Index

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which file system command displays the directory entries on a 3Com switch?
A. dir /all
B. cd dir /all
C. display dir
D. display dir /all
E. dir display /all
F. mkdir display /all

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the RIP View command network network_address?
A. Enables RIP on all switches with this network address
B. Enables RIP on the switch that is configured with this IP address
C. Displays all RIP routes associated with this network address or with a subnet of this address
D. Enables RIP on all interfaces that are configured with this network address or with a subnet of this address

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two are Super-VLAN configuration requirements/limitations on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Up to 64 ports can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
B. Up to 64 Sub-VLANs can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
C. ARP, VRRP and DHCP are not supported on Super-VLANs
D. Sub-VLANs terminate at a router and are isolated at Layer 3
E. Super-VLANs are assigned an IP address; Sub-VLANs may not be assigned an IP address

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4
Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?
A. Switch 5500-EI
B. Switch 5500-SI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the result of the command boot boot-loader file-url?
A. Reboots the switch using the file-url for the operational code
B. Updates the switch BootROM with the file-url on the system flash
C. Reboots the switch fabric only using the file-url for the operational code
D. Specifies the switch to use file-url for the operational code on the next boot
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Click on the exhibit button.
Which Switch 7700 command shows all the hardware and software information on the modules (review the output shown in the exhibit)?

A. display device
B. display version
C. display interfaces
D. display current-configuration

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
Click on the exhibit button.
What can be determined from the output of the display ip routing-table (based on the IP routing-table information shown in the exhibit)?

A. The default route is 200.0.0.1
B. Switch interface 1.0.0.2 is connected to network 1.0.0.0/24
C. VLAN-interface3 has two IP networks configured on the single switch
D. The most desired paths for forwarding packets are IP network 25.0.0.0 and 30.0.0.0

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which two methods can be used for day-to-day copying of switch configuration and software files on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose two.)
A. USB port with a flash drive
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
C. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
Which Switch 5500 command would display the status of the front panel Ethernet port #13 on switch unit #2?
A. display interface e 2/13
B. display interface e 2/0/13
C. display interface e 2/1/13
D. display interface e 13/0/2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the reason to connect the p port on the bottom Switch 5500 in the stack to the down port of the top Switch 5500 in the same stack?
A. Reliability – creates a resilient topology
B. Security – prevents an unauthorized user from connecting to the switch stack
C. Performance – creates the 48-Gbps eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric
D. Management – enables Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR) on the Switch 5500-SI

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Click on the exhibit button.
Why is it important to enable Interface Tracking for VRRP routers (based on the VRRP diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. If a link failure occurs, the path to the virtual gateway will be blocked
B. If a link failure occurs, it takes longer for the VRRP routers to reconfigure the virtual gateway path
C. If a link failure occurs, the master router can configure a new physical link to the virtual gateway
D. If a link failure occurs, a less efficient network path may be used to forward packets to the Internet or connectivity to the Internet may be lost altogether

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Click on the exhibit button.
How many OSPF areas are configured on the Switch 8800 (Router ID 1.1.1.1) (based on the set of OSPF commands and diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Click on the exhibit button.
Which IP static route command would configure Switch A with a path to Host C (based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. ip route-static 1.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.1.2
B. ip route-static 1.1.3.2 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
C. ip route-static 1.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
D. ip route-static 1.1.5.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What does a slow (once per second) flashing RUN LED indicate on the Switch 7700 Fabric I/O module?
A. The fabric module is faulty
B. The fabric module is running normally
C. The fabric module is faulty or out of position
D. The fabric module is booting or has not registered successfully

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
What is the result of configuring a switch port that permits traffic from all Virtual LANs (VLANs), i.e., configured as a Trunk Port?
A. All VLANs will be tagged
B. All VLANs will be untagged
C. VLAN 1 will be tagged; all other VLANs will be untagged
D. VLAN 1 will be untagged; all other VLANs will be tagged

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which two multicast protocols cannot be enabled on the Switch 5500/7700/8800, if IGMP snooping is enabled on the VLAN interface? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP
B. PIM-DM/PIM-SM
C. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF)
D. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 17
How do you configure Ethernet ports on the Switch 5500/7700/8800 families?
A. Use the thernet command to enter the Ethernet Port View
B. Use the Portview command to enter the Ethernet Port View
C. Use the Interface command to enter the Ethernet Port View
D. Use the Configure command to enter the Ethernet Port View

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
How would you stop a specific port interface, which has no router attached, from sending and receiving RIP updates?
A. From the interface view, issue the ndo network command
B. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip work command
C. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip input command
D. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip output command

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
You have already configured and enabled individual switch ports for IEEE 802.1X Network Login. What is required for authentication to be activated on the ports?
A. From the System View, enable 802.1X Network Login
B. From the Ethernet Port View, set the port access control mode
C. From the System View, configure the authentication method for 802.1X users
D. From the Ethernet Port View, configure the authentication method, i.e., chap, pap, eap, etc.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Protocol Independent Multicast – Sparse Mode (PIM-SM) only delivers multicast traffic to network segments with active receivers that have explicitly requested the data.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which best defines the mechanism of IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A. An authenticator requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network and validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
B. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authenticator enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authentication server validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
C. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authenticator validates the supplicant on behalf of the authentication server

