Index

Are you still searching for Cisco 200-310 dumps exam? The Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions (200-310 DESGN) exam tests network design for Cisco enterprise network architectures. CCDA certified professionals can design routed and switched network infrastructures and services involving LAN/WAN technologies for SMB or basic enterprise campus and branch networks. This 75-minute exam consists of 55-65 questions and covers Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions course. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking it for the CCDA certifications.The pass4itsure 200-310 dumps DESGN certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates.

Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Exam Number: 200-310
Associated Certifications: CCDA
Duration: 75 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available Languages: English

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-21)

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

200-310 exam Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Classification is the process of partitioning traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. Information in the frame or packet header is inspected, and the frame’s priority is determined. Marking is the process of changing the priority or class of service (CoS) setting within a frame or packet to indicate its classification. Classification is usually performed with access control lists (ACL), QoS class maps, or route maps, using various match criteria.
Congestion-avoidance techniques monitor network traffic loads so that congestion can be anticipated and avoided before it becomes problematic. Congestion-avoidance techniques allow packets from streams identified as being eligible for early discard (those with lower priority) to be dropped when the queue is getting full. Congestion avoidance techniques provide preferential treatment for high priority traffic under congestion situations while
maximizing network throughput and capacity utilization and minimizing packet loss and delay. Weighted random early detection (WRED) is the Cisco implementation of the random early detection (RED) mechanism. WRED extends RED by
using the IP Precedence bits in the IP packet header to determine which traffic should be dropped; the drop-selection process is weighted by the IP precedence. Traffic conditioner consists of policing and shaping. Policing either discards the packet or modifies some aspect of it, such as its IP Precedence or CoS bits, when the policing agent determines that the packet meets a given criterion. In comparison, traffic shaping attempts to adjust the transmission rate of packets that match a certain criterion. Shaper typically delays excess traffic by using a buffer or queuing mechanism to hold packets and shape the flow when the source’s data rate is higher than expected. For example, generic traffic shaping uses a weighted fair queue to delay packets to shape
the flow. Traffic conditioner is also referred to as Committed Access Rate (CAR). Congestion management includes two separate processes: queuing, which separates traffic into various queues or buffers, and scheduling, which decides from which queue traffic is to be sent next. There are two types of queues: the hardware queue (also called the transmit queue or TxQ) and
software queues. Software queues schedule packets into the hardware queue based on the QoS requirements and include the following types: weighted fair queuing (WFQ), priority queuing (PQ), custom queuing (CQ), class-based WFQ (CBWFQ), and low latency queuing (LLQ). LLQ is also known as Priority Queuing–Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (PQ-CBWFQ). LLQ provides a single priority but it’s preferred for VoIP networks because it can also configure guaranteed bandwidth for different classes of traffic queue. For example, all voice call traffic would be assigned to the priority queue, VoIP signaling and video would be assigned to a traffic class, FTP traffic would be assigned to a low-priority traffic class, and all other traffic would be assigned to a regular class.
Link efficiency techniques, including link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI) and compression. LFI prevents small voice packets from being queued behind large data packets, which could lead to unacceptable delays on low-speed links. With LFI, the voice gateway fragments large packets into smaller equal-sized frames and interleaves them with small voice packets so that a voice packet does not have to wait until the entire large data packet is sent. LFI reduces and ensures a more predictable voice delay.

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Trust and identity management solutions provide secure network access and admission at any point in the network and isolate and control infected or unpatched devices that attempt to access the network. If you are trusted, you are granted access. We can understand “trust” is the security policy applied on two or more network entities and allows them to communicate or not in a specific circumstance. “Identity” is the “who” of a trust relationship.
The main purpose of Secure Connectivity is to protect the integrity and privacy of the information and it is mostly done by encryption and authentication. The purpose of encryption is to guarantee confidentiality; only authorized entities can encrypt and decrypt data. Authentication is used to establish the subject’s identity. For example, the users are required to provide username and password to access a resource…

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

200-310 dumps Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
DRAG and DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
Drag the WAN characteristics on the left to the branch office model where it would most likely to be used on the right.
Select and Place:

200-310 pdf Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
The first phase of PPDIOO entails identifying customer requirements. Drag the example on the left to the associated requirement on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Drag the description or characteristic on the left to the appropriate technology or protocol on the right.
Select and Place:


Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Click and drag the phases of the PPDIOO network lifecycle approach on the left to their order on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Drag the characteristics of the traditional campus network on the left to the most appropriate hierarchical network layer on the right.
Select and Place:

200-310 exam Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Drag the network function on the left to the functional area or module where it is most likely to be performed in the enterprise campus infrastructure on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Drag the security prevision on the left to the appropriate Network module on the right.
Select and Place:

200-310 dumps Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Drag the technology on the left to the type of enterprise virtualization where it is most likely to be found on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Drag the network characteristic on the left to the design method on the right which will best ensure redundancy at the building distribution layer.
Select and Place:

200-310 pdf Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Drag the associated virtualization tool or solution on the left to the appropriate design requirement on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Drag the WAN technology on the left to the most appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:

200-310 exam Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Drag the STP toolkit term on the left to the definition on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 17
Drag the characteristic on the left to the correct campus design model on the right.
Select and Place:

200-310 dumps Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Drag the technology on the left to the matching routing protocol on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
Drag the security term on the left to the matching description on the right.
Select and Place:

200-310 pdf Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Drag the term on the left to the matching deployment scenario on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
Drag and drop the top-down approach process step 1 – 4 !
Select and Place:

200-310 exam Correct Answer:

Cisco 200-310 Dumps Recommended Training

The following course is the recommended training for this exam.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 640-692 Dumps Exam Q&As(11-28)

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

Into which port do you insert the card?
A. ATM
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Serial
D. Ethernet
640-692 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which layer of the IOS model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which type if memory is used to permanently store the Cisco IOS software?
A. Flash
B. DRAM
C. SRAM
D. NVRAM
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What is the default operating mode you are initially logging into a router?
A. global configuration
B. privileged EXEC
C. ROM monitor
D. user EXEC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which two of the following are component of WAN connection? (Choose two)
A. router
B. switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. Hub
E. Bridge
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
What is the annual carrying cost, stated as a percentage of investment in inventory, that would be used in model?
A. 42%
B. 37%
C. 34%
D. 22%
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The annual carrying costs are US $12,750 for the warehouse, US $1,500 for insurance, II and US $2,260 for proper taxes. These costs total US $16,500. In addition, the company desires a12% after- tax return on investments. Because the tax rate is 40%, the 12% after-tax returnequals a 20% before-tax return 12% – 60%). A 20% return on the US $75,000 averageinvestment in inventory is US $15,000. Hence, the total carrying cost is US $31,500 $16,500+ $15,000). This amount is 42% of the US $75,000 investment in inventory.

QUESTION 17
When the economic order quantity EOQ) decision model is employed, the List A are being offset or balanced
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
640-692 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The objective of the EOQ model is to find an optimal order quantity that balances carryingand ordering costs. Only variable costs should be considered. The EOQ is the point where theordering cost and carrying cost curves intersect. It corresponds to the minimum point on thetotal inventory cost curve.

QUESTION 18
The calculation of an economic order quantity EOQ) considers:
A. The purchasing manager’s salary_
B. A corporate charge for advertising expenses.
C. The shipping costs to deliver the product to the customer.
D. Capital costs.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The determination of the economic order quantity balances the variable costs of ordering andcarrying inventory. Factors in the equation include the cost of placing an order, unit carryingcost, and annual demand in units. Carrying costs include storage costs, handling costs,insurance, property takes, obsolescence, and the
opportunity cost of investing capital ininventory. Thus, the return on capital that is forgone when it is invested in inventory shouldbe considered.

