Index

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Exam Code: 70-488
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Q&As: 131
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QUESTION 5
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break
inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite
level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the
Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site
collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the
subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the
Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition
and permissions at the site level.
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection.
Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level
with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
70-488 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives.
For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that
apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From scenario:
* The CourierMobile app receives Microsoft Outlook appointments (D) and Outlook appointment
cancellations (E) from the CloudManager app. The appointments include the address of the location for
pick-up or drop-off.
QUESTION 7
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app. Which technologies should you use? (Each 70-488 dumps correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud.
lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but
D: LocalDB is a
it runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
* CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of location data daily as
they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet
* Cloudmanager App
/ The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of bicycle
couriers increases or decreases.
/ The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier location data from a data store capable of storing
more than 30 million items.
QUESTION 8
You need to create a custom sign-in page to allow the users of the FranchiseMonitor app to authenticate
against SharePoint and Margie’s Travel API.
What should you do?
A. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that
writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central
Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
B. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that
writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central
Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
C. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that
writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central
Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
D. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that
writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central
Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following refers to a process that is used for implementing information security
A. Classic information security model
B. Certification and Accreditation (C&A)
C. Information Assurance (IA)
D. Five Pillars model
70-488 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
In which of the following phases of the interconnection life cycle as defined by NIST SP 800-47, do
the organizations build and execute a plan for establishing the interconnection, including executing
or configuring appropriate security controls
A. Establishing the interconnection
B. Planning the interconnection
C. Disconnecting the interconnection
D. Maintaining the interconnection
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following tools demands involvement by upper executives, in order to integrate
quality into the business system and avoid delegation of quality functions to junior administrators
A. ISO 90012000
B. Benchmarking
C. SEI-CMM
D. Six Sigma
70-488 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following documents contains the threats to the information management, and the
security services and controls required to counter those threats
A. System Security Context
B. Information Protection Policy (IPP)
C. CONOPS
D. IMM
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following statements define the role of the ISSEP during the development of the
detailed security design, as mentioned in the IATF document Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It identifies the information protection problems that needs to be solved.
B. It allocates security mechanisms to system security design elements.
C. It identifies custom security products.
D. It identifies candidate commercial off-the-shelf (COTS)government off-the-shelf (GOTS)
security products.
70-488 exam Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following individuals is responsible for the oversight of a program that is supported by
a team of people that consists of, or be exclusively comprised of contractors
A. Quality Assurance Manager
B. Senior Analyst
C. System Owner
D. Federal program manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following agencies serves the DoD community as the largest central resource for
DoD and government-funded scientific, technical, engineering, and business related information
available today
A. DISA
B. DIAP
B. DTIC
C. DARPA
70-488 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
You work as a system engineer for BlueWell Inc. You want to verify that the build meets its data
requirements, and correctly generates each expected display and report. Which of the following
tests will help you to perform the above task
A. Functional test
B. Reliability test
C. Performance test
D. Regression test
Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As

QUESTION 1
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Correct Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 2
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, 200-125 dumps using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.

Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)
A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.
Correct Answer: A,D

QUESTION 7
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. 200-125 dumps What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 9
Refer to exhibit:

Which two destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Correct Answer: C,F

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 12
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 4
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected. 300-135 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
PC2 in VLAN 200 is unable to ping the gateway address 172.16.200.1; identify the issue.
A. VTP domain name mismatch on SW4
B. VLAN 200 not configured on SW1
C. VLAN 200 not configured on SW2
D. VLAN 200 not configured on SW4 Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By looking at the configuration for SW2, we see that it is missing VLAN 200, and the “switchport access vlan 200” command is missing under interface eth 0/0:
QUESTION 8. Which parameter in the Settings.txt file is used to specify the address of your Imaging server?
A. IPADDR B.
SERVER C.
PXEADDR
D. TFTPSRVR
E. PROXYADDR
F. PXESERVER
G. SERVERADDR
H. IMAGESRVRADDR
300-135 pdf Answer: E
QUESTION 9. With reference to ZENworks Desktop Management imaging, which term refers to an archived
collection of files to be added to an existing Windows installation on target workstation without overwriting
the existing hard drive contents? (Choose 2.)
A. Add-on image
B. File-only image
C. Workstation image
D. Application overlay
E. Image-safe data area
F. Application transform
Answer: AD
QUESTION 10. Which statements are true about ZENworks 6.5 Desktop Management site lists? (Choose 2.)
A. The Novell Client must be installed to use them.
B. They must be configured differently depending on which client is being used.
C. Users can access applications locally even if they authenticate across the WAN.
D. They can be implemented, regardless of whether users authenticate using the Novell Client or a ZENworks middle-tier server.
300-135 vce Answer: CD
QUESTION 11. What must be installed and configured on the server along with the Middle Tier Server in order for it to
function? (Choose 2.)
A. MySQL
B. Rsync
C. iSCSI
D. iManager
E. NetStorage
F. A web server
G. Workstation Imaging
H. Workstation Inventory
Answer: EF
QUESTION 12. You need to deliver applications to your users and workstations that reside in remote locations outside
your organization’s firewall. What is required to accomplish this using ZENworks 6.5 Desktop
Management?
A. Load Nal.nlm with the -N switch.
B. Implement the ZENworks Middle-Tier server.
C. Load Appman.nlm with the -PASSTHROUGH switch.
D. Enable dynamic NAT passthrough on the server where ZENworks is installed.
300-135 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 13
You can create or service inventories.
A. process-specific, process-wide
B. domain, enterprise
C. domain, process-specific
D. enterprise, process-specific
Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
And are used to classify and organize services within a service
inventory.
A. service compositions, service-oriented solutions
B. service capabilities, service compositions
C. service models, service layers
D. service contracts, service capabilities
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 15
The standardization of services within a service inventory supports the repeated
of services, thereby increasing their potential reuse.
A. integration
B. composition
C. definition
D. expression
Answer: B
QUESTION: 16
Solution logic is classified as “service-oriented” after:
A. it has been built using Web services
B. it has been built using RPC technologies
C. it has been performance tested to a meaningful extent
D. service-orientation has been applied to a meaningful extent
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 17
A can be part of a/an which can be assembled from
within a/an .
A. component, object, enterprises, service
B. service inventory, service, enterprises, service composition
C. service, service composition, services, service inventory
D. service inventory, service, service compositions, enterprise
Answer: C
QUESTION: 18
Two common, yet opposing SOA delivery approaches are:
A. bottom-up and upside-down
B. top-down and left-to-right
C. upside-down and left-to-right
D. none of the above
300-135 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 19
When designing service-oriented architectures, it is important to take the strategic goal of
Increased Vendor Diversity Options into account, because this goal:
A. encourages you to commit to one vendor platform and stick with that platform, which
fosters long-term flexibility
B. encourages you to retain the constant option of using proprietary vendor features and
extensions so that they can be entrenched into your service-oriented architectures for
long-term flexibility
C. encourages you to retain the constant option to extend or replace parts of your
service- oriented architectures with different vendor technologies or products, which
fosters long-term flexibility
D. encourages you to bridge disparity between vendor platforms by using modern
transformation technologies for long-term flexibility
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-696
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Updated: Sep 13, 2017
Q&As: 86