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
How would you configure the Switch 5500/7700/8000 to ensure DHCP clients can communicate with the DHCP server, regardless of which network the client and server reside on?
A. Configure the switch for UDP Helper
B. Configure the switch for DHCP Relay
C. Configure all the switches as DHCP servers
D. Configure both the DHCP master and DHCP slave

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which best describes the result of the command 5500-EI-Ethernet1/0/1]traffic-priority inbound ip-group 3010 cos video where video is defined at priority 5 in the IEEE 8021.p priority table?
A. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
B. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
C. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all outbound packets identified by ACL 3010
D. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets identified by ACL 3010
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
You have previously configured a switch port as port link-type trunk. You now want the port to support packets without tagging from multiple VLANs with untagged packets?
A. Use the port link-type hybrid command
B. Use the port link-type access command
C. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type trunk command
D. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type hybrid command

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
Which three are properties of the OSPF Designated Router (DR)? (Choose three.)
A. It speaks for all of its adjacent routers in its area
B. All DRs on a network must have the same Router ID
C. The router with the lowest MAC address is elected DR
D. A router with a priority of zero will never become the DR
E. It is responsible for generating and flooding network link advertisements

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 26
Click on the exhibit button.
Which best describes the configuration of the voice VLAN on the switch (based on the information shown in the exhibit)?

A. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled at both the System View and Port View; and all IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
B. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled only at the System View; and 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
C. The voice VLAN ID is 2; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN 2; and the switch filters out all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN whose source MAC does not match the OUI
D. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it was automatically configured; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will be recognized by the switch; and the switch allows all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN that are not OUI-based frames

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What is the primary purpose for using Q-in-Q VLANs (on the Switch 7700/8800, it is referred to as VLAN-VPN)?
A. To provide a VLAN tunneling technique that is transparent to the Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. To interconnect multiple VLANs to allow packets to be sent between the VLANs without the requirement of a router
C. To create QoS profiles that can be assigned to multiple VLANs vs. configuring each VLAN’s parameters individually
D. Enables a Service Provider to offer transport services that preserve and extend customers’ VLAN topology over a metropolitan-area network (MAN)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which three steps are required to configure and enable an ACL on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose three.)
A. Define the ACL
B. Create the ACL rules
C. Apply the ACL to the switch
D. Apply the ACL to an interface
E. Apply the user-defined flow template to the ACLs

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 29
What is a key reason for using Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) vs.
Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) on a network with multiple VLANs?
A. MSTP supports fast-forwarding configuration on edge ports
B. MSTP supports load balancing Virtual LANs (VLANs) across multiple data paths
C. MSTP allows you to choose the root bridge so you can eliminate the need to use VLANs on a Layer 2 network
D. MSTP allows you to configure more than one switch to be the Primary Root for a Multiple Spanning Tree Instance (MSTI) to provide better resilience when VLANs are used
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Click on the exhibit button.
Which best describes the Switch 5500-EI Link Aggregation configuration (based on the output of the display link-aggregation verbose command shown in the exhibit)?

A. The LA group contains two links, the links were manually configured and load sharing has been turned off for the LA group
B. The LA group contains two links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing has been turned on for the LA group
C. The LA group contains four links, the links were manually configured and load sharing has been turned on for the LA group
D. The LA group contains four links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing has been turned off for the LA group
Correct Answer: B

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3COM.https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-212.html exam dumps.v2008-08-12.by.Ramon.129q
Exam A QUESTION 1
What is the most common Layer 2 method for handling multicast traffic?
A. DVMRP
B. PIM-SM/DM
C. IGMP Snooping

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which two features are supported on all Switch 8800 I/O modules? (Choose two.)
A. Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) interface for all Ethernet ports
B. IEEE 802.3ad Link Aggregation
C. Layer 2/ Layer 3 switch packet processing
D. Each interface module maintains its own routing and forwarding tables

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 3
Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
B. PoE upgradeable power supply unit
C. Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
D. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
E. Port-based VLANs

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 4
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: “An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity”?
A. Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)
B. XRN Interconnect
C. Distributed Device Management (DDM)
D. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
The Switch 5500 supports multiple runtime and configuration files in its flash file system.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
The Switch 5500 supports Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) V1, V2 and V3.
A. True

B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Which three technologies can be used to provide a high level of network availability? (Choose three.)
A. Internet Group Membership Protocol (IGMP) Snooping
B. Virtual LAN-centric (VLAN-centric) network design
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
D. IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
E. eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)
F. Cut-through switching

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Match each Spanning Tree acronym with its definition.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 9
Which two are features of IEEE 802.1X Network Login? (Choose two.)
A. Authenticates users before they gain access to the network
B. All authorization can be administered centrally
C. Security administrators must use the history log file to determine who is accessing the network
D. Devices such as telephones are automatically authenticated based on IP address