QUESTION 19
A characteristic of the basic economic order quantity EOQ) model is that it:
A. Is relatively insensitive to error.
B. Should not be used when carrying costs are large in relation to procurement costs.
C. Is used when product demand, lead-time, and ordering costs are uncertain.
D. Should not be used in conjunction with computerized perpetual inventory systems.
640-692 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The basic EOQ model equals the square root of the quotient of 1) the product of twice thedemand times the cost per order, ) divided by the periodic carrying cost. Hence, the model isrelatively insensitive to error. A given percentage error in a value results in a lowerpercentage change in the EOQ.

QUESTION 20
Companies that adapt just-in-time purchasing systems often experience
A. An increase in carrying costs.
B. A reduction in the number of suppliers.
C. A greater need for inspection of goods as the goods arrive.
D. Less need for linkage with a vendor’s computerized order entry system.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The objective of JIT is to reduce carrying costs by eliminating inventories and increasing thedeliveries made by suppliers. Ideally, shipments of raw materials are received just in time tobe incorporated into the manufacturing process. The focus of quality control under JIT is theprevention of quality problems. Quality’ control is shifted to the supplier. JIT companiestypically do not inspect incoming goods; the assumption is that receipts are of perfect quality. Suppliers are limited to those who guarantee perfect quality and prompt delivery.

QUESTION 21
A manufacturing company is attempting to implement a just-in-time JIT) purchase policy system by negotiating with its primary suppliers to accept long-term purchase orders which result in more frequent deliveries of smaller quantities of raw materials. If the JIT purchase policy is successful in reducing the total inventory costs of the manufacturing company, which of the following combinations of cost changes would be most likely to occur?
A. Option A
B. Option C
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The objective of a JIT system is to reduce carrying costs by eliminating inventories andincreasing the deliveries made by suppliers. Ideally, shipments are received just in time to beincorporated into the manufacturing process. This system increases the risk of stockout costsbecause the inventory buffer is reduced or eliminated. The diagram presented represents theeconomic circler quantity ECQ) model.

QUESTION 22
Which line segment represents the reorder lead time?
A. AB.
B. AE.
C. AF.
D. BC.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The quantity of inventory on hand is represented by they axis and time by the axis. Thereorder lead time is represented by the line segment BC. The diagram presented representsthe economic circler quantity ECQ) model.

QUESTION 23
Which line segment identifies the quantity of safety stock maintained?
A. AB.
B. AE.
C. AC.
D. BC.
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quantities of inventory are shown along they axis. Safety stock is represented by the line AE. The diagram presented represents the economic circler quantity ECQ) model.

QUESTION 24
Which line segment represents the length of time to consume the total quantity of materials ordered?
A. DE.
B. BC.
C. AC.
D. AE.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Time is shown along the axis. The line segment AC depicts the time to consume an entireorder to reduce the inventory to the safety stock).

QUESTION 25
The Huron Corporation purchases 60,000 headbands per year. The average purchase lead time is 20 working days, and the maximum lead time is 27 working days. Safety stock equals 1,750 units. The corporation works 240 days per year. Huron should reorder headbands when the quantity in inventory reaches:
A. 5,000 units.
B. 6,750 units.
C. 1,750 units.
D. 5,250 units.
640-692 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The reorder point is the quantity on hand when an order is placed.Ifithas20-day normal leadtime, a safety stock of 1,750 units, and usage of 250 units per day, an order should be placedwhen 27 days of inventory are on hand, a total of 6,750 units 250 units 27 days). Jed RyersonComputer Furniture, Inc. RCF) manufactures
a line of office computer chairs. The annualdemand for the chairs is estimated to be 5,000 units. The annual cost to hold one unit ininventory is US 10 per year, and the cast to initiate a production run is US $1,000. There areno computer chairs on hand, and RCF has scheduled four equal production runs of computerchairs for the coming year, the first of which is to be run immediately. RCF has 250 businessdays per year, sales occur uniformly throughout the year, and production start-up is withinone day. RCF is considering using the following formula for determining the economic orderquantity EOQ):
If: A = cast to initiate a production run per purchase order D = annual unit demand
K = cost of carrying one unit per year

QUESTION 26
What is the number of production runs per year of computer chairs that would minimize the sum of carrying and setup costs for the coming year?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The EOQ minimizes the sum of carrying and setup costs. The EOQ is the amount at whichcarrying costs are equal to setup casts. Thus, plugging the data into the EOQ formula resultsin the following: Thus, if each lot consists of 1,000 units, five production runs per year are needed to meet the5,000-unit demand. At this level, setup costs will total US $5,000 5 x $1,000). Carrying costswill also equal US $5,000 10 per unit carrying cost average inventory of 500 units). Accordingly, total costs are minimized at US $10,000. Jed Ryerson Computer Furniture, Inc. RCF) manufactures a line of office computer chairs. The annual demand for the chairs isestimated to be 5,000 units. The annual cost tic. hold one unit in inventory is US $10 peryear, and the cost to initiate a production run is US $1,000. There are no computer chairs onhand, and RCF has scheduled four equal production runs of computer chairs for the comingyear, the first of which is to be run immediately. RCF has 250 business days per year, salesoccur uniformly throughout the year, and production start-up is within one day. RCF is considering using the following formula for determining the economic order quantity EOQ):
If: A = cast to initiate a production run per purchase order D = annual unit demand
K = cost of carrying one unit per year

QUESTION 27
If RCF does not maintain a safety stock, the estimated total carrying costs for the computer chairs for the coming year based on their current schedule is:
A. US $4,000
B. US $5,000
C. US $6,250
D. US $12,500
640-692 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Given four production runs and an annual demand of 5,000 units, each production run mustgenerate 1,250 units. Inventory will total 1,250 units at the completion of each run but willdecline to zero just prior to the next run. Thus, the average inventory is 625 units 1,250 – 2),and the total carrying cost is US $6,250 625 units x $10).

