Index

Exam A
QUESTION 1
You want to create a light that can be animated along 3D axes but will still keep focus on a specific scene location while animating.
What should you do?
A. choose Light Settings dialog > Light Type: Spot
B. choose Light Settings dialog > Light Type: Parallel
C. choose Layer > Transform >Auto-Orient > Orient Along Path
D. choose Layer > Transform > Auto-Orient > Orient Towards Point of Interest

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
You want to move a camera along a single axis without moving the Point of Interest. What should you do?
A. hold down the Shift key while dragging the axis
B. hold down the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key while dragging the axis
C. hold down the Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) key while dragging the axis
D. hold down the Alt (Windows) + Shift key (Windows) or Option + Shift key (Mac OS) key while dragging the axis

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Which statement describes how 3D layers are rendered?
A. 3D layers render layer orientation properties first.
B. 3D layers are rendered according to their z depth value.
C. 3D layers are rendered according to their timeline stacking order.
D. 3D layers are rendered according to the Composition Settings > Rendering Plug-In setting.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which statement about using After Effects OpenGL previewing is true?
A. Layers are limited to 2,000 by 2,000 pixels.
B. OpenGL supports all After Effects blending modes.
C. OpenGL previews are created by using Adaptive Resolution previewing.
D. OpenGL previews are limited only by the amount of installed RAM on the system.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
You have placed an effect on a 3D layer that has Continuously Rasterize enabled. The layer will NOT show the effect when casting shadows. What should you do?
A. choose Layer > Pre-compose
B. choose Layer > Preserve Transparency
C. choose Effect > 3D Channel > Depth Matte
D. choose Effect > 3D Channel > 3D Channel Extract

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
You want to slice an image that contains 3D channel information along its z depth values. Which 3D Channel effect should you use?
A. ID Matte
B. Depth Matte
C. Depth of Field
D. 3D Channel Extract

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
You have selected multiple layers in a composition.
What happens when you choose Animation > Keyframe Assistant > Sequence Layers?

A. All selected layers are moved from their original time positions.
B. The top layer selected in the Timeline window maintains its original time position.
C. The first layer you select in the Timeline window maintains its original time position.
D. The bottom layer selected in the Timeline window maintains its original time position.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
What happens to the position of layers within a composition when you resize a 320 x 240 composition to 640 x 480?
A. The layers do NOT move.
B. The layers shift according to the anchor setting.
C. The layers shift to the upper-left corner of the composition.
D. The layers shift to the lower-right corner of the composition.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
You have defined a region of interest in the Composition window. You want to redefine the region of interest. What should you do?
A. choose View > Look At All Layers
B. choose Composition > Trim Comp to Work Area
C. drag the Region of Interest button into the Composition window and drag the Marquee tool
D. Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) click the Region of Interest button, then drag the marquee in the Composition window

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
Click the Exhibit button.
The motion path depicted in the exhibit is _____ from A to B and _____ from B to C.
A. faster going; slower
B. slower going; faster
C. accelerating; decelerating
D. decelerating; accelerating

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which command should you use to remove a defined area of footage from the Timeline window and perform a ripple deletion?
A. Edit > Cut
B. Edit > Time Stretch
C. Edit > Lift Work Area
D. Edit > Extract Work Area

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
You want to attach a banner to a moving rectangular area in video footage while simulating 3D. How should you track the motion?
A. Rotation
B. Rotation and Position
C. Affine Corner Pinning
D. Perspective Corner Pinning
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which defines the area in the footage to be tracked when using the Motion Tracking feature?
A. track point
B. attach point
C. search region
D. feature region

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
You have added additional track points to motion footage by using the New Track Point option in the Tracker Controls palette options menu. Which feature or command can make use of the additional Track Point data?
A. expressions
B. Track Type > Stabilize
C. Track Type > Perspective corner pin
D. position keyframes set by the Track Motion button

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which effects can you apply to a tracked location using the Motion Tracker?
A. keying effects
B. effects with rotation properties
C. effects with position properties
D. effects with text or number properties

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Which tool should you use to draw a freeform path that will be used as a mask on footage?
A. Pen
B. Brush
C. Ellipse
D. Rectangle

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which is an example of a non-drop-frame timecode?
A. 00072
B. 0007+2
C. 4:15:14:07
D. 4;15;14;04

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
You are using Adobe After Effects on the Mac OS. You want to increase the number of frames played back in RAM preview. What should you do?
A. set the Cache mode to Favor Speed
B. set the Cache mode to Favor Memory
C. increase the Image Cache Size value
D. decrease the Image Cache Size value

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
Which is the default setting for levels in the Audio palette?
A. -96 dB
B. 0 dB
C. 100 dB
D. 120 dB

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which After Effects preview option uses the first frame encountered during previewing as a proxy during previews?
A. Wireframe
B. Adaptive Resolution
C. OpenGL with Static Textures
D. OpenGL with Moving Textures