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QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the personal devices that run Windows 8.1 meet the corporate
security policy requirements.
What should you do first?
A. Create a federated trust with Windows Azure Active Directory.
B. Create a federated identity relationship with the Microsoft Federation Gateway.
C. Enroll the device in Windows Intune.
D. Join the devices to the domain by using an offline domain join.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
You need to resolve the Windows update issue.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in Active Directory.
B. Synchronize software updates from Configuration Manager.
C. Create an automatic deployment rule.
D. Add distribution points to each branch office.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
You need to prepare Server11.
Which two actions should you perform 70-696 dumps? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a file named No_sms_on_drive in the root of drive C.
B. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to Automatic.
C. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary content location to E.
D. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to E.
E. Copy Prepdrv.inf to the root of drive C.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4
You need to identify the percentage of Configuration Manager client computers that are missing software
updates released by Microsoft.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence on Server3? To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
QUESTION 5.With which of the following processes is Problem Management least likely to
interface on a regular basis?
A. IT Financial Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Availability Management
70-696 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 6.Which of the following places Problem Management activities in the correct order:
A. Identify and record, classify, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, review the
change
B. Investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, identify and record
C. Identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, review the
change
D. Review a change, classify, identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise another
RFC
Answer: A
QUESTION 7.Which of the following activities may, exceptionally, be omitted for an urgent
change:
1. Recording that the change has been made
2. Testing the change
3. Holding a CAB meeting
4. Establishing a back-out plan
A. All of them
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
70-696 vce Answer : C
QUESTION 8.Why is Service Management so important to IT service providers?
A. The success of many businesses depends upon the quality of their IT
B. It’s the only way to manage IT in the Internet age
C. It’s contained within the IT Infrastructure Library
D. It’s the first non-proprietary initiative for the management of IT systems
Answer: A
QUESTION 9.Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management
process?
A. The physical aspects of software control
B. Ensuring that the accuracy of CMDB entries concerning software CIs is maintained
C. Helping to determine the software release policy
D. Distributing software
70-696 practice exam Answer: B
QUESTION 10.A service-based (rather than a customer-based) SLA:
A. Covers all services for a particular customer
B. Covers a set of similar services, for a single customer
C. Covers all services
D. Covers a single service, for all of the customers of that service
Answer: D
QUESTION 11.Possible problems with Change Management include:
A. Greater ability to absorb a large volume of change
B. Increased visibility and communication of changes
C. Lack of ownership of impacted services
D. Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
70-696 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 12.Which of these is/are TRUE?
1. Functional escalation is an essential part of the Incident Management process
2. All calls to the Service Desk should be treated as incidents
3. Service Requests can be handled by Service Desk Staff
A. 1 and 3
B. All three of them
C. Only 1
D. 1 and 2
Answer: A
QUESTION 13.Who must always authorise a Request for Change before the change is built and
tested?
A. The Configuration Manager
B. The Change Initiator C.
The Change Manager D.
Release Management
70-696 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 14.Why is there sometimes conflict between the goals of Incident Management and
those of Problem Management?
A. Because specialist support staff do not properly document the work-arounds they
identify which consequently prevents the 1st line support staff from applying them the
next time the incident occurs
B. Because Problem Management is often carried out by technical staff who also have
operations responsibilities and who cannot allocate enough resources to problem solving
C. Because Problem Management is focusing on identifying permanent solutions and
therefore the speed with which these solutions are found is of secondary importance
D. Because Problem Management staff rarely give feedback spontaneously, forcing the
1st line support staff to chase them
Answer: C
QUESTION 15.Which of the following requirements must be met to successfully run the DLP 7.0 Enterprise Manager
installation program?
A.Minimum 2 gigabytes of available ram
B.Minimum 10 gigabytes of available space
C.Minimum Processor Speed of 1.950 GHZ
D.All of the above
70-696 practice exam Answer:D
QUESTION 16.Which of the following statements are true about DLP policies? (Choose two)
A.Existing policies may be reordered.
B.Existing policies cannot be changed. They must be deleted and new policies created to replace them.
C.The DLP administrator cannot create new policies; new polices must be purchased from RSA.
D.Datacenter policies can be changed without ever losing the incremental scan results and requiring a full
scan.
E.Network, Datacenter, or Endpoint sections of a policy can be individually disabled or enabled without
affecting the other sections.
Answer:A E
QUESTION 17.What is the maximum number of DLP Network Sensors, Interceptors, and ICAP Servers that can be
managed by one DLP Network Controller?
A.25
B.50
C.100
D.It depends on the license that has been purchased.
70-696 dumps Answer:A
QUESTION 18.Automatic remediation actions can be configured in policy DLP Datacenter policies in DLP release 7.0
and later releases.
A.True
B.False
Answer:A
QUESTION 19.Which of the following endpoint actions can be detected, audited or blocked by the DLP Endpoint
Enforcement Agent? (Choose two)
A.Screen capture
B.Printing to a file
C.Bluetooth File transfer
D.Copying to a floppy disk or hard drive
E.Copying a file from one network share to another network share
Answer:B D

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Exam Code: 300-320
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Updated: Sep 12, 2017
Q&As: 389

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Pass4itsure 300-320 dumps exam questions answers are updated (389 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 300-320 dumps is CCDP.