QUESTION 28
Each stock out of a product sold by Company I-: costs US $1,750 per occurrence. The carrying cost per unit of inventory is US $5 per year, and the company orders 1,500 units of product 24 times a year at a cost of US $100 per order. The probability of a stock out at various levels of safety stock is. What is the optimal safety stock level for the company?
A. 0 units.
B. 100 units.
C. 300 units.
D. 400 units.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The total expected cost of safety stock equals the sum of the expected annual stockout costand the expected annual carrying cost. Annual expected stockout cost equals the cost peroccurrence US $1,750), times the probability of a stockout per cycle, times the number ofcycles 24). Annual expected carrying cost of a safety stock equals the unit carrying cost US$5) times the number of units. Hence, a safety stock of 400 units has the lowest totalexpected cast.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-250 Dump Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a benefit of ClearPass OnGuard?
A. Allows employees and other non-IT staff to create temporary accounts for Wi-Fi access.
B. Offers an easy way for users to self-configure their devices to support 802.1X authentication on wired
and wireless networks.
C. Enables organizations to run advanced endpoint posture assessments.
D. Offers full self-service provisioning for personal employee owned devices.
E. Allows a receptionist in a hotel to create accounts for guest users.
210-250 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A customer would like to deploy ClearPass with the following objectives: they have 2000 devices that need to be onboarded, 2000 corporate devices running posture checks daily, and 500 different guest users each day authenticating using the web login feature. Which of the following best describes the license mix that they need to purchase?
A. CP-HW-500, 2500 Clearpass Enterprise
B. CP-HW-5k, 2500 Clearpass Enterprise
C. CP-HW-5k, 4500 Clearpass Enterprise
D. CP-HW-25k, 4500 Clearpass Enterprise
E. CP-HW-25k, 4000 Clearpass Enterprise
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A customer would like to deploy ClearPass with the following objectives: they have 3000 corporate laptops doing EAP-TLS authentication daily, 1000 personal smartphone devices that need to be onboarded. The corporate laptops are required to pass a posture check before getting access to the network. Which of the following best describes the license mix that they need to purchase?
A. CP-HW-5k, 1000 Clearpass Enterprise
B. CP-HW-5k, 1000 Onboard, 3000 Onguard
C. CP-HW-25k, 1000 Clearpass Enterprise
D. CP-HW-25k, 1000 Onboard, 3000 Onguard
E. CP-HW-25k, 3000 Onguard
210-250 dump Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A customer would like to deploy ClearPass with the following objectives: Every day, 100 employees authenticate with their corporate laptops using EAP-TLS. Every Friday, there is a meeting with business partners and an additional 50 devices authenticate using Web Login Guest Authentication. Which of the following is correct? (Choose 2)
A. When counting policy manager licenses, they need to include the additional 50 business partner devices
B. When counting policy manager licenses, they can exclude the additional 50 business partner devices
C. They should purchase guest licenses
D. They should purchase onboard licenses
E. They should purchase onguard licenses
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which licenses are included in the built in Starter kit for Clearpass?
A. 25 ClearPass Policy Manager licenses
B. 25 Clearpass Enterprise licenses
C. 10 ClearPass Guest licenses, 10 ClearPass OnGuard licenses and 10 ClearPass Onboard licenses
D. 25 ClearPass Profiler licenses
E. 10 Clearpass Enterprise licenses
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the function of ClearPass Onboard?
A. Provide guest access for visitors to connect to the network
B. Process authentication requests based on policy services
C. Profile devices connecting to the network
D. Provision personal devices to securely connect to the network
E. To allow a windows machine to use machine authentication to access the network
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What is the Onboard license usage based on?
A. Each user connected to the provisioning SSID uses 1 Onboard license.
B. Each user authenticated using the Onboard credential uses 1 Onboard license.
C. Each user provisioned using the Onboard process uses 1 Onboard license.
D. Each user that has the OnGuard agent downloaded uses 1 Onboard license.
E. Each user that downloads the Onboard application to their iOS device uses 1 Onboard license.
210-250 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An employee provisions their personal smart phone using the Onboard process. In addition, they have a corporate laptop given to them by IT that connects to the secure network. How many licenses does the user consume?
A. 1 Policy Manager license, 1 Onboard License.
B. 1 Policy Manager license, 1 Guest License.
C. 2 Policy Manager licenses, 1 Onboard License.
D. 2 Policy Manager licenses, 2 Onboard Licenses.
E. 1 Policy Manager license, 2 Guest licenses.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An employee authenticates using their corporate laptop and runs the dissolvable onguard agent to send a health check back the Policy Manager. Based on the health of the device a VLAN is assigned to the corporate laptop. Which licenses are consumed in this scenario?
A. 1 Policy Manager license, 1 Onboard License.
B. 1 Policy Manager license, 1 OnGuard License.
C. 2 Policy Manager licenses, 1 OnGuard License.
D. 1 Policy Manager license, 1 Profile License.
E. 2 Policy Manager licenses, 2 Onguard licenses.
210-250 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A customer would like to deploy ClearPass with the following objectives: they have between 2000 to 3000 corporate users that need to authenticate daily using EAP-TLS. They want to allow for up to 1000 employee devices to be onboarded. They would also like to allow up to 100 different guest users each day to authenticate using the web login feature. Which of the following best describes the license mix that they need to purchase?
A. CP-HW-5k, 100 Onboard, 100 Guest.
B. CP-HW-500, 1000 Onboard, 100 Guest.
C. CP-HW-2k, 1000 Onboard, 100 Guest.
D. CP-HW-5k, 2500 Enterprise.
E. CP-HW-5k, 1000 Enterprise.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements is true about the Endpoint Profiler? (Choose 2)
A. The Endpoint Profiler requires the Onboard license to be enabled.
B. The Endpoint Profiler uses DHCP fingerprinting for device categorization.
C. Data obtained from the Endpoint Profiler can be used in Enforcement Policy.
D. The Endpoint Profiler can only categorize laptops and desktops.
E. Endpoint Profiler requires a profiling license.
210-250 dump Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
Which of the following methods can be used as collectors for device profiling? (Choose 2)
A. OnGuard agent
B. Active Directory Attributes
C. ActiveSync Plugin
D. Username and Password
E. Client’s role on the controller
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Refer to the screen capture below: Based upon Endpoint information shown here, which collectors were used to profile the device as Apple iPad? (Choose 2)
A. OnGuard Agent
B. HTTP User-Agent
C. DHCP fingerprinting
D. SNMP
E. SmartDevice
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
To setup an Aruba Controller as DHCP relay for device fingerprinting, which of the following IP addresses needs to be configured?
A. DHCP server IP
B. ClearPass server IP
C. Active Directory IP
D. Microsoft NPS server IP
E. Switch IP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
What database in the Policy Manager contains the device attributes derived by profiling?
A. Local Users Repository
B. Onboard Devices Repository
C. Endpoints Repository
D. Guest User Repository
E. Client Repository
210-250 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Refer to the screen capture below: Based on the Endpoint Profiler output shown here, which of the following statements is true?
A. The devices have been profiled using DHCP fingerprinting.
B. There are 5 devices profiled in the Computer Device Category.
C. Apple devices will be profiled in the SmartDevice category.
D. There is only 1 Microsoft Windows device present in the network.
E. The linux device with MAC address 000c29fd8945 has not been profiled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following conditions can be used for rule creation of an Enforcement Policy? (Choose 3)
A. System Time
B. Clearpass IP address
C. Posture
D. Switch VLAN
E. Connection Protocol
210-250 exam Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 18
Refer to the screen capture below:
Based on the Enforcement Policy configuration, if a user with Role Engineer connects to the network and the posture token assigned is Unknown, what Enforcement Profile will be applied?
A. EMPLOYEE_VLAN
B. Remote Employee ACL
C. RestrictedACL
D. Deny Access Profile
E. HR VLAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Refer to the screen capture below:
Based on the Enforcement Policy configuration, if a user with Role Remote Worker connects to the network and the posture token assigned is quarantine, what Enforcement Profile will be applied?
A. EMPLOYEE_VLAN
B. Remote Employee ACL
C. RestrictedACL
D. Deny Access Profile
E. HR VLAN
210-250 dump Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Refer to the screen capture below:  Based on the Enforcement Policy configuration, if a user connects to the network using an Apple iphone, what Enforcement Profile is applied?
A. WIRELESS_CAPTIVE_NETWORK
B. WIRELESS_HANDHELD_NETWORK
C. WIRELESS_GUEST_NETWORK
D. WIRELESS_EMPLOYEE_NETWORK
E. Deny Access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Refer to the screen capture below:
A user who is tagged with the ClearPass roles of Role_Engineer and developer, but not testqa, connects to the network with a corporate Windows laptop. What Enforcement Profile is applied?
A. WIRELESS_CAPTIVE_NETWORK
B. WIRELESS_HANDHELD_NETWORK
C. WIRELESS_GUEST_NETWORK
D. WIRELESS_EMPLOYEE_NETWORK
E. Deny Access
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following components of a Policy Service is mandatory?
A. Enforcement
B. Posture
C. Profiler
D. Role Mapping Policy
E. Authorization Source
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following options is the correct order of steps of a Policy Service request?
1) Clearpass tests the request against Service Rules to select a Policy Service.
2) Clearpass applies the Enforcement Policy.
3) Negotiation of the Authentication Method occurs between the NAD and Clearpass.
4) Clearpass sends the Enforcement Profile attributes to the NAD.
5) NAD forwards authentication request to Clearpass.
A. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
B. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
C. 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
E. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
210-250 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which of the following information is NOT required while building a Policy Service for 802.1X authentication?
A. Network Access Device used
B. Authentication Method used
C. Authentication Source used
D. Posture Token of the client
E. Profiling information of the client
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following components can use Active Directory authorization attributes for the decision
making process? (Choose 2)
A. Role Mapping Policy
B. Posture Policy
C. Enforcement Policy
D. Service Rules
210-250 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 26
What information can we conclude from the following graph?
A. This graph represents all authentication requests received by Clearpass in one year.
B. This graph represents all authentication requests received by Clearpass in a day.
C. The graph represents all authentication requests received by Clearpass in a month.
D. Each bar represents total authentication requests per minute.
E. Each bar represents total authentication requests per day.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
What information can we conclude from the above audit row detail? (Choose 2)
A. radius01 was added as an authentication source.
B. radius01 was deleted from the list of authentication sources.
C. The policy service was moved to position number 3.
D. The policy service was moved to position number 4.
E. radius01 was moved to position number 4.
210-250 dump Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 28
What is the purpose of the Audit Viewer in the Monitoring section of ClearPass Policy Manager?
A. To audit client authentications.
B. To audit the network for PCI compliance.
C. To display the entire configuration of the ClearPass Policy Manager.
D. To display changes made to the ClearPass configuration.
E. To display system events.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
If the “Alerts” tab in an authentication session details tab in Access Tracker shows the following error message “Access denied by policy”, what could be a possible cause for authentication failure?
A. Implementation of an Enforcement Policy
B. Implementation of a firewall policy
C. Failure to categorize the request in a Clearpass service
D. Implementation of a Posture Policy
E. Failure to activate the enforcement policy
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
If a client’s authentication is failing and there are no entries in the Clearpass’s Access Tracker, which of the
following is a possible reason for the authentication failure?
A. The client used a wrong password.
B. The user is not found in the database.
C. The shared secret between Network Access Device and Clearpass does not match.
D. The user account has expired.
E. The user’s certificate is invalid.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which of the following statements is true based on the Access Tracker output shown below?
A. The client wireless profile is incorrectly setup.
B. Clearpass does not have a service enabled for MAC authentication.
C. The client MAC address is not present in the Endpoints table in the Clearpass database.
D. The client used incorrect credentials to authenticate to the network.
E. The RADIUS client on the Windows server failed to categorize the service correctly.
210-250 vce Correct Answer: B