Correct Answer: C

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which layer parameter can be saved when creating a Layer Comp?
A. layer styles
B. layer opacity
C. layer stacking order
D. layer blending mode

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Which items are saved as part of a workspace?
A. tool settings and palette positions
B. tool settings and keyboard shortcuts
C. palette positions and keyboard shortcuts
D. the positions of all open palettes and the toolbox

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Which parameter can you monitor in the Status Bar?
A. the name of the active layer
B. the document’s color profile
C. the name of the active document
D. the document’s modification date

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
You want to paint a layer by using the Brush tool with an opacity setting of 50%. Where do you change the opacity setting?
A. Status Bar
B. Layer palette
C. Brushes palette
D. Tool Options Bar

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
You have created several custom contours for Drop Shadow effects. You want to save the custom contours as a set while maintaining the default contours.
What should you do?
A. from the Styles palette menu, choose Save Styles
B. from the Layer palette menu, choose New Layer Set
C. in the Preset Manager dialog box, select the contours and click on Save Set
D. whileediting contours in the Layer Style dialog box, choose Save Contours from the fly-out menu.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Exhibit.

Which Character palette option controls kerning?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
You have selected the Type tool. You want to create a new type layer overlapping a previous one. What should you do?
A. double click with the Type tool
B. hold down the Shift key as you click with the Type tool
C. holddown the Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows) key as you click with the Type tool.
D. Hold down the Command (Mac OS) or Ctrl (Windows) key as you click withtheTypetool.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Exhibit.

You have created type on a path. You want to move the type along the path. Which tool (s) should you sue to drag the type?
A. Move tool
B. Path Type tool
C. Horizontal or Vertical Type tool
D. Path Selection or Direct Selection tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Exhibit.

In the exhibit, what does the icon on the left indicate?
A. that the action is currently being recorded
B. that all the steps in the action offer the user a dialog box
C. that one or more, but not all, steps in the action offer the user a dialog box
D. that the action is currently paused in playback, waiting for a response from the user

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
You are applying an action to a group of images using the Batch command. The action contains a SaveAs TIFF command, with specific options chosen. You want the processed files to be saved with those options, but to be renamed.
Which two options in the Batch dialog box should you choose? (Choose two.)
A. Batch Rename
B. Destination: Folder
C. Include All Subfolders
D. Destination: Save and Close
E. Override Action “Save As” Commands

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 11
You are recording an action. During its playback, you want an image’s magnification to be adjusted to fit the image on screen.
What should you do?
A. choose View > Fit on Screen
B. when you get to the point for the magnification change, choose View > Fit on Screen
C. use the Insert Menu Item command from the Action palette menu, then choose View > Actual Pixels
D. Use the Insert Menu Item command from the Action palette menu, then choose View > Fit on Screen

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Exhibit.

The three images in the exhibit were scanned together. You apply the File>Automate>Crop and Straighten Photos command.
What is the result?
A. A separate layer is created for each image, excluding the white border, and each is rotated to correct for its crookedness.
B. A separate layer is created for each image, including some white border, and each is rotated to correct for its crookedness.
C. A separate document is created for each image, excluding the white border, and each is rotated to correct for its crookedness.
D. A separate document is created for each image, including some white border, and each is rotated to correct for its crookedness.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
You want to modify the tonal range of an image without permanently affecting the pixels. What should you do?
A. use Variations
B. use Auto Levels
C. use a layer style
D. use an adjustment layer

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What would you most likely need to do afterresamplinga 20 megabyte image to 100 kilobytes using BicubicInterpolation?
A. Blur
B. Sharpen
C. Add Noise
D. Auto Levels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which option in the Auto Color Correction Options dialog box preserves the overall color relationship while making highlights appear lighter and shadows appear darker?
A. Snap NeutralMidtones
B. Find Dark & Light Colors
C. Enhance Per Channel Contrast
D. Enhance Monochromatic Contrast

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You are trying to lighten only the darkest shadows in an image by choosing Image > Adjustments > Shadow/Highlight. You notice that lighter areas are being affected as well.
What should you do?
A. increase the Radius setting
B. decrease the Radius setting
C. increase the Tonal Width setting
D. decrease the Tonal Width setting

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
You are working in the Levels dialog box. The pixels in the image cover a range from 0-220. You want to increase the contrast in the highlight areas of the image.
What should you do?
A. increase the value for the black Input Level
B. decrease the value for the white Input Level
C. increase the value for the black Output Level
D. decrease the value for the white Output Level

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
You are using the Shadow/Highlight command to correct an underexposed image. Which value determines the scale size for corrections?
A. Radius
B. Amount
C. Tonal Width
D. MidtoneContrast

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
An overexposed photograph has nearly no detail in its highlights, but otherwise has acceptable tonal balance.
Which option from the Image > Adjustments menu should you use to reveal the details in the highlights?
A. Gradient Map
B. Channel Mixer
C. Shadow/Highlight
D. Brightness/Contrast