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10
Which three are benefits of Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) over Routing Information Protocol (RIPv1)? (Choose three.)
A. Provides faster convergence
B. Updates neighbor routers by sending complete router table
C. Performs packet flooding using broadcasts
D. Employs equal-cost, multi-path (ECMP) routing
E. Supports flexible subnet schemes

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 11
Which two are features of the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800 Spanning Tree Protocol configuration and support? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP considers VLANs in its calculation
B. Both switches support “STP disable per port”
C. Spanning Tree is enabled by default
D. Use Multiple Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) to enable VLAN-specific links between multiple switches

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12
Which two queuing features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. QoS policies are based on Layer 2 packet information only
B. Eight output queues per port
C. The switch only supports Strict Priority (SP) queuing
D. The switch supports multiple queuing algorithms (i.e., Strict Priority (SP) queuing, Weighted Random Early Discard)
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13
Which two are Layer 2 features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. User definable MAC table aging period
B. GARP Multicast Registration Protocol (GMRP)
C. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
D. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
Which two are security features on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Switch requires an external RADIUS server for user authentication
B. Switch can act as both authenticator and authentication server
C. Supports a single supplicant on each physical port
D. IEEE 802.1X Network Login can be enabled globally or on individual ports

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 15
What is a purpose of the Switch 5500 automatic VLAN and QoS assignment?
A. Always applies the administrative configuration to the port at login
B. Dynamically creates a new VLAN using RADIUS Authentication of Device Access (RADA) specifications
C. VLAN and QoS profile are supplied by the RADIUS server when a user logs on
D. Preconfigures the port with the VLAN and QoS configurations

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Which three products with 10Gbe support does 3Com recommend using in the network core and server aggregation layer? (Choose three.)
A. Switch 7700/7750
B. SuperStack 3 Switch 4900
C. Switch 8800 family
D. Switch 5500
E. SuperStack 3 Switch 4400

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 17
Which three hardware reliability features are supported by all Switch 8800 chassis models? (Choose three.)
A. Redundant, load-sharing power supplies
B. Hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant switch fabric
C. eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) redundant backbone support
D. Redundant, load-sharing switch fabric
E. Hot-swappable switch elements

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 18
The Switch 5500 RADIUS Authentication of Device Access (RADA) is designed to authenticate users based on MAC address without the requirement for IEEE 802.1X client on the attached devices.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
The Switch 8800 supports IEEE 802.3ae 10 gigabit Ethernet Jumbo Ethernet Frames (9KB).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
Which two are switching fabric features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Redundant switch fabric remains in standby mode unless the master switch fabric fails
B. The master switch fabric must be in slot #1
C. The master switch fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis
D. The switch fabric is hot-swappable, load-balancing fabric

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A. Switch 5500G-EI
B. Switch 5500-SI
C. Switch 5500-EI
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which two are Quality of Service (QoS) features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Configurable queue processing
B. Queue priority is based only on First In First Out (FIFO) algorithm
C. Eight hardware queues per switch
D. Eight hardware queues per port

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23
Which three application-availability techniques should be used to ensure high network availability? (Choose three.)
A. Enforce techniques primarily at the network core
B. Identify and prioritize mission-critical applications
C. Protect resources with network security
D. Block rogue applications
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 24
Which three routing features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco IOS
B. Routing policies
C. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP-4)
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
E. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 25
Which two are Switch 8800 routing configuration considerations? (Choose two.)
A. By default, RIP is disabled on the switch
B. Supports EIGRP
C. By default, RIP v2 runs when RIP is enabled
D. Supports OSPF

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 26
Which two are benefits of the Switch 5500 XRN Distributed Device Management (DDM) support? (Choose two.)
A. Supports up to 12 switches in a single stack
B. Creates a 12 Gbps full-duplex link between switches
C. All switches within a stack act as a single logical device
D. Resilient XRN architecture provides management access if any switch fails in a stack

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 27
Which two describe the attributes of the Switch 8800 switch fabrics? (Choose two.)
A. Switch must be powered off to replace a switch fabric
B. The slave switch fabric provides active, load-balancing data switching
C. Switch fabric load balancing is enabled by the user
D. Upon failover, the slave switch fabric must learn and rebuild all routing tables

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Match each Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) component with its function.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 29
For which customer network environment does 3Com recommend the Switch 8800 family?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Large enterprise network core
C. Large enterprise distribution layer
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
DRAG DROP
Match each Switch 8800 internal component with its function.
A.
B.
C.
D.

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Looking for latest https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-211.html Test Tutorial exam questions? You can pass the certification exam easily with our 3M0-211 Test Tutorial practice exam.
Exam A

QUESTION 1
The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis

Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority applications

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface
Module? (Choose three)

A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 7
Which two are functions of Switch 40×0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
What is the benefit of using the Switch 40×0 Family’s Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable feature?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) manages Layer 2 switched links

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of network attacks
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 10
Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network? (Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation

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