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-165 Dumps Exam Q&As:

1. In a Split MAC wireless network architecture, lightweight APs map user priorities (UPs) specified by the QoS STA on incoming frames to .
A. IEEE 802.1D Frame Precedence Values
B. GRE Priority Bits
C. IEEE 802.1Q Tag Protocol Identifiers D.
IP Differentiated Services Code Points E.
QoS Control Header Values
300-165 exam Answer: D
2. Given: An ingress frame arrives on the Ethernet port of an autonomous AP marked with an IEEE 802.1D user priority value.
Which IEEE 802.1D user priority values (by name) will assure the data payload carried by the Ethernet frame gets assigned to the highest priority WMM queue?
A. Controlled Load
B. Network Control
C. Video
D. Voice
E. Best Effort
F. Excellent Effort
Answer: BD
3. Given: When the delayed Block Ack policy is used between two QoS STAs, the recipient must respond to a BlockAckReq frame with an ACK frame. The recipient must then send its BlockAck
response frame in a subsequently obtained TXOP. Once the contents of the BlockAck frame have been prepared, the recipient must .
A. Send the BlockAck response frame to the originator in the earliest possible TXOP using the highest priority AC.
B. Send an ATIM to the originator signifying that the BlockAck response frame is ready for transmission.
C. Include the TID of the BlockAckReq in the next TXOP Request to the HC.
D. Wait for one PIFS after the next Beacon and transmit the BlockAck response to the originator using the same AC as the BlockAckReq frame.
300-165 dumps Answer: A
4. A QoS STA obtains a TXOP for an access category (AC) after what two parameters are met?
A. After a scheduled service period ends
B. The medium is idle at the AIFS slot boundary
C. The backoff time for that AC has expired
D. After a Block ACK Response
E. After a Target Beacon Transmission Time (TBTT)
Answer: BC
5. When using a protocol analyzer to capture conversations over a WLAN, you may often encounter encrypted data frames. Most WLAN protocol analyzers have a feature that allows the analyst to save and reload the captured frames into memory at a later time. Using this functionality, what task can be performed?
A. When IEEE 802.1X/LEAP is being used as the WLAN security mechanism, the authentication response frame can be replayed from a saved trace file at a later time to successfully authenticate a
hacker.
B. If a user name and password for an IEEE 802.1X/EAP-TTLS security implementation can be obtained through social engineering tactics, the user name and password can be entered into the analyzer to decrypt the frames from a saved trace file.
C. An analyst can search through the captured frames looking for RADIUS frames that will disclose the user’s password.
D. Encrypted frames may be decrypted offline, after they are captured, by entering a WEP key or WPA passphrase into the analyzer.
300-165 pdf Answer: D
6. How long, in microseconds, is the required Slot Time announced by an AP in an ERP BSS when both HR-DSSS and ERP-OFDM client stations are associated to the AP?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 9
D. 10
E. 20
Answer: E
7. The IEEE 802.11 standard allows for frame fragmentation. Which two fields in the IEEE 802.11 frame are involved in numbering data frame fragments and notifying the receiving station when all of the fragments of a data frame have been received?
A. Capability Information field
B. Frame Control field
C. ERP Information field D.
Sequence Control field E.
DS Parameter field
F. Ordered Service field
300-165 vce Answer: BD
8. According to the IEEE 802.11 standard (as amended), transmit power information is carried in which frames?
A. TPC Report frame
B. ADDTS Response frame
C. Probe Response frame
D. Beacon frame
E. Channel Switch Announcement frame
F. Measurement Report frame
Answer: ACD
9. What events will cause an established TSPEC to be deleted by a AP?
A. Disassociation of the non-AP QoS STA using the TSPEC from the QoS BSS
B. Traffic Stream inactivity timeout
C. Reassociation of the non-AP QoS STA with another QoS AP
D. Receipt of a DELBA frame from a non-AP QoS STA
E. Receipt of an Update TSPEC frame from a non-AP QoS STA
F. A Controlled Access Phase (CAP) burst
300-165 exam Answer: ABC
10. Many autonomous access points support IEEE 802.1Q VLAN tagging. When analyzing a WLAN system using IEEE 802.1Q tags, where can the VLAN tag number be seen?
A. In the Sequence Control field of the MSDU
B. In the PLCP header’s Service field
C. In the Frame Control field of the MPDU header
D. In the Ethernet header on the wired port of the access point
E. In the Beacon Management frame’s Capabilities fixed field
Answer: D
11. Given: ABC Company is implementing a QoS enabled infrastructure that will support both voice and data. The WLAN controller is connected to one of three core layer-3 Ethernet switches. Each core layer-3 Ethernet switch has multiple edge layer-2 Ethernet switches attached. Lightweight APs are connected to all edge layer-2 Ethernet switches. The WLAN controller is on subnet 10.1.1.0/24, and the APs are on numerous other subnets. The APs are connected to the WLAN controller via LWAPP tunnels. When IEEE 802.11 frames arrive at a lightweight AP from a QoS STA that need to be sent to the WLAN controller, which bits can the AP mark to signal the layer-2 and layer-3 Ethernet switches to use higher priority processing?
A. The Ethernet frame’s 802.1Q priority tag bits
B. The IP header’s TOS bits
C. The IEEE 802.11 frame’s QoS Control bits
D. The LWAPP header’s C bit
E. The UDP header’s PRI bits
300-165 dumps Answer: AB
12. Given: ABC Company has implemented a QoS capable IEEE 802.11 WLAN controller based network with lightweight access points as shown in the graphic. What is the advantage of the access point mapping IEEE 802.11 user priority (UP) values to DSCP values in the IP header that encapsulates the 802.11 frame?
A. Direct mapping of UP-to-DSCP values increases effective throughput between the access point and WLAN controller.
B. Since UP-to-802.1Q PCP mappings are not possible at the access point, the only method of prioritizing upstream data is through UP-to-DSCP mappings.
C. The QoS markings will survive layer 2 hops that could remove 802.1Q PCP values.
D. UP-to-DSCP mappings are more granular than UP-to-802.1Q PCP mappings.
Answer: C
13. What does a TXOP Limit value of 0 in the EDCA Parameter Set included in a QoS AP’s Beacons or
Probe Response frames indicate?
A. It indicates that one or more MSDUs or MMPDUs must be transmitted at the lowest basic rate during each TXOP.
B. It indicates that QoS STAs must wait for the HC to transmit a Polled TXOP before they can transmit MSDUs or MMPDUs.
C. It indicates that no MSDUs or MMPDUs may be transmitted by a non-pollable QoS STA. D.
It indicates that a single MSDU or MMPDU may be transmitted at any rate for each TXOP.
E. It indicates that QoS STAs may transmit voice MPDUs (Access Category 7, 8) during TXOPs.
300-165 pdf Answer: D
14. What is indicated to a QoS AP when a QoS STA sets U-APSD Flag bits to 1 in Association and Reassociation frames?
A. Which access categories are both trigger- and delivery-enabled.
B. The maximum number of data frames that should be queued by the QoS AP for that QoS STA.
C. The number of TXOPs that are requested by this QoS STA.
D. Which user priorities are mapped to access categories.
E. Which access categories are scheduled.
Answer: A
15. ABC Corp has just installed a single HR-DSSS access point into their medium-sized office environment. As the WLAN administrator at ABC Corp, you use a wireless protocol analyzer to troubleshoot a performance problem. You place your analyzer close to the access point, and capture some traffic from office users. Given the screenshot shown, which statement offers the best explanation for the poor WLAN performance of ABC’s new HR-DSSS WLAN?
A. There is likely a source of RF interference somewhere around the access point. This is causing many data frames to be retransmitted, so overall WLAN throughput has been greatly diminished.
B. Due to an ERP client joining the BSS, protection mechanisms have been enabled in the BSS by the access point. These protection mechanisms greatly increase protocol overhead, thereby decreasing overall WLAN throughput.
C. A nearby HR-DSSS access point is operating on an adjacent channel causing a significant amount of corrupt frames within ABC’s BSS. These corrupt frame fragments are congesting the channel on which
ABC’s WLAN is operating, thereby decreasing its throughput.
D. One of the WLAN users has moved far enough away from the access point that his client station has begun transmitting frames at the minimum supported data rate. Even when a single user uses this rate for Data frames, throughput for the entire WLAN as a whole is slowed significantly.
300-165 vce Answer: D
16. Which statements accurately describe IEEE 802.11 EDCA collision handling in a WMM compliant infrastructure WLAN?
A. Data frames from lower priority colliding ACs behave as if there were an external collision on the wireless medium.
B. Collisions between contending EDCAFs within a QoS STA are resolved within the QoS STA
C. WMM-compliant applications collaborate within a QoS STA to handle transmission collisions at layer 7 of the OSI model
D. The WMM specification requires use of RTS/CTS as part of the EDCAF in each QoS STA to avoid internal collisions between applications
E. Collisions within a QoS STA do not require setting retry bits in MAC headers of MPDUs from lower priority ACs
Answer: ABE