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
You want to crate a diagonal elliptical marquee. What should you do?
A. hold down the spacebar and rotate the marquee while dragging with the Elliptical Marquee tool
B. create a marquee with the Elliptical Marquee tool, then rotate it by choosing Edit > Free Transform
C. create a marquee with the Elliptical Marquee tool, then rotate it by choosing Select > Transform Selection
D. While dragging with the Elliptical Marquee tool, hold down Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) and rotate the marquee

Correct Answer: C

Exam A QUESTION 1
You select an area of an image by using the magic wand tool. Which statement is true?
A. The magic wand tool can be used in any mode.
B. To add to a selection, hold down the Shift key and click in an unselected area.
C. To select all pixels using the same colors, select Contiguous from the options bar.
D. To select colors very similar to the pixel you selected, enter a high value for tolerance.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
You want to create a selection by using the Elliptical Marquee tool. Which key should you press to reposition the marquee while still drawing it?
A. A
B. Shift
C. Spacebar
D. Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Exhibit

You have selected an area of an image with the rectangular marquee tool. You want to remove a portion of the selection by using the same tool. Which icon should you click to subtract from a selection?
A. Icon A
B. Icon B
C. Icon C
D. Icon D

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
You have made a selection around a circular area in an image by using the Elliptical Marquee tool. You want only the perimeter of the circle to be selected.
Which command should you use?
A. choose Select > Similar
B. choose Select > Inverse
C. choose Select > Modify > Border
D. Choose Select > Transform Selection

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
You want to round the corners of a rectangular marquee you have made without affecting the selection’s edge. What should you do?
A. choose Select > Feather
B. choose Select > Modify > Border
C. choose Select > Modify > Smooth
D. enter a value for Feather in the tool options bar and press Enter

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which feature requires that type be rasterized before it is applied?
A. filters
B. warps
C. styles
D. pattern overlays

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
You scan an image and do NOT select any image sharpening options in your scanner software. You
notice the appearance of a lot of film grain in the image. You want to sharpen the image without increasing
the apparent graininess of the image.
Which Unsharp Mask option should you use?

A. Amount
B. Radius
C. Threshold
D. Smoothness

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
You want to repair an area of an image by using another area of the image as patch. You select the Patch
tool.
Which two tasks should you complete? (Choose two.)

A. select Source n the options bar
B. select Destination in the options bar
C. crate a selection of the area from which to sample, then click Use Pattern in the options bar
D. create a selection around the area you want to repair; then drag the marquee to the area from which to sample
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
You want to distort a layer in your document by using the Liquify command. You also want to apply the identical distortion to another layer in the document. What should you do?
A. in the Liquify dialog box, check Backdrop and select the other layer to be distorted at 100% opacity
B. choose filter>Liquify and aaply distortion to the first layer; select the other layer and use the History Brush tool to paint the distortion from the previous step
C. choose Filter>Liquify and apply a distortion to the first layer; select the other layer and press Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) + F to apply the same Liquify filter distortion
D. choose Filter>Liquify and create the distortion; then click save Mesh in the Liquify dialog box; select the other layer, choose Filter>Liquify; then click load Mesh choosing the saved mesh file

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
You want to repair an image with a large, irregular stain. What should you do?
A. select a large brush and paint in Overlay mode
B. select an undamaged area and drag it over the stain
C. select a large brush and remove the stain by using the Clone Stamp tool
D. select the stain by using the Patch tool and drag it over an undamaged area

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
You are creating a JPEG file for use on a Web page. When you preview the image in a Web browser, it is so large that it must be viewed by scrolling. You want users to be able to view the image without scrolling. What should you do?
A. increase the resolution of the monitor until the image fits on your screen
B. decrease the resolution of the monitor until the image fits on your screen
C. select Resample Image from the Image Size dialog box, and enter a larger value for Resolution
D. select Resample Image from the Image Size dialog box, and enter a smaller value for resolution

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which is an advantage of vector graphics?
A. They are scalable and resolution independent.
B. They are able to represent continuous-tone images.
C. Filters can be repeatedly applied to them without degradation.
D. Image adjustments can be repeatedly applied to them without degradation.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
You want to use Levels to edit the color in an image without affecting the gray values or contrast. Which color mode should you use?
A. Lab
B. RGB
C. CMYK
D. Indexed
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
You are saving a file with several layers that have styles applied. Which file format preservers the layer and style data?
A. PNG
B. PICT File
C. Photoshop EPS
D. Photoshop PDF

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
You want to make a selection of an object in an image. You have identified the channel with the most
contrast between the object and its background. You want to create a selection for the object using this
channel.
What should you do?

A. load the channel as a selection and then edit
B. load the channel as a selection and convert to a Layer Mask
C. duplicate the channel, increase the contrast, and load it as a selection
D. increase the contrast of the channel with Levels and load it as a selection

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
When should you add an alpha channel to a document?
A. to apply a filter
B. to save a selection
C. to apply a bevel effect to a layer
D. to create areas of reduced saturation in a document

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
You want to edit a selection by using painting tools and creating a temporary mask. What should you do?
A. press M on the keyboard
B. press Q on the keyboard
C. choose Load Selection from the Select menu
D. click the Add Mask button at the bottom of the Layers palette f

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
You are editing a portrait of a person. You need to mask away the background and apply some
transparency; to the person’s hair.
Which masking method should you use?

