authenticated. Reauthentication is set to occur on an extremely aggressive schedule (every five seconds). Certkey.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams Certkey 350-050
C. The wireless client “hangs” in probes (does not proceed with 802.11 authentication and association). It is likely that the “encryption” or “key-management” advertised in the probe response does not match.
D. Since the AP receives a probe request from the wireless client, the Access Point Functions state for the machine changes from “Idle” to “Probe.”

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2
Lightweight Access Point Protocol or LWAPP is the name of a protocol that can control multiple Wi-Fi wireless access points at once. How does the Cisco WCS know what has happened in an LWAPP system when an AP’s interface goes down and then comes up again?
A. The Cisco WCS polls the APs and when the AP is unreachable, reports “Max retransmissions reached on AP <name>”.
B. The AP sends a linkDown then linkUp trap to the Cisco WCS; these are two of the six traps defined in RFC 1215, A Convention for Defining Traps for use with the SNMP.
C. The AP cannot send a linkDown trap, as per RFC 1215, because the link is down; when the link comes back up, the AP sends a linkup trap to the Cisco WLC, which then forwards the trap to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC sends a trap to the Cisco WCS when it detects that an AP is down.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
When using the enterprise-based authentication method for WPA2, a bidirectional handshake exchange occurs between the client and the authenticator. Which five options will be the results of that exchange by use of controller based network? (Choose five.)
A. proof that each side is alive
B. creation of the Pairwise Transient Key
C. distribution of the Group Transient Key
D. binding of a Pairwise Master Key at the client and the controller
E. distribution of the Pairwise Master key for caching at the access point
F. a bidirectional exchange of a nonce used for key generation
Correct Answer: ABCDF
QUESTION 4
You can click on the buttons at the bottom of the screen to access resources associated with this item.
The following resources are available to you:

show run – show run on AP-1
debug logs – Logs/debugs on AP-1

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Certkey 350-050

Radius sniffer trace taken betwen AP-1 and AAA-Server. packet-overview frame-1
frame-2 frame-3 frame-4

Given:
Wireless-Client (CB21) configured for SSID “CCIE-2”
Standalone AP (autonomous), configured with 3 SSID’s and 3 Data-Vlan plus the native VLAN. AAA
server configured for LEAP and EAP-FAST authentication and dynamic VLAN assignment. Question:
Why is this wireless client not able to associate to the network?
A. Pending
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
According to the troubleshooting actions, choose proper troubleshooting process order.
1.
Create a testing action plan based on the information gathered.

2.
Clearly define the trouble reported.

3.
If the problem has not been solved, change vanables and repeat process.

4.
Collect data to isolate possible causes.

5.
Analyze the results.

6.
Execute tests to identify the actual source of the problem.
A. Step1 II.Step2 III.Step3 IV.Step4
B. Step5 VI.Step6
C. I-2,II-4,III-1,IV-5,V-6,VI-3
D. I-2,II-4,III-1,IV-5,V-3,VI-6
E. I-2,II-4,III-1,IV-3,V-6,VI-5
F. I-2,II-4,III-1,IV-3,V-5,VI-6 Certkey.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams Certkey 350-050
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Study the exhibit carefully. You are deploying a site survey for a new implementation and see this information in Cisco Spectrum Expert. Which option is true?

A. The capture shows radar. It is most probably military radar because of the frequency hopping in the “Swept Spectrogram.” The workaround is to disable DFS on the AP.
B. There is general background noise of -70dBm, which is not an issue at all for an 802.11b/g deployment.
C. The location of this capture is most likely near a kitchen, because it is clear that there is a microwave oven disrupting channel 1-13. There will be some packet loss while cooking, which is not a problem, because employees will not be working during lunch time.
D. This is a typical Bluetooth pattern. The source needs to be identified and eliminated because it will affect an 802.11b/g deployment.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
ETSI produces globally-applicable standards for Information and Communications Technologies (ICT). What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4-GHz maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations?
A. 20 dBm Certkey.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams Certkey 350-050
B. 17 dBm
C. 30 dBm
D. 16 dBm
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which three statements best describe the communication between the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Supervisor Engine and the Cisco WiSM module? (Choose three.)
A. The communication between the Catalyst Supervisor Engine and Cisco WiSM goes to the service port on the Cisco WiSM.
B. WLCCP is used to communicate between the Cisco WiSM and Catalyst Supervisor Engine.
C. WCP runs on UDP/IP port 10000.
D. WCP is used to communicate between the Cisco WiSM and Catalyst Supervisor Engine.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 9
How to apply WMM access categories in an autonomous AP?
A. The autonomous AP automatically converts the DSCP values of the incoming packets based on a conversion table in the AP.
B. Policy maps are used on the autonomous AP to apply CoS values to frames coming into the AP, based on the ACLs associated with the policy MAP. If no policy maps are applied, the AP will use the incoming frame’s CoS to map the frame to the appropriate WMM access category.
C. AP policy maps allow the DSCP to be set for packets to and from the autonomous AP. These DSCP values are translated to CoS values by the upstream switch.
D. Autonomous APs do not support WMM access categories.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Key Encryption Key is used for the group key handshake to send to the Group Transient Key, so it can be delivered securely to the client.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

Exam A
QUESTION 1
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down. What is the operational state of VSAN 9?
A. Up
B. Initializing
C. Active
D. Suspended
E. Down
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2
There are three different roles on the MDS:

Role1 allows show commands only.
Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command.
Role3 permits VSAN 10-30 only.