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most AccurateMicrosoft MB2-704 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
You are a sales representative at a trade show. A trade show attendee leaves a business card at your company’s booth.You need to enter the attendee’s information into Microsoft Dynamics CRM for the sales team to qualify. Which record type should you create?
A. Contact
B. Account
C. Opportunity
D. Lead
MB2-704 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You own an opportunity but need to allow other users to view and edit it. What should you do?
A. Create a connection for a team, add the sales team role, and add the connection to the opportunity.
B. Add users to the access team on the opportunity.
C. Add users to the access team template.
D. Create a connection for each user, add the sales team role, and add the connection to the opportunity.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
You are adding products to an opportunity.You want to calculate the estimated revenue based on the products added.What should you do to enable this function?
A. Set the estimated budget.
B. Configure the exchange rate.
C. Use write-in products.
D. Add a price list
MB2-704 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the business process flow in the opportunity form?
A. To show other users who are collaborating on the opportunity
B. To provide a sales script for the salesperson to use when speaking to a potential customer
C. To show the current stage in the sales lifecycle
D. To enforce entry of mandatory fields
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that lead qualification is automated and occurs when a field on the Lead Form is set to a certain value. What should you do?
A. Switch the business process flow to set the status of the lead to qualified when the condition is met.
B. Create a business process flow that automatically sets the status of the lead to qualified when the condition is met.
C. Create a dialog that automatically sets the status of the lead to qualified when the condition is met.
D. Create a workflow that automatically sets the status of the lead to qualified when the condition is met.
MB2-704 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
A staff member at your client organization sends you an email message, inquiring about a product that the client might buy.
After you track the email message, what should you do?
A. Convert the email message to the opportunity.
B. Convert the email message to an account and contact.
C. Create a quote, and link the email message to the quote.
D. Create an order, and link the email message to the order.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
You are creating a goal for the number of phone calls made versus the number of phone calls scheduled.You need to establish the number of scheduled calls for your organization. Which value provides this information?
A. In-progress
B. Actual
C. Closed
D. Target
MB2-704 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You want to share a personal chart that you created.Who can you share your chart with? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Resource group
B. Access team
C. Team
D. User
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9
Each member of your sales team must earn an individual sales revenue quota for the year in order to receive a bonus. You create the goal metric and identify the Metric Type as Amount and the Amount Data Type as Money. You need to complete the configuration of the goal metric.What should you do?
A. Add rollup fields.
B. Create goals.
C. Create fiscal years.
D. Create rollup queries.
MB2-704 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
You create an Advanced Find view that consists of columns from the account entity. Which action is possible when customizing the view?
A. Adding columns from related of records
B. Creating three levels of sort criteria
C. Setting the option to filter columns to ensure it displays by default when opening the view
D. Merging two columns into one
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You create an opportunity report by using the Report Wizard. The report returns too many records.You need to reduce the number of records returned by the report. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.
A. Make the report a personal report.
B. Reduce the number of columns.
C. Designate a top or bottom number.
D. Apply a filter.
MB2-704 dumps Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 12
You need to create a dashboard that will include an external website.Which component should you add?
A. Quick view
B. Sub-grid
C. IFRAME
D. Web resource
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
You create a new entitlement. What is the initial status of the entitlement?
A. Active
B. Waiting
C. Created
D. Draft
MB2-704 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
You create a new case that includes a service level agreement (SLA). You place the case on hold because you need to wait for additional information from the customer. What is the status of the SLA key performance indicator (KPI) instance record related to the case?
A. Failed
B. In progress
C. On hold
D. Paused
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 117-201
Exam Name: Linux Advanced Administration
Q&As: 202