A. make a selection and use Quick Mask to edit the edges
B. isolate the person with a Vector Mask and edit the paths
C. make a selection and use a Layer Mask to edit the edges
D. choose Filter>Extract, highlight the hair, and fill the background

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
You need to mask a layer on an image that will be scaled. You want to assure that the edges are as sharp
as possible.
What should you do?

A. make a selection and convert it to a Layer Mask
B. add a Vector Mask and create the shape with paths
C. deselect Anti-Aliasing and convert a selection into an Alpha channel
D. click the Quick Mask mode button and paint with a hard-edged brush

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
In the Levels dialog box, what does Option-dragging (Mac OS) or Alt-dragging (Window) the Input Sliders accomplish?
A. It sets the amount of clipping.
B. It resets the values in the dialog box.
C. It sets the black and white points in the image.
D. It displays the lightest and darkest areas in the image.

Correct Answer: D

Exam A QUESTION 1
Which is necessary to create new data and markup text that will be inserted into an XML or SGML document when a structured FrameMaker document is exported?
A. a read/write rule file
B. an SGML or XML application
C. a special version of FrameMaker
D. an API client created with the FDK

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which part of the structured FrameMaker application controls how long SGML and FrameMaker element names can be by default?
A. EDD
B. DTD
C. SGML declaration file
D. CSS formatting sheet

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
In the application definition file, what is the first required child element needed in the SGML or XML application?
A. Doctype
B. Template
C. ReadWriteRules
D. ApplicationName

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
How many read/write rules documents can be referenced in a single structured FrameMaker application?
A. one, as a child of the SGMLApplication element or XMLApplication element
B. none, since read/write rules are not referenced in structured FrameMaker applications
C. an unlimited number as long as each one is a reference to a different read/write rules document
D. an unlimited number as long as each one is in referenced with a separate ReadWriteRules element

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Which command should you use to update the EDD of a structured FrameMaker document with a DTD?
A. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > New EDD
B. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > Open DTD
C. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > Import DTD
D. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > Save As DTD

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
In which three file formats can Adobe FrameMaker files be saved? (Choose three.)
A. TXT
B. IAF
C. PDF
D. EPS
E. HTML
F. PM65

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 7
You need to rename a file in your book. You are accessing the file on your local hard disk. You want to ensure that all cross-references from other chapters to the file are maintained. What should you do?
A. rename the file from the book window
B. open the file and choose File > Save As
C. rename the file from the operating system
D. delete the file from the book, rename the file from the operating system, and add the file with the new name back to the book

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You are creating a document that will need to be localized and printed on different paper sizes. The document contains cross-references, variables, and conditional text. What should you do?
A. create separate layers
B. create separate text flows
C. create separate templates
D. create separate master pages

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
You plan to import EPS graphics into your FrameMaker document. You want to ensure that the graphic can be viewed in FrameMaker, regardless of which platform you are using. You want to be able to preview the image. Which format should you use?
A. GIF
B. WMF
C. PICT
D. TIFF

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
You are using WebDAV to manage your files. You want to modify a file while preventing other users from overwriting your work. Which command from the Workgroup menu should you use to access the file?
A. Open
B. Import
C. Check Out
D. Get File from Server

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
You are importing a Microsoft Word file. The file was created by using a template with the same format names as those used in FrameMaker. Which option from the Import Text Flow by References dialog box should you choose so that the text will use the formatting in the FrameMaker document?
A. Reformat as Plain Text
B. Retain Source’s Formatting
C. While Importing, Remove Other Overrides
D. Reformat Using Current Document’s Catalogs

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which statement about books is true?
A. A FrameMaker document can be included in any number of books.
B. A FrameMaker document can ONLY be included in one book at a time.
C. When a FrameMaker file is added to a book, the Table of Contents updates immediately.
D. When added to a book, the content of a FrameMaker document is copied into the book file.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
You want to print the page number at the bottom of every page in your document. On the master pages, what should you do?
A. insert a Page Count variable in a template text frame
B. insert a Page Count variable in a background text frame
C. insert a Current Page # variable in a template text frame
D. insert a Current Page # variable in a background text frame

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
You want to create a character tag that changes the text to italic and blue.
The character tag will be used in a number of paragraph tags with different fonts and point sizes. What should you do?
A. leave blank all settings except Color and Style
B. set everything except Color and Angle to “As Is”
C. create one tag for italic and one for blue and apply both
D. create separate character tags for each font and point size