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-320 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 1 Which two features provide resiliency in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco FabricPath
B. VTP
C. encryption
D. vPC
E. VRF
300-320 exam Answer: A,D
Question No : 2 What is an advantage of using the vPC feature in a data center environment?
A. VSS is a requirement.
B. Multiple instances of control plane are formed.
C. The control plane and management plane remain separate.
D. Cisco FabricPath technology does not have to be configured.
Answer: C
Question No : 3  What is the latest Cisco 300-320 dumps high-availability solution?
A. VRRP
B. HSRP
C. VSS
D. GLBP
Answer: C
Question No : 4 A network engineer must provide 40mb connections from the data center to the corporate office and two remote offices. What WAN connectivity option will outsource the routing in cooperation with the service provider?
A. Ethernet Private Line
B. Ethernet Multipoint Service
C. MPLS VPN
D. VPLS
Answer: C
Question No : 5 Which three authentication services are supported by Cisco NAC Appliance? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. Kerberos
D. TACACS+
E. local
F. SNMP
300-320 pdf Answer: A,B,C
Question No : 6 Which technology can block interfaces and provide a loop-free topology?
A. STP
B. VSS
C. VLAN
D. vPC
Answer: D
Question No: 7
Which two technologies provide web and URL filtering and mitigate zero-day malware?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco CWS
B. Cisco WSA
C. Cisco GETVPN
D. Cisco ESA
E. NAT/PAT
300-320 exam Answer: A,B
Question No: 8. A manual checkpoint issued in a user database:
A. Writes a checkpoint record to each user log cache.
B. Flushes the tempdb database.
C. Writes dirty log and dirty data pages of the current database to disk.
D. Commits all current transactions.
Answer: C
Question No: 9. After issuing the dbcc engine(offline) command, if that engine tasks cannot be migrated to another
engine within approximately 5 minutes, then:
A. The tasks are killed.
B. The command is aborted.
C. Only an error message is returned.
D. The tasks are put into a state of recv sleep.
300-320 arch dumps Answer: A
Question No: 10. Given the following command: create database test Which master database table will be affected by this command?
A. sysobjects
B. syscomments
C. sysindexes
D. sysdatabases
Answer: D
Question No: 11. Which of the following can NOT be done with segments to improve performance?
A. You can place heavily used objects on physical disks dedicated to those objects.
B. You can split large tables across several disks.
C. You can put a heavily used table on one disk and its nonclustered indexes on a separate disk.
D. You can put a heavily used table on one disk and its clustered index on a separate disk.
300-320 arch pdf Answer: D
Question No: 12. Cursors outside a stored procedure are optimized and compiled when:
A. the program starts
B. they are declared
C. they are opened
D. the first row is fetched
Answer: C
Question No: 13. The minimum size of a named cache is
A. 512 Kb
B. 1024 Kb
C. 5.0 Mb
D. 10 extents
E. There is no enforced minimum size
300-320 exam Answer: A
Question No: 14. Which databases are required for a properly functioning ASE 12.0?
A. master, model, tempdb, sybsystemprocs, sybsystemdb
B. master, model, tempdb, sybsystemprocs, sybsecurity
C. master, model, tempdb, sybsystemdb, sybsecurity, dbccdb
D. master, model, tempdb, dbccdb, sybsystemprocs
Answer: A
Question No: 15. ASE has the following locking schemes: (Choose 3)
A. allpages – index page(s) and data page(s) are locked for the duration of the modification transaction
B. datapages – locks just data page(s) for the duration of the modification transaction
C. datapages – locks just data page(s) and index row(s) for the duration of the modification transaction
D. datarows – locks only data row(s) and index row(s) for the duration of the modification transaction
E. datarows – locks only data row(s) for the duration of the modification transaction
300-320 Answer: ABE
Question No: 16 The database sybsystemdb provides support for:
A. advanced security
B. high availability failover
C. java classes and stored procedures
D. distributed transaction management
E. system stored procedures
Answer: D
Question No: 17. To change the locking scheme for an existing table you must:
A. unload target database using bcp out, use alter database, load the data back using bcp in
B. use the alter table command
C. change the server configuration for locking schemes
D. none of the above
300-320 arch dumps Answer: B
Question No: 18. Which system database is used to store intermediate results from queries?
A. master
B. model
C. tempdb
D. sybsystemprocs
Answer: C
Question No: 19. When the server has an additional connection attempt beyond what you are licensed for, what action
does the license monitor take?
A. the connection hangs until someone else disconnects
B. ASE sends an error to the user notifying them of the license restriction, and asks them to try later
C. ASE executes an extended stored procedure that pages the local SYBASE sales rep, but allows the
connection attempt to succeed
D. ASE locks the violating login from using the server until an SSO unlocks this violating login
E. none of the above
300-320 arch pdf Answer: E
Question No: 20. Which three segments are created when a database is created? (Choose 3)
A. system
B. logsegment
C. dbdevice D.
default
Answer: ABD
Question No: 21. What is the default user-defined ole behavior at login time?
A. All the user-defined roles are OFF.
B. All the user-defined roles are ON.
C. Only user-defined roles with password are ON.
D. Only user-defined roles without password are ON.
300-320 exam Answer: A
Question No: 22. Which databases are required for a properly functioning ASE?
A. master, model, tempdb, sybsystemprocs, sybsystemdb
B. master, model, tempdb, sybsystemprocs, sybsecurity
C. master, model, tempdb, sybsystemdb, sybsecurity, dbccdb
D. master, model, tempdb, dbccdb, sybsystemprocs
Answer: A
Question No: 23. When are data pages written from memory to disk?
A. when a user issues a begin transtatement
B. when a user issues a save transtatement
C. when a user issues a commit transtatement
D. when a checkpoint occurs
E. when the user ends the client connection
Answer: D
Question No: 24. To perform a routine backup of the transaction log for a critical production database called prod_db use
A. dump transaction prod_db
B. dump transaction prod_db with no_truncate C.
dump transaction prod_db with truncate_only D.
dump transaction prod_db with no_log
E. Set the database option ‘trunc log on chkpt’ to true so that the transaction log will automatically be backed up
300-320 arch dumps Answer: A
Question No: 25. Table A has the following characteristics: Datarows locking No indexes 5000 rows 400 data pages no
partitions Table B has the following characteristics: Allpages locking No indexes 5000 rows 400 data pages no partitions Using default session settings, which of the following queries will run successfully? (Choose 3)
A. select * from A at isolation 1
B. select * from B at isolation 0
C. select * from B at isolation 1
D. select * from A at isolation 0
Answer: ACD