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Lpi 117-201 Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 14
When is historical data of resource usage important? (Select THREE correct answers.)
A. Predicting when resources will need to be increased.
B. Selecting a computer vendor.
C. Identifying processes killed during out of memory occurrences.
D. Diagnosing capacity problems.
E. Troubleshooting a software problem.
117-201 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 15
Which of the following terms are used to describe 3.x kernel releases? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. beta
B. final
C. longterm
D. prerelease
E. stable
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 16
What is a key difference between a zImage and bzImage kernel image?
A. zImage is compressed using gzip, bzImage is compressed using bzip2.
B. zImage is for 2.6 series kernels, bzImage is for 3.x series kernels.
C. zImage is limited to 64k, bzImage has no such restriction.
D. zImage gets loaded completely into low memory. bzImage will load into high memory once low memory is full.
117-201 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which of the following command sequences can be used to extract files contained in a initramfs file (/boot/
initramfs) which is used by the kernel at boot time?
A. cp /boot/initramfs /tmp/initramfs.gz; gzip -c /tmp/initramfs.gz; mkdir /tmp/initramfs.dir ; cd /tmp/ initramfs.dir ; cpio -i < /tmp/initramfs
B. cp /boot/initramfs /tmp/initramfs.gz; gunzip /tmp/initramfs.gz; mkdir /tmp/initramfs.dir ; cd /tmp/ initramfs.dir ; cpio -i < /tmp/initramfs C. cp /boot/initramfs /tmp/initramfs.gz; gunzip /tmp/initramfs.gz; mount /tmp/initramfs /mnt/ -o loop -t initramfs D. cp /boot/initramfs /tmp/initramfs.gz; gunzip /tmp/initramfs.gz; mkdir /tmp/initramfs.dir ; cd /tmp/ initramfs.dir ; cpio -e /tmp/initramfs E. cp /boot/initramfs /tmp/initramfs.gz; gunzip /tmp/initramfs.gz; mount /tmp/initramfs /mnt/ -o loop -t initrd Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
On a server running the 3.4.50-11 Linux kernel, which file in the /boot directory contains the kernel configuration parameters?
A. config-linux-3.4.50-11
B. config-3.4.50-11
C. system-3.4.50-11
D. vmlinuz-3.4.50-11
E. rc.config-3.4.50-11
117-201 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 Which archive format is used to create an initramfs image?
A. gzip
B. tar
C. RAR
D. cpio
E. bzip2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
How can the kernel parameter for the maximum size of the shared memory segment (shmmax) be changed to 2GB (2147483648 Bytes) on a running system? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Edit /etc/shmmax and set the parameter to 2147483648.
B. sysctl shmmax=2147483648
C. sysctl kernel.shmmax=2147483648
D. echo 2147483648 > /proc/sys/kernel/shmmax
E. export kernel.shmmax=2147483648
117-201 vce Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
What happens if the Linux kernel can’t mount the root filesystem when booting?
A. An error message is shown and the administrator is asked by the kernel to specify a valid root
filesystem to continue the boot process.
B. An error message is shown and the system reboots after a keypress.
C. An error message is shown and the system boots in maintenance mode.
D. An error message is shown showing which device couldn’t be mounted or informing that init couldn’t be
found.
E. An error message is shown stating that the corresponding kernel module couldn’t be loaded.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
What is the correct parameter to pass to the kernel at boot time to force it to use only one of the available
processors?
A. maxcpus=1
B. usecpus=1
C. smpcpus=1
D. vcpumx=1
117-201 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
What information does the file modules.dep provide?
A. A list of all modules, compiled or not, that are available to the kernel.
B. A list of modules trusted by the installed kernel.
C. A list of devices and their module name.
D. A list of all compiled modules and their dependencies.
E. A list of modules the kernel needs to run.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which commands are used to load modules into the Linux kernel? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. insmod
B. loadmod
C. kernload
D. modprobe
E. probemod
117-201 dumps Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 25
What is the purpose of the command udevadm monitor?
A. It listens to kernel events produced by a udev rule and print information to the console.
B. It monitors the /dev directory for new devices.
C. It monitors the udev process and prints performance statistics to the console.
D. It communicates with D-Bus to setup new devices.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which option to the update-rc.d command will cause the removal of all symlinks to /etc/rcX.d/*test2 even
when the script /etc/init.d/test2 still exists?
A. -d
B. -f
C. -n
D. -r
117-201 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
If all of the following files and/or symlinks exist in a SysV-init runlevel directory, which of the following will
be executed first when booting the system directly into the runlevel?
A. S99lpi
B. K99lpi
C. PRE-S99lpi
D. S98lpi
E. S99a-lpi
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
A system with SysV-init has a service installed called apache2. Which file controls the start and stop of this
service and is referenced by the various runlevel directories?
A. /etc/init.d/apache2
B. /etc/rc2.d/70apache2
C. /etc/rc2.d/apache2
D. /etc/rc2.d/apache2.start
117-201 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
After changing the default runlevel in the SysV-init configuration file, the system boots in a different than intended runlevel. Where else could this different runlevel be defined?
A. In the /etc/sysctl.conf
B. In the boot loader configuration file
C. In the /etc/runlevel file
D. In the /boot/initramfs file
E. In the /etc/rc.d/rc.local file
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Why is the root file system mounted read-only during boot and remounted with write permission later on?
A. Because if problems with the root file system are detected during the boot, fsck can be run, without risk of damage.
B. Because this way crackers cannot collect information about root with boot sniffers.
C. To avoid writing to the disk, unless the root password is known.
D. To avoid other operating systems overwriting the Linux root partition.
E. Because the disk has its own write protection that cannot be changed by the operating system.
117-201 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
During booting, when the Linux kernel loads an initramfs file, which command from the initramfs will be executed first, if present?
A. /init
B. /initrd
C. /linuxrc
D. /rc.local
E. /sbin/init
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Y0-351
Exam Name: Citrix NetScaler 10.5 Essentials and Networking
Q&As: 289

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QUESTION 14
Scenario: The NetScaler is connected to two subnets. The NSIP is 10.2.9.12. The external SNIP is 10.2.7.3. The MIP for internal access is 10.2.9.3. Web servers, authentication servers and time servers are on the 10.2.10.0/24 network which is available through the 10.2.9.1 router. The external firewall has the 10.2.7.1 address. Traffic bound for Internet clients should flow through the external firewall. Which command should be used to set the default route?
A. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.7.1
B. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.9.1
C. add route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.2.9.1
D. add route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.2.7.1
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Some SSL certificate files may be missing from a NetScaler appliance. Which directory should an engineer check to determine which files are missing?
A. /nsconfig/ssl
B. /nsconfig/ssh
C. flash/nsconfig/
D. /var/netscaler/ssl/
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Scenario: An engineer has been hired to manage the content-switching configurations on the NetScaler. The user account for this engineer must have the standard rules that apply to the other administrators. What should the engineer do to allow for the extra privileges?
A. Modify the current Command Policy and then save the changes.
B. Unbind the current Command Policy of the user account and then save the changes.
C. Remove the custom Command Policy and then create one with the new requirements.
D. Create a custom Command Policy and bind it to the user account with the highest priority.
1Y0-351 dump Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
A network engineer needs to configure smart card-based authentication on NetScaler Access Gateway. Which type of authentication policy could the engineer configure in order to accomplish this task?
A. Local
B. RADIUS
C. Certificate
D. Secure LDAP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network. Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?
A. Network -> IPs
B. System -> Auditing
C. AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D. Protection Features -> Filter
1Y0-351 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of 10.20.30.40. Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address. Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only
allow HTTPS access?
A. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B. set ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C. set ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Company policy states that SNMP management should only be allowed from specific hosts. What should the network engineer do to prevent unauthorized access to SNMP?
A. Add an SNMP manager.
B. Add an SNMP trap destination.
C. Check secure access only on the NSIP.
D. Add an SNMP community name that is difficult to guess.
1Y0-351 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A NetScaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the NetScaler device. How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the NetScaler?
A. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B. Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D. Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?
A. Add a Simple ACL.
B. Disable USNIP Mode.
C. Create an Extended ACL.
D. Add a Host Route to the virtual server.
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Scenario: An engineer created a new test Web Interface site for the new XenDesktop farm that the IT Department is developing. Several weeks later the engineer finds out that several people across the company have been accessing the new test site. The engineer needs to ensure that only the IT Department subnets can access the test site. How could the engineer restrict access to the site so that only certain subnets can access this resource?
A. Add an Extended ACL to only allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
B. Modify an existing simple ACL to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
C. Enable USNIP Mode on the appliance to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
D. Change the Access Method on the Web Interface Site to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface
Site.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for an FTP site. Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Rule
B. Source IP
C. Cookie Insert
D. Custom Server ID
1Y0-351 dump Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Scenario: Example.com runs a dating service site that provides a service with videos of candidates. They want to use RTSP load balancing to stream the videos more effectively. Which load balancing method should the engineer select?
A. Least packet
B. Round Robin
C. Least bandwidth
D. Least connection
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for secured web traffic that does NOT terminate at the NetScaler device. Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Source IP
B. Cookie Insert
C. URL Passive
D. SRCIPDESTIP
1Y0-351 pdf Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 642-998
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Q&As: 182