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which statement about reference frames is true?
A. They can be used in the margins of any page.
B. They can be used to the left or right of a paragraph.
C. They can only be used above or below a paragraph.
D. They can be used above, below, or to the left or right of a paragraph.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
In the Paragraph Designer, how do you increase the space between words WITHOUT affecting the space between characters?
A. increase the value for spread
B. increase the value for stretch
C. increase the values for word spacing and select Allow Automatic Letter Spacing
D. increase values for word spacing but do NOT select Allow Automatic Letter Spacing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
When creating a cross-reference format, which building block should you use to print only the information contained in the building blocks of the Autonumber property of the source paragraph?
A. <$pagenum>
B. <$paranum>
C. <$paratext>
D. <$paranumonly>

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
When creating a table format, which setting allows you to determine how many rows must be together at the top or bottom of a column or page?
A. Straddle
B. Keep with
C. Row Format
D. Orphan Rows

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
Click the Exhibit button.
Which pair of autonumbering formats can you use to create the autonumbered list shown in the exhibit?
A. <n+>.\\t and Figure <A+>:\\t
B. N:<n+>.\\t and N:Figure <A+>:\\t
C. N:<n+>.\\t and F:Figure <A+>:\\t
D. F:<n+>.\\t and F:Figure <A+>:\\t

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
You have created a master page mapping table to associate a master page with a paragraph tag. How do you instruct FrameMaker to use this feature?
A. choose Format > Page Layout > Master Page Usage
B. choose Format > Page Layout > Apply Master Pages
C. choose Format > Page Layout > Reorder Master Pages
D. choose Format > Page Layout > Update Column Layout

Correct Answer: B

Exam A
QUESTION 1
If you are working in a two-layer document, how should you make the top layer display only where it overlaps the content of the low layer.
A. link the layers
B. make a clipping group
C. link the layers and select Merge Linked
D. turn Preserve Transparency for the top layer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which command converts a selection into a new layer?
A. Copy Merged
B. Layer Via Copy
C. New Adjustment Layer
D. Layer from Background

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Exhibit:

You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 4
You want to make certain areas of a completely opaque layer partially transparent. You have added a new layer mask. What should you do?
A. paint with black
B. paint with a shade of gray
C. change the opacity of the layer
D. change the opacity of the layer mask

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Exhibit:

You have clicked the Lock image pixels checkbox in the Layers palette. Which action are you PREVENTED from doing?
A. changing the blending mode
B. changing the shape of the clipping path
C. using the painting tool to modify the layer mask
D. using the history brush to paint back form an earlier state

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Exhibit:

You create a type layer and a fill layer with a pattern. You want the type to act as a mask so that the pattern appears only where there is type on the type layer. What should you do?
A. position the type layer above the fill layer: with the type layer active, choose Layer>Merge Down
B. position the type layer below the fill layer: with the fill layer active, choose Layer>Merge Down
C. position the type layer below the fill layer, with the fill layer active, choose Layer>Group with Previous
D. position the type flayer above the fill layer, with the type layer active, choose Layer>Group with Previous

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What are two methods to create custom layer styles? (Choose two.)
A. choose the Layer Properties dialog box
B. choose Layer>Layer Style>Copy Layer Style
C. select New Style in the Layer Styles dialog box
D. select the Create New Style button on the Style Palette

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8
Which command or tool effects all linked layers?
A. Paintbrush
B. Distort Filter
C. Free Transform
D. Levels Adjustment

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
You have created an action that you want to run on a folder of images. Which destination option within the Batch command saves the files to a new location and leaves the originals untouched?
A. None
B. Folder
C. Import
D. Save and Close

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
You are working in a layered Photoshop document. You add an adjustment layer. Which layer will be affected by the adjustment layer?
A. layers above the adjustment layer
B. layer below the adjustment layer
C. only layers included in the same layer set
D. only layers linked with the adjustment layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You want to randomly display 7% of the pixels on a layer. What should you do?
A. set the layer opacity to 7% and the layer’s blending mode to Dissolve
B. set the layer opacity to 7% and the layer’s blending mode to Difference
C. apply the Pointillize file then choose the Fade command with 7% opacity
D. apply the Fragment filter then choose the Fade command with 7% opacity

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which format supports layers in Adobe Photoshop?
A. JPG
B. TIFF
C. PICT
D. EPS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
You are making selection by using the elliptical marquee. The value for Feather is set 10 pixels. When would you see the effect of the feathering option?
A. When you deselect
B. When you choose Select>Feather
C. When you move the selected pixels
D. As soon as you finish making the selection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which blending mode should you use to create a drop shadow?
A. Multiply
B. Dissolve
C. Difference
D. Color Burn

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
When creating animations in Adobe ImageReady, what does the Tween feature do?
A. It specifies looping for playback.
B. It specifies repeat options for playback.
C. It adds a series of layers between existing layers.
D. It adds a series of frames between existing frames.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
You make a selection with the polygon lasso tool. When a color fill is applied, the edg appears rough. Which tool option should have been selected to soften the selection edg.
A. Blur
B. Border
C. Smooth
D. Anti-Alised