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Sep 10, 2017
Q&As: 204

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The List: New Describe Topics for ICND2 200-105 Dumps:

The new ICND2 200-105 exam topics list several conceptual exam topics, all that use the verb describe, as paraphrased below:

1.7.a Describe… 802.1x (was already in the books; just new to the exam topics)

1.7.b Describe DHCP snooping

3.4 Describe WAN topology options

3.5.d Describe DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint VPN)

4.2 Describe the effects of cloud on enterprise WANs

4.3 Describe QoS concepts

5.5 Describe Network Programmability in an Enterprise network

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)  What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth
usage.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST)
Introduction
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) maintains a spanning tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network. This means a switch can be the root bridge of a VLAN while another switch can be the root bridge of other VLANs in a common topology. For example, Switch 1 can be the root bridge for Voice data while Switch 2 can be the root bridge for Video data. If designed correctly, it can optimize the network traffic.
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
The question says “no other configuration changes have been made” so we can understand these switches have the same bridge priority. SwitchC has lowest MAC address so, it will become root bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated
ports (DP). Because SwitchC is the root bridge the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports (RP) -> B and F are correct. SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose? To answer this question we
need to know about STP cost and port cost.  In general, “cost” is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link, the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize: Link speed Cost SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the
root port so we must calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated from the “cost to the root bridge” of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU.
SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of 1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses Gi0/1 as its root port. Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of
SwitchA will be designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
CCNA Self-Study (ICND Exam): Extending Switched Networks with Virtual LANs
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.

What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow
communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# no shut down
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
The two answers B and E list all the commands needed to configure interVLAN routing. Please notice that Cisco switch 2950, 2960 only support dot1Q trunking so we don’t need to specify which trunking encapsulation to use in this case. For Cisco switches 3550 or above we have to use these commands instead:
Switch3550(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Switch3550(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1) Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Port Roles
The role is now a variable assigned to a given port. The root port and designated port roles remain, while the blocking port role is split into the backup and alternate port roles. The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) determines the role of a port based on Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs). In order to simplify matters, the thing to remember about a BPDU is there is always a method to compare any two of them and decide whether one is more
useful than the other. This is based on the value stored in the BPDU and occasionally on the port on which they are received. This considered, the information in this section  explains practical approaches to port roles. Compatibility with 802.1D RSTP is able to interoperate with legacy STP protocols. However, it is important to note that the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.
QUESTION NO: 9
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET
Framework 3.5. You create a Web form in the application that permits users to provide personal
information. You add a DropDownList control to the Web form to retrieve the residential status of
users. The default item that the DropDownList control displays is the “Select Country” option. You
have to ensure that users select a country other than the default option. Which of the following
validation controls should you use to accomplish this task?
A. RangeValidator
B. RequiredFieldValidator
C. CustomValidator
D. RegularExpressionValidator
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You create an application for the company. You need to
validate the phone number passed to a class as a parameter in the application. Which of the
following is the most effective way to verify that the format of the data matches a phone number?
A. Regular expressions
B. Nested If statements
C. Use the String.Length property
D. A try/catch block
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows
application using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When
the users try to complete a particular action, the following error message comes out:
Unable to find assembly ‘myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral,
PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95′.
You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced
component that was registered by using the following command:
regsvcs.exe myservices.dll
You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with
no exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications folder.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 12
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its
application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to
encrypt all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish
the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application can be used only for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The library will be used to open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the GAC and provide it Full Trust permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections: SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted);
permission.Assert();
A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to
open the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion.
Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 15
You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to create roles for the employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a
SQL Server database named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
Answer: A
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Exam Code: 70-331
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Updated: Aug 21, 2017
Q&As: 226