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QUESTION 103
Which document is the least relevant as an output deliverable from the design phase?
A. high-level design
B. site requirements specification
C. configurations
D. migration plan
642-998 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
Which performance characteristic is least likely to require being addressed in the data center solution requirements?
A. server virtualization
B. desktop virtualization
C. distributed computing
D. private cloud
E. power efficiency
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 105
Which item can be used as an alternative reconnaissance tool to the NetApp OnCommand Balance application?
A. NetIQ PlateSpin
B. VKernel vOPS
C. Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit
D. VMware vCenter Orchestrator plug-in
E. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 106
Which design steps could be considered optional?
A. audit
B. solution sizing
C. analysis
D. deployment provision
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 107
Which technology differentiates a data center designed around Cisco equipment versus another vendor?
A. NPV
B. NPIV
C. VSANs
D. FCoE
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 108
All debit payments are stopped when the user issues a stop payment for a given debit card number. A message gets sent to the Debit Card application once the stop payment is successful.
How would the stop payment be measured?
A. 1 EQ and 1 EI
B. 1 EI
C. 1 EO
D. 1 EQ
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 109
At the end of each month, Application A sends a transaction file to Application B. The transaction file contains a listing of item information including item number, item description and item price. All three attributes in the transaction file are contained in the Item ILF in Application A. For Application
A, how would the elementary process be measured?
A. EI
B. EO
C. EQ
D. EIF
642-998 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 110
Which would be measured as multiple EQs?
A. Queries with identical processing logic, displayed on different screens
B. Graphical displays with no calculations and different processing logic
C. Multiple methods of invoking the same inquiry logic
D. Both A & B
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 111
Software is developed to convert the data from the Account application to the Relationship Management application. The Account Master ILF and four other ILFs in the Account application
are referenced to create the Client Master file in the Relationship Management application. How is (are) the conversion function(s) counted for the Application Function Point measure?
A. 1 EI
B. 1 EQ, I EI
C. 5 EQs, 1 EI
D. Not counted
642-998 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 112
A report is created that displays all of the high net worth clients. The report calculates the net worth of a client by totaling the balances from all of their accounts with the firm including unrealized gains and losses. If the net worth of the client exceeds $5 million the client is included on the report. The report retrieves the name, address and phone number from the master account
file and generates a list. How would this be counted?
A. 1 EI
B. 1 EO
C. 1 EQ
D. Not counted
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 113
The data retrieved from the state drop down list is obtained by reading the State file that contains only state code and state description. The State file is not updated frequently as states are not added on a frequent basis. How would the drop down list be measured?
A. 1 EQ with 1 FTR
B. 1 EO with 1FTR
C. 1 EQ with OFTR
D. Not counted
642-998 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 114
Which of the following rules apply when counting DETs for both EOs and EQs?
A. Count one DET for each unique user recognizable, non-repeated attribute that crosses the boundary
B. Count one DET for each literal such as report titles or screen identifiers
C. Count one DET for each attribute generated within the boundary and saved to an ILF without exiting the boundary
D. Count one DET for each navigation aid used to navigate within a list
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 115
Which of the following rules would apply when counting FTRs for an EI?
A. Count one FTR for each unique data function that is accessed
B. Count one FTR for each transactional function read during the processing of the EI
C. Count two FTRs for each unique data function that is both maintained and read
D. None of the above
642-998 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 116
The user can request the same data to be displayed in four languages. The data in the different languages are stored in user-maintained tables. How would this display of data be measured?
A. 1 EQ
B. 4 EQs
C. 1 EO
D. 4 EOs
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 117
At the end of the month, Application X sends a transaction file to Application Y. The transaction file contains a listing of employees that includes employee id, department, department description,
and the total number of employees. Three of these attributes are contained in the Employee ILF in Application X, with the exception of the total number of employees which Is a computed attribute.
Which statement is true for Application X?
A. The elementary process is measured as an EO
B. The elementary process is measured as an EQ
C. Three DETs are measured for the transaction sent to Application Y
D. None of the above
642-998 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 118
An EO maintains 1ILF and references 3 ILFs. What is the minimum number of DETs necessary for it to be valued at 7 LFP?
A. 1
B. 6
C. 20
D. It can never be valued at 7 LFP
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 119
What would be the correct sequence of activities for measuring transactional functions? 1. Classify each transactional function as an EI, EO or EQ 2. Identify each elementary process required by
the user 3. Determine the functional complexity for each transactional function 4. Determine the functional size for each transactional function 5. Count FTRs for each transactional function 6. Count DETs for each transactional function
A. 1-3-2-1-4-5
B. 2-3-1-6-5-4
C. 4-2-1-5-6-3
D. 2-1-5-6-3-4
642-998 vce Answer: D

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 32
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which syslog severity level is level number 7?
A. Warning
B. Informational
C. Notification
D. Debugging
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
For a tax system the earnings € 4.000 are tax free, the following € 1.500 are charged at 10%, the
following € 28.000 at 20% and the remainder above 40%. All values are rounded to € 1.
What test case could result from a boundary value analysis?
2 credits
A. 1500
B. 33501
C. 4499
D. 28001
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
A specification states: “If the fossil is Jurassic in origin then it must be catalogued under Mesozoic post Triassic and cross referred to politic limestone. If it is a tooth, then it must be catalogued under Dental remains. If the fossil is both Jurassic in origin and a tooth it will be catalogued under Mesozoic post Triassic and cross referred to politic limestone only. ” The tester analyses this for decision table testing and finds the following conditions and actions:
C1: Jurassic
C2: tooth
A1: Catalogue as Mesozoic post Triassic
A2: Cross refer to politic limestone
A3: Catalogue as
Dental remains
How many test cases will a collapsed decision table have?
2 credits
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 36
A route calculation for a car navigation system has been developed using the following state table: How many test cases are needed to achieve 0-switch coverage?
2 credits
A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 12
210-260 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 37
Which process occurs first during the Ethernet Discovery Stage process for a PPPoE service offering?
A. The ERX router sends an Active Discovery Offer message.
B. The ERX router sends an Active Discovery Initiation message.
C. The customer device sends an Active Discovery Offer message.
D. The customer device sends an Active Discovery Initiation message.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 38
You would like to associate a profile called ip-info with a PPPoE interface operating on FastEthernet 3/1.200. Which set of configuration commands accomplishes this goal?
A. subinterface fastethernet 3/1.200.1 profile ip-info
B. pppoeinterface fastethernet 3/1.200.1 profile ip-info
C. pppoe interface fastethernet 3/1.200.1 profile ip-info
D. pppoe subinterface fastethernet 3/1.200.1 profile ip-info
210-260 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 39
In a DSL network, which device terminates the PPP over Ethernet subscriber’s two-wire phone line?
A. RAS
B. DSLAM
C. ATM switch
D. RADIUS server
Answer: B
QUESTION: 40
A user is connected on a DSL line and is using a PPP over Ethernet service. Which network device strips the ATM header from the datagram and investigates the PPP header?
A. DSLAM
B. DSL modem
C. ERX Edge Router
D. customer workstation
210-260 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 41
Which configuration command dynamically detects and configures a Bridged 1483 interface?
A. auto-configure ip
B. auto-configure ppp
C. auto-configure pppoe
D. auto-configure bridgedethernet
Answer: D
QUESTION: 42
Which profile configuration command dynamically creates a host route in the routing table?
A. ip host routes
B. ip access-routes
C. host routes enabled
D. access-routes enabled
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION:43
With the CLI command profile atm1483 bulk-config-name test atm-pppoe, which three
statements describe its purpose and implementation? (Choose three.)
A. Profile atm1483 must be applied to the atm major interface.
B. The bulk-config-name used is test atm-pppoe.
C. The bulk-config-name used is test.
D. Atm-pppoe is the atm base profile.
E. Atm-pppoe is the atm level interface description.
Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 44
You are configuring a PPP over Ethernet service offering. Which two types of interfaces can be
dynamically created with a profile? (Choose two.)
A. IP
B. ATM
C. PPPoA
D. PPPoE
210-260 pdf Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 45
Which profile configurations allows either PAP or CHAP to be used for authentication?
A. ppp authentication chap pap
B. pppoe authentication chap pap
C. ppp authentication chap ppp authentication pap
D. pppoe authentication chap pppoe authentication pap
Answer: A
QUESTION: 46
Where are L2TP attributes configured on a LAC?
A. profile
B. domain map
C. L2TP tunnel map
D. outgoing interface to the LNS
Answer: B
QUESTION: 47
Which CLI command is used to examine whether an L2TP tunnel can be established for domain isp1.com?
A. l2tp tunnel test [email protected]
B. test l2tp session [email protected]
C. test l2tp tunnel [email protected]
D. tunnel l2tp test [email protected]
210-260 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 48
Which two statements are true about L2TP tunnel switching? (Choose two.)
A. Requires only one tunnel switching license.
B. Requires two licenses, one for inbound and one for outbound sessions.
C. Enabled automatically when the BSR is configured as an LAC and LNS.
D. Aids in L2TP tunnel scaling.
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 49
What is the function of L2TP?
A. It allows L2F tunnels across the network.
B. It allows GRE tunnels across the network.
C. It allows PPTP tunnels across the network.
D. It allows PPP to be tunneled across a network.
210-260 exam Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-743
Exam Name: Microsoft Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 107