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
A layer contains a shape filled with a solid color. You want to fill the shape with a gradient. What should you do?
A. select the shape layer and choose a gradient from the Swatches palette.
B. Select the gradient tool from the toolbox: select a gradient from the options bar, and drag the gradient tool across the shape
C. Select the shape layer; click the Layer Style button on the Layers palette and select Gradient Overly; choose a gradient and click OK
D. Select the shape layer; click the New Adjustment Layer button on the Layers palette and select Gradient Map: choose a gradient and click OK

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
What is the most efficient method to isolate a complex object form is background?
A. create a layer mask
B. create an alpha channel
C. use the Extract Image command
D. use the lasso tool to create a selection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
You make a selection by using the magnetic lasso tool you want modify the selection. Which tool or tools can you use to modify the selection?
A. any selection tool
B. only the magnetic lasso
C. lasso, magnetic lasso or polygonal lasso
D. any selection tool except the magic wand

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
Which file format supports spot color channel?
A. PICT
B. JPEG
C. Gif89a
D. DCS 2.0

Correct Answer: D

Exam A QUESTION 1
The Dial Plan Entries shown below are representative of which type of operation? (Choose One)

A. Timed Route
B. Phantom Mailbox
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Phantom Extension

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Dial Plan operations. Match the Dial plan Operation with the appropriate description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 3
Camp on allows you to queue to transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but not all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Configurable operators gives a caller who is directed to voicemail the option of transferring to another destination, one of two different operators that a user has provisioned. What are these two operators called? ( Choose two.)
A. Personal Operator
B. System Operator
C. User Operator
D. Destination Operator

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 5
The Network Call Processor (NCP) is responsible for setting up communication between endpoints
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which of the following best defines the acronym VPIM (Choose one)
A. Voice profile for internet messaging
B. Vector profile for internet messaging
C. Voice protocol for internet messages
D. Vector protocol for internet messages

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Bridge station Appearance is created via button mappings.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following is true of the V3000 NCP? ( Choose three.)
A. Supports up to 1500 total devices
B. Supports up to 12 Voice Mail Ports
C. Supports up to 48 Virtual Tie Lines
D. Supports up to 8 Virtual Tie Lines
E. Supports up to 200 total devices
F. Supports up to 72 Voice mail ports

Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 9
Which NBX Network Call Processors (NCPs) require a memory upgrade to reach top end device and capacity limits? ( Choose two.)
A. V3000
B. NBX 100
C. V5000
D. V3000 BRI-ST
E. V3001R

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Call
Forward Options. Match the Options with the appropriate descriptions.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 11
What are the two main components of NBX Media Driver? (Choose two.)
A. QSIG
B. IMAP4
C. LEC
D. TAPI
E. WAV

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 12
IMAP4 capability and SMTP capability are included with NBX at no charge and no license is required
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
What are the four Time of Day System Modes which can impact the automated attendants a caller hears and/or other call coverage options (destinations).
A. Open
B. Other
C. After-Hours
D. Lunch
E. Closed
F. Emergency close
G. Holiday

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 14
A NBX System running in SIP Mode can interoperate with any other SIP endpoint, including gateways, devices and SIP enabled applications.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which of the following are not subject to Class of Service settings? (Choose two.)
A. WAN class
B. Long Distance calls
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Emergency 911 Calls
E. System Wide Speed Dials
F. International

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 16
Which of the following are accurate statements concerning Call Detail Reporting (CDR)? ) (Choose three.)
A. Tracks only complete calls
B. Telephone system usage tracked on a per telephone group/per call basis
C. Does not require a license
D. Tracks completed calls and all attempted and/or abandoned calls
E. Telephone System usage tracked on a per user/ per call basis
F. Requires a CDR license
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 17
Which of the following best describes ACD Linear Call Distribution Method?
A. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group unless that extension is busy and then the call will go to the next extension in the group. Incoming calls will progress in sequence always starting with the first extension.
B. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group. The second call will go to the second extension in this group. The third call will go to the third extension in the group and so on. If an extension is busy, the call will go to the next available phone in the group. This method is sometimes referred to as round-robin.
C. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to members of an ACD Group according to the number of calls handled by each agent. The agent who has handled the fewest calls, gets the next call
D. When you employ this call distribution, the NBX system distributes calls to the agent that has been waiting for a call the longest period of time

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following are accurate statements concerning Call Privacy Feature? ( Choose three.)
A. Activated before or during a call
B. Configured via a Feature Code
C. Allows a user to prevent a call from being monitored on a per call basis
D. Configured via Button Mappings
E. Allows the administrator to prevent all calls from being monitored by logging users in and out of feature
F. Can only be activated before a call

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 19
What are the two main components of NBX Media Driver? (Choose two.)
A. QSIG
B. TAPI
C. WAV
D. IMAP4
E. LEC

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 20
Which of the following are recommended tools for troubleshooting and repairing Analog Lines? ( Choose Four.)
A. 599 Punch-Down Tool/Blades
B. Tone Generator
C. Loop Current Tester
D. Cable Splicer’s Knife
E. Flux Capacitor
F. Butt-Set
Correct Answer: BCDF