User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?

A. Show,debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
B. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
C. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
D. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
E. Show,debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What statement is true?
A. Class of Service 1 frames are acknowledged only when requested by the sender.
B. R_RDY is the correct way to acknowledge a Class of Service 1 frame.
C. Class of Service 1 and 2 reserve 100% of the available bandwidth.
D. Class of Service 3 framesrequire an ACK1 response.
E. Class of Service 2 frames are acknowledged by an ACK response.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the Open Fibre Control system?
A. It defines a safety mechanism for SW laser data links.
B. It specifies the maximum bit error rate for Fibre channel links.
C. It defines the distance limitation for different types of lasers.
D. It defines the mechanism in which Fibre Channel switches communicate with Gbics.
E. It defines the flow control mechanism for Fibre Channel.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What SW_ILS frame is used to perform Principal Switch Selection?
A. ELP
B. RDI
C. DIA
D. ESC
E. EFP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
Which is the objective of the SW_ILS ELP frame?
A. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
B. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
C. Exchange FSPF routing information
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Select the true statements concerning the IP address subnetting requirements of gigabit Ethernet interfaces on the IPS-8 module:
A. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.10 must be configured with IP addresses in the same subnet
B. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet2/1 can be configured with IP addresses in the same subnet
C. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet1/2 can not be configured with IP addresses in the same subnet
D. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and mgmt0 can not be configured with IP addresses in the same subnet
E. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.12 can be configured with IP addresses in the same subnet
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Node is logged into port fc1/1 in VSAN 4000. If VSAN 4000 is deleted then what will happen?
A. Invalid – VSAN 4000 is not available.
B. Node will move to VSAN 1.
C. Node will move to VSAN 4095.
D. Node will move to VSAN 4094.
E. Invalid – VSAN can not be deleted until all members are removed.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
On a standalone switch, VSAN 10 has 10 active ports. When a “no vsan 10” command is issued on the switch what is true?
A. VSAN 10 will not be deleted as it has active ports.
B. VSAN 10 will be deleted and the ports moved to VSAN 4094.
C. VSAN 10 will not be deleted and the ports moved to VSAN 4094
D. Vsan 10 is deleted and the ports moved to VSAN 4093
E. VSAN 10 will be deleted and the ports moved into VSAN 1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
FC1/1 is a member of VSAN 1. After the command “no VSAN 1” is entered, FC1/1 will be a member of what VSAN?
A. VSAN 4094
B. VSAN 1
C. VSAN 4093
D. VSAN 0
E. VSAN 4095
Correct Answer: B

Exam A

QUESTION 1
How many authorized logins are needed to create a recovery disk?

A. Two
B. Four
C. Three
D. One

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What are the names of the Pointsec processes and services that run on a workstation after Pointsec has been installed?
A. Pointsec.exe, psadmin.exe and decrypt.exe
B. Prot_srv.exe, p95tray.exe and pstartsr.exe
C. Pssogina.exe, pointsec.exe and p95tray.exe
D. Decrypt.exe, protect.exe and pssogina.exe, pagents.exe

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 How would you uninstall Pointsec from a machine that has not written a recovery file (.rec) and has yet to be encrypted?
A. Use “reco_img.exe” and perform forced removal
B. Create recovery disk using another .rec file
C. Add/remove programs
D. None of the above Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Typically, how long does it take Pointsec to encrypt 10 GB (No SATA)?

A. One hour
B. More than 30 hours
C. Depends how much data is on the drive
D. 20 Minutes

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 What is the maximum number of UNC paths to recovery file storage that you can specify in a profile?
A. Unlimited
B. Two
C. Four
D. Five (includning the temp searchpath in the installation profile) Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which Microsoft file does Pointsec chain when Pointsec Single Sign On is enabled?

A. Msso.dll
B. Ssogina.dll
C. MicroSSO.dll
D. MSGina.dll

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Up to how many partitions can Pointsec encrypt on one standard hard disk?

A. 8
B. 4
C. 12
D. 3

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 When creating an image using software such as Ghost, at what point is Pointsec installed when creating the image?
A. As the last application before imaging
B. As the first application
C. At anytime as long as the machine is rebooted first
D. Pointsec can not be installed in an image

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which method cannot be applied when be authenticating by Pointsec?

A. Fixed Password
B. Biometric Readers
C. Dynamic Challenge and Response Tokens (X9.9)
D. Smart Cards

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which is the most common reason for encryption not starting after Pointsec has been installed?

A. Path not found to write recovery file
B. Invalid user name
C. Incompatibility with the Windows operating system
D. Passwords not synchronized with the central server

Correct Answer: A