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1.Given:
10. class One {
11. void foo() { }
12. }
13. class Two extends One {
14. //insert method here
15. }
Which three methods, inserted individually at line 14, will correctly complete class Two? (Choose
three.)
A. public void foo() { /* more code here */ }
B. private void foo() { /* more code here */ }
C. protected void foo() { /* more code here */ }
D. int foo() { /* more code here */ }
E. void foo() { /* more code here */ }
70-743 exam Answer: A,C,E
2.Which two code fragments correctly create and initialize a static array of int elements? (Choose
two.)
A. static final int[] a = { 100,200 };
B. static final int[] a;
static { a=new int; a=100; a=200; }
C. static final int[] a;
static void init() { a = new int; a=100; a=200; }
D. static final int[] a = new int{ 100,200 };
Answer: A,B
3.Click the Exhibit button.
Given this code from Class B:
25. A a1 = new A();
26. A a2 = new A();
27. A a3 = new A();
28. System.out.println(A.getInstanceCount());
What is the result?
A. Compilation of class A fails.
B. Line 28 prints the value 3 to System.out.
C. Line 28 prints the value 1 to System.out.
D. Compilation fails because of an error on line 28.
E. A runtime error occurs when line 25 executes.
70-743 dumps Answer: A
4.Given:
20. public class CreditCard {
21.
22. private String cardID;
23. private Integer limit;
24. public String ownerName;
25.
26. public void setCardInformation(String cardID,
27. String ownerName,
28. Integer limit) {
29. this.cardID = cardID;
30. this.ownerName = ownerName;
31. this.limit = limit;
32. }
33. }
Which statement is true?
A. The cardID and limit variables break polymorphism.
B. The code demonstrates polymorphism.
C. The ownerName variable breaks encapsulation.
D. The setCardInformation method breaks encapsulation.
E. The class is fully encapsulated.
Answer: C
5.Given:
11. public class Yikes {
12.
13. public static void go(Long n) {System.out.println(“Long “);}
14. public static void go(Short n) {System.out.println(“Short “);}
15. public static void go(int n) {System.out.println(“int “);}
16. public static void main(String [] args) {
17. short y = 6;
18. long z = 7;
19. go(y);
20. go(z);
21. }
22. }
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. int Long
C. Compilation fails.
D. Short Long
70-743 pdf Answer: B
6.Given:
11. public class ItemTest {
12. private final int id;
13. public ItemTest(int id) { this.id = id; }
14. public void updateId(int newId) { id = newId; }
15.
16. public static void main(String[] args) {
17. ItemTest fa = new ItemTest(42);
18. fa.updateId(69);
19. System.out.println(fa.id);
20. }
21. }
What is the result?
A. A new Item object is created with the preferred value in the id attribute.
B. The attribute id in the Item object is modified to the new value.
C. Compilation fails.
D. An exception is thrown at runtime.
E. The attribute id in the Item object remains unchanged.
Answer: C
7.Click the Exhibit button.
Given:
25. try {
26. A a = new A();
27. a.method1();
28. } catch (Exception e) {
29. System.out.print(“an error occurred”);
30. }
Which two statements are true if a NullPointerException is thrown on line 3 of class C? (Choose two.)
A. The application will crash.
B. The code on line 29 will be executed.
C. The code on line 5 of class A will execute.
D. The exception will be propagated back to line 27.
E. The code on line 5 of class B will execute.
70-743 vce Answer: B,D
8.Given:
10. interface Jumper { public void jump(); }
…
20. class Animal {}
…
30. class Dog extends Animal {
31. Tail tail;
32. }
…
40. class Beagle extends Dog implements Jumper{
41. public void jump() {} 42. }
…
50. class Cat implements Jumper{
51. public void jump() {}
52. }
Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cat is-a Jumper
B. Cat is-a Animal
C. Dog is-a Jumper
D. Dog is-a Animal
E. Beagle has-a Jumper
F. Cat has-a Animal
G. Beagle has-a Tail
Answer: A,D,G
9.Given:
11. public static void main(String[] args) {
12. Object obj = new int[] { 1, 2, 3 };
13. int[] someArray = (int[])obj;
14. for (int i : someArray) System.out.print(i + ” “);
15. }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 13.
B. A ClassCastException is thrown at runtime.
C. 1 2 3
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 14.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 12.
70-743 exam Answer: C
10.Given:
10. class Line {
11. public static class Point {}
12. }
13.
14. class Triangle {
15. // insert code here
16. }
Which code, inserted at line 15, creates an instance of the Point class defined in Line?
A. Line l = new Line() ; l.Point p = new l.Point();
B. Line.Point p = new Line.Point();
C. The Point class cannot be instatiated at line 15.
D. Point p = new Point();
Answer: B
11.Click the Exhibit button.
What is the result?
A. The code will deadlock.
B. The code may run with output “2 0 6 4”.
C. The code may run with no output.
D. The code may run with output “0 6”.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
F. The code may run with output “0 2 4 6”.
70-743 dumps Answer: F
12.Given:
1. public class Blip {
2. protected int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
3. }
4. class Vert extends Blip {
5. // insert code here
6. }
Which five methods, inserted independently at line 5, will compile? (Choose five.)
A. protected int blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
B. protected long blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
C. private int blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
D. private int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
E. public int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
F. protected long blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
G. protected long blipvert(int x, int y) { return 0; }
Answer: A,C,E,F,G
13.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:
14.Given:
12. System.out.format(“Pi is approximately %d.”, Math.PI);
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. Compilation fails.
C. Pi is approximately 3.
D. Pi is approximately 3.141593.
70-743 pdf Answer: A

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