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 3
Which two are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose two.)
A. Allows users to sign on with a username of “user” and use their voicemail password for access
B. Is found on 3Com’s NBX systems, as well as, licensed 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
C. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.190.
D. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.191.
E. Allows the administrator to sign on with a username of “administrator” and a password of “0000” for access
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only
C. Can be enabled or disabled only for individual telephones
D. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the period of silence
G. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a “silence indicator,”rather than a full packet of “digitized silence”
Correct Answer: DEG
QUESTION 5
How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before forwarding data packets

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which three are prioritization mechanisms used with the NBX Communication Systems? (Choose three.)
A. IP TOS
B. Diff Serv
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. ANSI 96/RS232
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to display a Tab Screen for all of the configuration options for a NBX Communication System?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 8
Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System only

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 9
Click theTask button.
Identify the NBX V5000 System components by dragging the descriptions to the correct location? (Choose Three.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to modify the Business Information and Business Hours on an NBX Communication System?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11
Which two devices are not supported by an NBX Analog Terminal Card (ATC) or Analog Terminal Adapter (ATA)? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX V5000 chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. The NBX Auto Discover Line Cards function can be used to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card can be mapped to one or more telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a NBX power failure
E. By default, when a port is mapped to multiple telephones, calls will ring at the lowest extension first, then to the next extension, until the call is answered
F. In PBX System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card are pooled and allocated by the Call Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to an Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system

Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 13
What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new CoS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which four are characteristics or requirements for NBX Bridge Station Appearance (BSA) assuming only 3102 business phones are used in the customer location? (Choose four.)
A. Maps a primary phone to a secondary phone
B. Only need to configure the primary phone settings
C. Up to 16 extensions can be mapped to a common secondary phone
D. To configure BSA settings select Device Configuration / Telephones then select Button Mappings
E. Either phone can answer a call, as incoming primary-phone calls appear on primary and secondary phone
F. Incoming calls to primary phone are automatically transferred to secondary phone based on time-of-day settings

Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 15
Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
Correct Answer: ACDE QUESTION 16
A manager at extension 3002 has asked you to setup a NBX Communication System to allow an assistant at extension 1010 to filter calls. You have decided the best way to do this is Bridged Station Appearance. You have already setup the primary phones button mappings. Which is the correct extension number to add to the secondary phone Bridged Extension Number Field?
A. 1010
B. 1010-2
C. 3002
D. 3002-2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to create or modify a Hunt Group?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 18
Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define “ring progression” for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 19
Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 20
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to add Auto Attendants or make changes to existing Auto Attendants?

A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:

Exam A
QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 2
Which functionality is transferred from 3Com Access Points (APs) to the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/ Switch, creating Fit APs or Managed Access Points (MAPs) with the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System?
A. Radio frequency (RF) radio, encryption and roaming
B. Encryption, roaming and security policy
C. Authentication, roaming and security policy
D. Encryption, authentication, roaming and security policy
E. Encryption, authentication and security policy

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which three steps are required to configure a non-encrypted 3Com Wireless Distribution System? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure all access points (APs) are configured for Managed Access Point (MAP) mode
B. Copy the access points (APs) to the Wireless Distribution System (WDS) configuration
C. Configure the access points (APs) for bridge mode
D. Assign each access point (AP) the same IP address
E. Configure the access points (APs) for group mode
F. Assign each access point (AP) the same Service Set ID (SSID) and radio channels

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Arrange the steps to connect to a Wireless Network in Windows XP.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
What can the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) do when it discovers a wireless rogue device?
A. Flood the access point (AP), causing a Denial of Service (DoS) condition
B. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to a Syslog server
C. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to the management software, which blocks future packets from the device
D. Deactivate the access point (AP) and send a message to the network management software

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag each 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System product to the set of features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
What is a key alignment issue when installing an outdoor Wireless LAN (WLAN) panel antenna?
A. Identical vertical and/or horizontal polarization
B. Fresnel zone obstructions
C. Acknowledgement delay timeout (ACK) setting
D. Length of the antenna cable from the wireless bridge

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which describes the 3Com Receiver Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) access point (AP) implementation?
A. AP displays its own signal strength and quality as a percentage value
B. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength and quality as a value from 0 to 255
C. AP displays its own signal strength as a value from 0 to 255
D. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength as a percentage value
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP Drag the 3Com product you would use for each location (A, B and C) to complete the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System solution.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 11
The network administrator can draw or import a JPEG or AutoCAD building floor plan using the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which three are features of 3Com Dynamic Security Link? (Choose three.)
A. Local and remote access point (AP) authentication and encryption support
B. Per user, per session dynamic key encryption
C. Internal database supporting up to 1,000 user names and passwords
D. 40-, 128- and 168-bit shared key encryption support
E. Superior wireless security for networks without a centralized authentication server