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QUESTION NO: 1
What will the variable “age” be in class B?
class A {
int x;
protected:
int y;
public:
int age;
A () { age=5; };
};
class B : public A {
string name;
public:
B () { name=”Bob”; };
void Print() {
cout << name << age;
}
};
A. public
B. private
C. protected
D. None of these
70-331 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
class complex{
double re, im;
public:
complex() : re(1),im(0.4) {}
complex operator?(complex &t);
void Print() { cout << re << ” ” << im; }
};
complex complex::operator? (complex &t){
complex temp;
temp.re = this?>re ? t.re;
temp.im = this?>im ? t.im;
return temp;
}
int main(){
complex c1,c2,c3;
c3 = c1 ? c2;
c3.Print();
}
A. It prints: 1 0.4
B. It prints: 2 0.8
C. It prints: 0 0
D. It prints: 1 0.8
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class complex{
double re;
double im;
public:
complex() : re(0),im(0) {}
complex(double x) { re=x,im=x;};
complex(double x,double y) { re=x,im=y;}
void print() { cout << re << ” ” << im;}
};
int main(){
complex c1;
c1 = 3.0;
c1.print();
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0 0
B. It prints: 1 1
C. It prints: 3 3
D. Compilation error
70-331 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
void fun(int);
int main()
{
int a=0;
fun(a);
return 0;
}
void fun(int n)
{
if(n < 2)
{
fun(++n);
cout << n;
}
}
A. It prints: 21
B. It prints: 012
C. It prints: 0
D. None of these
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int s(int n);
int main()
{
int a;
a = 3;
cout << s(a);
return 0;
}
int s(int n)
{
if(n == 0) return 1;
return s(n?1)*n;
}
A. It prints: 4
B. It prints: 6
C. It prints: 3
D. It prints: 0
70-331 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
What will be the output of the program?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int fun(int);
int main()
{
cout << fun(5);
return 0;
}
int fun(int i)
{
return i*i;
}
A. 25
B. 5
C. 0
D. 1
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
#define FUN(arg) if(arg) cout<<“Test”;
int main()
{
int i=1;
FUN(i<3);
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0
B. It prints: T
C. It prints: T0
D. It prints: Test
70-331 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 8
What will the variable “y” be in class B?
class A {
int x;
protected:
int y;
public:
int age;
};
class B : private A {
string name;
public:
void Print() {
cout << name << age;
}
};
A. public
B. private
C. protected
D. None of these
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
float x=3.5,y=1.6;
int i,j=2;
i = x + j + y;
cout << i;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 7
B. It prints: 6
C. It prints: 7,1
D. Compilation error
70-331 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main(){
int i = 1;
if (i==1) {
cout << i;
} else {
cout << i-1;
}
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0
B. It prints: 1
C. It prints: -1
D. It prints: 2
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
class complex{
double re, im;
public:
complex() : re(1),im(0.4) {}
complex operator+(complex &t);
void Print() { cout << re << ” ” << im; }
};
complex complex::operator+ (complex &t){
complex temp;
temp.re = this?>re + t.re;
temp.im = this?>im + t.im;
return temp;
}
int main(){
complex c1,c2,c3;
c3 = c1 + c2;
c3.Print();
}
A. It prints: 1 0.4
B. It prints: 2 0.8
C. It prints: 0 0
D. Garbage value
70-331 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <cstdlib>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
float* sum(float a,float b);
float* sum(float a,float b)
{
float *f = new float;
*f = a+b;
return f;
}
int main()
{
float a,b,*f;
a = 1.5; b = 3.4;
f = sum(a,b);
cout<<*f;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0
B. It prints: 4.9
C. It prints: 5
D. It prints: 4
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 13
Which statement should be added in the following program to make work it correctly?
using namespace std;
int main (int argc, const char * argv[])
{
cout<<“Hello”;
}
A. #include<stdio.h>
B. #include<stdlib.h>
C. #include <iostream>
D. #include<conio.h>
70-331 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
What is the output of the program?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int tab={10,20,30,40};
tab=10;
int *p;
p=&tab;
cout<<*p;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 10
B. It prints: 20
C. It prints: 11
D. It prints: 30
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 15
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int fun(int x) {
return 2*x;
}
int main(){
int i;
i = fun(1) & fun(0);
cout << i;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0
B. It prints: 1
C. It prints: -1
D. Compilation error
70-331 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class A {
public:
virtual void Print()=0;
};
class B:public A {
public:
virtual void Print() { cout<< “B”; }
};
class C:public A {
public:
virtual void Print() { cout<< “C”; }
};
int main()
{
B ob2;
C ob3;
A *obj;
obj = &ob2;
obj?>Print();
obj = &ob3;
obj?>Print();
}
A. It prints: BC
B. It prints: CB
C. It prints: CC
D. It prints: BB
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
What will the variable “age” be in class B?
class A {
int x;
protected:
int y;
public:
int age;
};
class B : private A {
string name;
public:
void Print() {
cout << name << age;
}
};
A. public
B. private
C. protected
D. None of these
70-331 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int x=5;
static int y;
int i=0;
void static myFunction()
{
y=x++ + ++i;
}
int main (int argc, const char * argv[])
{
x++;
myFunction();
cout<<y<<” “<<x<< ” ” << i;
}
A. Compilation fails
B. It prints: 5 5 0
C. It prints: 7 7 1
D. It prints: 6 5 1
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the structures is incorrect?
1:
struct s1{
int x;
long int li;
};
2:
struct s2{
float f;
struct s2 *s;
};
3:
struct s3{
float f;
struct s3 s;
};
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 2, 3
70-331 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
What is the output of the program?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
C++ Institute CPA Exam
int main()
{
string s1=”Wo”;
string s2;
s2 = s1;
string s3;
s3 = s2.append(“rldHello”);
cout << s3;
return( 0 );
}
A. It prints: WorldHello
B. It prints: HelloWo
C. It prints: World
D. It prints: Hello
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 21
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class complex{
double re;
double im;
public:
complex() : re(0),im(0) {}
complex(double x) { re=x,im=x;};
complex(double x,double y) { re=x,im=y;}
void print() { cout << re << ” ” << im;}
};
int main(){
complex c1(1,2);
c1.print();
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 1 0
B. It prints: 1 1
C. It prints: 1 2
D. Compilation error
70-331 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int fun(int x) {
return x<<2;
}
int main(){
int i;
i = fun(1) / 2;
cout << i;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0
B. It prints: 1
C. It prints: 2
D. It prints: 4
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 210-065
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 274

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QUESTION 14.When ServerProtect detects an infected file, which three actions can you configure the software to
initiate? (Choose three.)
A.bypass or ignore the file
B.clean and restore the file
C.return the infected file to the user
D.delete the infected file automatically
E.send the infected file to the BAIT folder
F.shut down the server where the file is found
G.delete the backup file that was made before cleaning
210-065 exam Answer: ABD
QUESTION 15.Which three options can be included in ServerProtect statistical reports? (Choose three.)
A.top-ten viruses found
B.top-ten infected users
C.number of spam messages found
D.frequency of infection sorted by virus type
E.total number of non-cleanable viruses found
F.number of unauthorized access entry attempts for a selected period of time
Answer: ABE
QUESTION 16.Which three notification methods are available in ServerProtect? (Choose three.)
A.numeric pager
B.Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) message
C.phone message using computer voice simulation
D.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) trap
210-065 dumps Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17.Which two functions are performed by the ServerProtect Management Console? (Choose two.)
A.stores information from the Normal Servers
B.centrally controls multiple file servers and domains
C.scans files and programs that reside on all connected servers
D.generates virus-incident reports from all ServerProtect servers
Answer: BD
QUESTION 18.Which statement is true about ServerProtect domains? A.One
Information Server manages each domain. B.ServerProtect
domains are the same as Windows NT domains.
C.All Normal Servers within a network must share a common domain.
D.Each ServerProtect domain is managed by a unique Management Console.
210-065 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 19
HD terminal HD is not the time to join the default output OUT1? ( )
A. the mainstream of home terminal
B. the presentation of home terminal
C. the remote mainstream
D. the remote presentation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which of the following several types are included in H323 node? (choose 3 answers)
A. terminal
B. MCU
C. the gateway
D. the routing
210-065 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 21
What are RP multifunctional intelligence installation modes? ( ) (select 3 answers)
A. Ceiling mode
B. Fixed Mode
C. Move mode
D. on the wall mode
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 22
After the conference, if the conference is still in a work from P will state the venue, the venue can call a
specific number of independent events join the conference, the particular number is ( )
A. Streaming service special code
B. Conference special code
C. PSTN special code
D. Chairman of the special code
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
“4CIF” Image resolution is 744X 576.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
What can select the input when call pear?
A. the opposite end IP address
B. the opposite end model
C. the opposite Physical location
D. the opposite end password
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
After a call to establish media connection, transmit two-way media streams between two H.239 terminals,
they do not share the call bandwidth.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
7Z0P image effect equal to ( )
A. 4CIF
B. 8CIF
C. 9CIF
D. 12CIF
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
HD camera can be turned on or off the image upside down functionality through VIDEO settings.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
SMC2.0 is mainly made up by ( ). (select 3 answers)
A. webServer
B. Background service
C. Database
D. Terminal
210-065 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 29
What are the following responsible for system streaming video and audio signal processing?
A. HDPA
B. POEA
C. GWBA
D. VOBA
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Can not be extended after the appointment conference.
A. True
B. False
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Which mode is used to configure the following open or close the image upside down function of HD
camera? ( )
A. IR
B. VIDEO
C. FLIP
D. MCU
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
By default, GE1 network interface works in what mode?
A. Backup mode
B. Capture mode
C. Dynamic switching
D. Fence model
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Broadcast television is one-way communication, can not communicate with each other, and two-way video
conferencing can spread, “face to face” communication.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
MCU main control board GCCX primarily responsible for video, audio, signaling and other information
exchange process, and execute control commands business management center.
A. True
B. False
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
MCU can not register to SwitchCentre or Resource Manager case may be? (select 3 answers)
A. Failure terminal
B. network failure
C. Registration parameters are inconsistent
D. segment limit
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 36
Network packet loss is high, Multi Resource Management Center will alarm.
A. True
B. False
210-065 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
MCU8650C height ( ) U.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Responsible for planning the following access E C} number is?
A. HDPA
B. POEA
C. GWBA
D. VOBA
210-065 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Conference access number is made up of ( ) and ( ). (Select 2 answers)
A. Sub-conference number
B. MCU Code
C. Conference special code
D. Cascade special code
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 40
Which of the following can be included in business features of multipoint resource management center?
(Choose 3 answers)
A. centralized management of resources
B. address resolution
C. the venue centralized management
D. conference control
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 41
I frame is a complete picture, and P-frames and B-frames is recorded with respect to change in I frames.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
Which layer does the HD terminal video communications system located in?
A. operational support layer
B. Network control layer
C. Media exchange layer
D. User Access Layer
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Large capacity multipoint generally cross-regional, level larger conferences, generally require multiple
cascaded MCU to ensure adequate capacity, the meeting was more superior to the lower
convey style.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
How many process does the IP address call mainly includes? (select 2 answers)
A. RPQ
B. setup
C. RCF
D. connected
210-065 vce Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 45
Multifunction Telepresence main scenario( )
A. Ordinary Meeting conference
B. Senior Management Office
C. Professional conference rooms
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
Which of the following types of equipment are high terminal accessories( ) (Select 3 answers)
A. array microphone
B. HD camera
C. Remote control
D. Switch
210-065 exam Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 47
H.323 gateway is between the circuit switched network and a packet switched network.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
HD Codec of the intelligence conference room supports 3-way high-definition video input and output.
A. True
B. False
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Which of the following is a configuration option HD Camcorder( ) (Select 3 answers)
A. IR
B. VIDEO
C. FLIP
D. MCU
Correct Answer: ABC

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Exam Code: 70-486
Exam Name: Developing ASP.NET MVC 4 Web Applications
Updated: Aug 12, 2017
Q&As: 136

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Question No : 1 Given an EAV-based data model, values for each of the object’s attributes are stored in
A. type-specific columns on a general purpose attribute-value storage table
B. a type-specific table used for storing all attribute values of the given type for all entities
C. a table specific to both the attributes data type and the given objects entity type
D. type-specific columns on an entity-specific attribute-value storage table
70-486 exam Answer: C
Question No : 2  Assume that:
$product is a loaded instance of Mage_Catalog_Model_Product/. Catalog Price
Scope is set to global, and
$customerGroupid contains a valid customer group ID.
Which one of the following statements will correctly set new group prices?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B