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 13
The 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point 8xx0 family supports a single Virtual Access Point (VAP) per RF radio installed in the unit.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
You have installed the 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless PC Card with XJACK Antenna card its software. What is the next step required in the PC Card installation before you can access the Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, select the PC Card icon, click “Enable,” then choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
B. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, create a new profile, choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
C. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, click “Discover” and from the discovered-list choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
D. Using Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM), choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 16
Every mobility domain should have a minimum of two seed switches assigned one main and one backup.
A. False B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which three are benefits of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System? (Choose three.)
A. Automates access point (AP) management, i.e., adjusts traffic loads, optimizes AP power, changes AP channel assignments
B. Provides centralized management for wireless controllers/switches and Managed Access Points
C. Enhances user and group security with security profiles
D. Improves throughput of critical data with multiple priority queues and queuing algorithms on each wireless controller/switch
E. Eliminates the need to install access points (APs) throughout the building

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 18
All 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 54 Mbps 11g PC Cards support 108 Mbps data rate in Turbo mode.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
DRAG DROP Match each 3Com wireless component with its description. Exhibit: 600-c-45.JPG

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 20
Which three types of wireless devices may be detected as rogues by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)? (Choose three.)
A. Unauthorized 3Com access point (AP)
B. Unauthorized 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. Wireless NIC running in ad-hoc mode
D. Unauthorized third-party access point
E. Authorized wireless NIC

Correct Answer: ACD

Exam A
QUESTION 1
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which term does not describe or refer to a frame relay function or parameter?
A. DE
B. CIR
C. DLCI
D. IPCP
E. FECN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

Click the Exhibit button. In the diagram, which additional router command is needed to correctly configure CHAP?

A. LCP Chap
B. Chap enable
C. ppp chap user RTA
D. ppp chap user RTA
E. ppp authentication-mode chap
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 10
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button. In the configuration example, which command is needed to complete the GRE configuration?

A. ike peer RTB
B. ike peer RTA
C. set mode ip_tunnel
D. set mode ip_tunnel
E. destination 1.1.1.1
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13
What is the IPSEC security feature that can detect an illegal change to a packet’s content referred to as?
A. 3DES
B. Anti-replay
C. Data integrity
D. Data confidentiality
E. Data authentication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 15
What Class D IP address range is reserved for Multicast packets?
A. 224.0.0.0 through 239.0.0.0
B. 222.0.0.0 through 224.255.255.255
C. 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255
D. 224.255.255.255 through 239.255.255.255
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
What is a standard way to group users for audio/video applications without overwhelming network bandwidth?
A. IP Unicasting
B. IP Multicasting
C. IP Broadcasting
D. Link Aggregation
E. Spanning Tree Protocol
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which three are characteristics of xDSL technology? (Choose three.)
A. It can transfer data at speeds up to 30 Mbps
B. It converts existing twisted pair telephone lines into high-speed data paths
C. It simultaneously provides high-speed data and Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
D. It uses the same packet/frame format as Ethernet, which makes it ideal for LAN to WAN access
E. The speed of an xDSL service depends on the thickness of copper wire and the distance from the telco Central Office (CO)
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 19
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which three are important Router ID considerations when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. The Router ID must be unique in a network
B. By default, the Router ID is the first IP address configured on a router
C. The Router ID is a 24-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
D. The Router ID is a 32-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
E. The Router ID is always the number ?9?that identifies the routing protocol as OSPF

Correct Answer: ABD

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
True or False: The RPU2 can support a daughter card.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following Network Management applications does NOT support the Router 5000/6000?
A. Enterprise Management Suite
B. 3Com Network Director Firewall
C. Router Manager
D. Switch Manager

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
The default baud rate for the Router 6040 is 9600 bps. What are the other settings?
A. 7 data bits, 2 stop bits, Even Parity
B. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, Even Parity
C. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, No Parity
D. 8 data bits, 0 stop bits, No Parity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
At which prompt will you receive an error if you entered the command Interface Serial 0/0?
A. <Router>
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which command will reset the router to factory defaults?
A. undo start
B. reset start
C. reset to factory
D. reset saved-configuration

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which interface/command shows the correct syntax to configure an IP address on a serial interface of the router 5012 on slot 1 port 0?
A. ip interface10.1.3.1 24
B. ip address 10.1.3.1 24
C. ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements is true about Router 5000/6000 series routers, with regard to TFTP?
A. They can be TFTP clients only
B. They can be TFTP servers only
C. They can be either TFTP clients or TFTP Servers
D. They do not support TFTP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
True or False, The Router 6000 series routers have boot code and main code to upgrade while the 5000 Series Routers only have main code to upgrade.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
In a Router 5012, which command lists the files in a directory?
A. ls
B. dir
C. show list
D. display directory

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
In the command delete /unreserved name2.bin What does /unreserved specify
A. to hide the file so that it looks deleted
B. to store the file in the recycle bin after deleting
C. to delete the file and not add it to the recycle bin
D. to perform the command immediately and not to queue the operation

Correct Answer: C

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