Question No : 3 What class does an adminhtml grid directly extend?
A. Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Widget
B. Varien_Data_Grid
C. Varien_Data_Widget
D. Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Template
70-486 dumps Answer: A
Question No : 4 What is the name of the shopping cart item created from a recurring product?
A. Nominal
B. Non-nominal
C. Virtual
D. Recurrent
Answer: A
Question No : 5 How can you make a payment method store entire credit card numbers?
A. For security reasons, there are no native ways for doing that.
B. Pass the credit card number to the payment method: it will be stored automatically.
C. Change the protected property of payment method $_canSaveCc to true.
D. Configure your method to save the card number by setting 1 to the following xpath:
70-486 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 6 What does Magento use to determine whether the automatically run upgrade scripts have
been run yet?
A. The modification date on the modules’ etc/config.xml file
B. The version number (or lack thereof) stored in the core_module_version table
C. The version number (or lack thereof) stored in the core_resource table
D. A comparison of the resources that are capable of successfully loading
Answer: C
Question No : 7 Which one of the following declares a Layout XML file?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-486 vce Answer: D
Question No : 8You want to define a list of quote object attributes that are copied to the order object when an order is placed. Which one of the following statements is true?
A. You can define this list by modifying the list of elements found in the configuration with
the xpath global/fieldsets/sales_convert_quote.
B. You can define this list by modifying the list of elements found in the configuration with
Question No : 9 the xpath global/sales/quote/item/product_attributes.
C. You can define this list by checking the checkbox on the attribute edit page in the admin.
D. You cannot modify the list of fields copied from quote to order because the process is
hardcoded.
70-486 exam Answer: A
Question No : 10 What is the basic class/interface for every model observer class?
A. Mage_Model_Config_Observer
B. Mage_Core_Model_Event_Observer_Abstract
C. Mage_Core_Model_Event_Observer_Interface
D. There is no required inheritance.
E. Varien_Object
Answer: D
Question No : 11 You want to filter a product collection so that it will return only SKUs 12 and 123. You will use a call to $collection->addFieldToFilter (‘sku’, ____________ );
Two of the following arrays could be used to complete that call correctly. Which two?
(Choose two)
A. array (‘sku’ => 12, ‘sku’ => 123)
B. array (array (‘eq’ => 12), array (‘eq’ => 123) )
C. array (12 => true, 123 => true)’
D. array (12, 123)
E. array (array (‘int’ => 12), array (‘int’ => 123) )
70-486 dumps Answer: B,D
Which one of the following API protocols does native Magento support?
A. XmlRpc
B. REST
C. POST
D. Open Social
E. XQuery
Answer: A
Question No : 12 Which one of the following statements is true regarding Mage_Core_Block_Text_List?
A. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List declares its own template for rendering, but the rendered
template can be overridden via layout XML.
B. Child blocks of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List are always rendered alphabetically by
name.
C. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List will always render all children automatically when it is
rendered.
D. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List directly extends Mage_Core_Block_Template
E. In order to render, the parent block of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List must always be an
output block.
70-486 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 13 You want to display a grid for a custom collection. After extending
Mage_Adminhtml_Block_widget_Grid, which two of these methods should you implement?
(Choose two)
A. _getCollection ( )
B. _prepareCollection ( )
C. _prepareColumns ( )
D. toHtml ( )
E. render ( )
Answer: B,C
Question No : 14 In which of the following integrations should you use the Magento API?
A. to send a SOAP request from Magento to a third-party system
B. to receive a SOAP request from a third-party system to Magento
C. to send or receive SOAP requests in Magento
D. to provide tracking on the order success page
70-486 vce Answer: B
Question No : 15 Which three of the following object types will have a parent class found in the Mage_Ea
module for the purposes of EAV data storage in Magento? (Choose three)
A. data model
B. data helper
C. resource model
D. resource collection
E. setup class
Answer: C,D,E
Question No : 16 In what order are the routers from the Magento core checked for a matching route?
Default: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Default
CMS: Mage_Cms_Controller_Router
Standard: Mage_Core_Controller_varien_Router_Standard
Admin: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Admin
A. Admin, Standard, CMS, Default
B. Default, CMS, Standard, Admin
C. Admin, CMS, Standard, Default
D. Standard, Admin, Default, CMS
70-486 exam Answer: A
Question No : 17 By enabling Flat catalog, you will ____________.
A. speed up performance on the frontend
B. speed up saving product on the backend
C. simplify the product import process
D. speed up loading product on the backend
Answer: A
Question No : 18 The initial call to ______________ will create and return an instance of the specified class. Subsequent calls to this method during the same execution cycle will return the same class
instance as opposed to creating a new one.
A. Mage::getResourceModel (‘namespace/modulename’);
B. Mage::getInstance (‘namespace/modulename’);
C. Mage::getModel (‘modulename/modelname’);
D. Mage::getSingleton (‘modulename/modelname’);
70-486 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 19 Which two public methods must be implemented in a functional custom shipping method
directly extending Mage_Shipping_Model_Carrier_Abstract and also implementing
Mage_Shipping_Model_Carrier_Interface? (Choose two)
A. collectRates ( )
B. getAllowedMethods ( )
C. isTrackingAvailable ( )
D. isFixed ( )
E. getConfigData ( )
F. checkAvailablesnipCountries ( )
Answer: A,B
Question No : 20 Which one of the following classes must you extend in order to implement a custom
indexer?
A. Mage_Eav_Model_Indexer_Abstract
B. Mage_Core_Model_lndexer_Abstract
C. Mage_Index_Model_Entity_Indexer_Abstract
D. Mage_Index_Model_Indexer_Abstract
70-486 pdf Answer: D
Question No : 21 When you register an event observer, which two of the following pieces of information are
required for it to function? (Choose two)
A. method (or function) name
B. method (or function) arguments
C. class name
D. object type (singleton, model, none, etc)
E. call order
F. active/inactive status
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Updated: Jul 30, 2017
Q&As: 205

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Question No : 8 DRAG DROP  You administer two virtual machines (VMs) that are deployed to a cloud service. The VMs
are part of a virtual network.
The cloud service monitor and virtual network configuration are configured as shown in the
exhibits. (Click the Exhibits button.)

You need to create an internal load balancer named fabLoadBalancer that has a static IP
address of 172.16.0.100.
Which value should you use in each parameter of the Power Shell command?
To answer, drag the appropriate value to the correct location in the Power Shell command.
Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the
split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

Question No : 9 HOTSPOT  You have a virtual machine (VM) that must be secured. Direct access to the VM is not
permitted. You create the following Azure PowerShell script. Line numbers are included for reference only.

You assign the virtual network to the variable $vnet. You assign the subnet to the variable
$backendSubnet. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true.
Otherwise, select No.

Question No : 10 DRAG DROP  You create a Push Notification service by using an Azure Notification Hub. You need to monitor the Notification Hub programmatically. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Question No : 11 DRAG DROP  You have a virtual machine (VM) that runs in Azure. The VM is located in a geographically
distant location from you.
You experience performance issues when you connect to the VM.
You need to resolve the performance issue.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Question No : 12  You manage a cloud service that hosts a customer-facing application. The application allows users to upload images and create collages. The cloud service is running in two medium instances and utilizes Azure Queue storage for image processing. The storage account is configured to be locally redundant. The sales department plans to send a newsletter to potential clients. As a result, you expect a significant increase in global traffic. You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements: What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Configure the cloud service to run in two Large instances.
B. Configure the cloud service to auto-scale to three instances when processor utilization is
above 80%.
C. Configure the storage account to be geo-redundant
D. Deploy a new cloud service in a separate data center. Use Azure Traffic Manager to
load balance traffic between the cloud services.
E. Configure the cloud service to auto-scale when the queue exceeds 1000 entries per
machine.
70-533 exam Answer: B,E
Explanation:
* An autoscaling solution reduces the amount of manual work involved in dynamically
scaling an application. It can do this in two different ways: either preemptively by setting
constraints on the number of role instances based on a timetable, or reactively by adjusting
the number of role instances in response to some counter(s) or measurement(s) that you
can collect from your application or from the Azure environment.
References:
Question No : 13 HOTSPOT  You have an Azure SQL Database named Contosodb. Contosodb is running in the Standard/S2 tier and has a service level objective of 99 percent. You review the service tiers in Microsoft Azure SQL Database as well as the results of running performance queries for the usage of the database for the past week as shown in
the exhibits. (Click the Exhibits button.)

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select
No.

Answer:

* The P1 performance level has 100 DTUs compared to the 200 DTUs of the P2
performance level. That means that the P1 performance level provides half the
performance of the P2 performance level. So 50% of CPU utilization in P2 equals 100%
CPU utilization in P1. As long as the application does not have timeouts, it may not matter
if a big job takes 2 hours or 2.5 hours to complete as long as it gets done today. An
application in this category can probably just use a P1 performance level. You can take
advantage of the fact that there are periods of time during the day where resource usage is
lower, meaning that any “big peak” might spill over into one of the

Question No : 14 DRAG DROP  You manage an application hosted on cloud services. The development team creates a
new version of the application. The updated application has been packaged and stored in an Azure Storage account. You have the following requirements: Which four steps should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

70-533 dumps Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Create a new cloud service.
Box 2: Provide the URL to the development team.
Box 3: Deploy the new package to the Staging slot.
Box 4: Perform VIP SWAP
References:

QUESTION 15
The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and closely held
rea l est at e businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the spread of
A. S technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world. Which of the following is/are of
those factors?
B. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
C. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of the world.
D. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
E. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
When specifying, who is to provide the valuation services to a real estate firm firm, the important distinction
is whether the client is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed by the that
home or other real estate business. The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify based upon
their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment regardless of
impairment the individual’s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working papers and
related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even years- later as they
frequently are
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited partnerships,
professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies registered under the
investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities’ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
70-533 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
The definition of specific business interest of a home business can be broken down into two broad
questions:
1)-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation? By securities in above
context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
In case of a real estate business, valuation of ___________must be specified. For example, the
assignment might include language such as” …engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed
assets, inventory, and goodwill, on a going-concern basis of…”
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
70-533 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which one of the following is NOT always clearly defined? Therefore, if the term is used, it should be
supplemented by a definition of exactly what it means in the given real estate business valuation context.
A. Enterprise value
B. Partial interest
C. Invested capital
D. Securities
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Unfortunately, the term enterprise value is used, at best, very ambiguously and, at worst, very carelessly. It
means different things to different people, each of whom many believe that his or her definition is the right
definition. It is generally used to represent some sort of ________of the company and is often used as a
synonyms for_______.
A. Average value, Market value
B. Aggregate value, Market value of invested capital (MVIC)
C. Partial interest, Aggregate value
D. Specific ownership interest subject to appraisal, Equity or invested capital
70-533 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
The primary ownership interest characteristics that need to be addressed in almost every home business
valuation are the following EXCEPT:
A. Control or minority valuation basis (not necessarily a black-andhite issue ____there may be elements
of control without absolute control
B. Degree of marketability
C. Fair market value
D. Fair market value on a nonmarketable, non-controlling ownership interest basis.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 23
In most business valuations, the opinion of value will be based at least partly on other, similar transactions,
such as:
A. Prices at which stocks are denominated
B. Degree of marketability
C. Prices at which stocks in the same or a related industry are trading in the public market relative to their
earnings, assets, dividends or other relative variables
D. Black-or-white issues
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: C

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