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Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written v5.1
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 732

:https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWczJDVzl1SUJLWms

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the effect of this configuration is true ?
A. The 192.168.2.1/24 network is summarized and advertised as 192.168.2.0/24
B. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the route table on R1 ,but it is missing from its OSPF database.
C. The 192.168.2.1/32 network is missing from the OSPF database and the route table on R1.
D. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the Rl OSPF database , but it is missing from its route table.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface ?
A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use the EUI-64 address format.
B. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface.
C. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.
D. No tunnel destination has been specified.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which two statements about IGMP filtering are true?

A. It eliminates the need for a multicast RP.
B. It can be implemented on Layer-3 routed ports using the ipigmp access-list command.
C. It allows Anycast RP to operate within a single AS.
D. It supports IGMPv3 traffic only
E. It can be implemented on Layer-2 switchports using IGMP profiles.
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What are two ways DHCPv6 guard can mitigate man-in-the-middle attacks?
A. An interface in the server device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
B. An interface in the server device role can drop all DHCPv6 server messages.
C. An interface in the client device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
D. An interface in the server device role can use prefix-lists to filter authorized DCHP reply messages.
E. An interface in the client device role blocks all DCHPv6 server messages by default.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about trunking?
A. DTP only supports autonegotiation on 802.1q and does not support autonegotiation for ISL
B. Cisco switches that run PVST+ do not transmit BPDUS on nonnative VLANs when using a
C. dot1q trunk.
D. DTP os a point-to-point protocol.
E. When removing VLAN 1 from a trunk,management traffic such as CDP is no longer passed in that
VLAN.
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which tunneling method can transmit IPv6 traffic over an MPLS infrastructure?
A. 6RD
B. ISATAP
C. 6to4
D. 6PE
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

A. R1 is performing mutual redistribution,but OSPF routes from R3 are unable to reach R2.
B. The RIP version supports only classful subnet masks.
C. R3 and R1 have the same router 1
D. R1 requires a seed metric to redistribute RIP.
E. R1 and R3 have an MTU mismatch.
F. R2 is configured to offset OSPF routes with a metric of 16.
G. R1 is filtering OSPF routes when redistributing into RIP.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which three factors does Cisco PFR use to calculate the best exit path?(Choose three)
A. Reachability
B. Delay
C. Quality of service
D. Packet size
E. Adminstrative distance
F. Loss
Correct Answer: ABF
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 migration method is in use on this network ?
A. 6to4 tunnel
B. NAT-PT
C. ISATAP tunnel
D. dual stack
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

You are configuring Router1 and Router2 for L2TPv3 tunneling. Which two additional configurations are
required to enable Router1 and Router2 to establish the
tunnel?(choose two)
A. Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under thepseudowire-class R1toR2.
B. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router1.
C. Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2.
D. Cisco Express Fowarding must be disabled on Router1.
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router1.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit .

If R1 generated this response to the show debug command, which statement about its debug its debug
output is true?
A. As soon as interface Fa0/0 becomes active, it generate debug output because one condition has been
met.
B. When debug output is generated, only the user Cisco is permitted to view it.
C. R1 generates debug output as soon as IP address 192.168.0.0 is applied to interface Fa0/0.
D. RI generates debug output as soon as all three conditions are met.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which TCP feature allows a client to request a specific packet that was lost?
A. Selective acknowledge
B. Flow control
C. Fast recovery
D. Sliding window
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Which EIGRP routes will appear in the routing table of R2?
A. 2001:12::/64
B. 2001:112::/64,2001:12::1/64
C. 2001:112::/64,2001:12:1/128
D. 2001:12::1/128
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which description of Infrastructure as a Service is true?
A. a cloud service that delivers on-demand resources like networking and storage.
B. a cloud service that delivers on-demand internet connection between sites
C. a cloud service that delivers on-demand software services on a subscription
D. a cloud service that delivers on-demand internet connection between sites
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Which TCP feature allows a client to request a specific packet that was lost?
A. Flow control
B. Sliding window
C. Fast recovery
D. Selective acknowedgment
400-101 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation

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Exam Code: 70-764
Exam Name: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure (beta)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the key outcome of keeping commitments to users, team members and organizations?
A. It boosts credibility, trust and customer satisfaction
B. It boosts the team’s importance and status
C. It enhances the problem-solving capability of the team
D. It demonstrates dedication to continued service improvement
70-764 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of these options is NOT an element of successful project management?
A. Managing costs
B. Ensuring a continual improvement focus
C. Developing technical solutions
D. Defining project objectives
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of these options is the best way in which you can use formal or informal networks to help
develop your ideas?
A. Recommend holding off-site meetings in a local pub
B. Develop scenarios that will demonstrate how your suggestions and plans will raise every ones
profiles
C. Hold meetings with stakeholders to obtain their support for your proposals
D. Hold meetings with your team to discuss aspects of your proposals
70-764 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4
You are trying to promote the Service Desk through a variety of recognized and effective
channels.
Which of these statements best describes a channel to use?
A. Articles in the local newspaper and Have a Go days
B. Open house days and distributing Service Desk fliers
C. Distributing free pens and Service Desk induction training
D. Induction training and team-building away days
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following statements about Problem Management is correct?
A. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but contributes by identifying
recurring Incidents
B. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but manages Major Incident
reviews
C. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and may be required to work with
technical teams to diagnose Problems
D. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and uses known errors to aid fast
resolution
70-764 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of these options is a primary objective of the Service Asset and Configuration Management
process?
A. To record the ownership of every item of hardware and software in the asset base
B. To ensure that IT services, assets, resources and processes are properly managed and
maintained
C. To clearly identify the business dependencies of each inventory item
D. To map assets into a clear network infrastructure diagram
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following is a key objective of the IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM)
process?
A. To eliminate single points of contact for services
B. To eliminate single points of failure for services
C. To remove critical resources for services
D. To remove long term workarounds for services
70-764 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of these options would be a typical feature of an On-going survey?
A. It is carried out on a six monthly cycle
B. It is executed as soon as possible after a call is closed
C. It is conducted with a minimum of 10 questions to be comprehensive
D. It is designed to show longer term trends in customer satisfaction
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of these options best describes the value of adopting a resource-planning model?
A. It helps even out the handling of calls across the day or shift
B. It quantifies the staffing required to meet SLA and business needs
C. It provides a sound recruitment base for consistent staffing
D. It boosts staff retention
70-764 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
What is the value of telephone support in a Service Desk?
A. First contact resolution
B. Increased turnaround times
C. Reduced abandon rate
D. Skills-based routing
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
Performing a skills gap analysis and identifying appropriate salary levels are preparatory
requirements for what?
A. Service Desk recruitment
B. Service Catalogue definition
C. Service Level Agreement negotiation
D. Skills Matrix creation
70-764 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of these options would be a management activity in directing, controlling and co ordinating
activities?
A. Providing guidance to staff when needed
B. Providing an efficient ergonomic office environment
C. Developing and documenting staff management procedures
D. Developing and implementing an effective IT platform
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of these options is NOT likely to be a role of the Service Desk?
A. To balance support expenses to keep IT support performing at the optimum levels of quality
and cost effectiveness
B. To integrate support goals with business goals
C. To provide individual and personal IT support to each business user
D. To report on service breaches and their reasons
70-764 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
You are explaining the role of the Service Desk to your new analysts. Which of these options best
describes one of the key requirements?
A. The Service Desks role is to provide a high-quality service promptly and consistently
B. The Service Desks role is to resolve users Problems and record all Change Requests
C. The Service Desks role is to initiate other support teams into the Standard Operating
Procedures of the Service Desk
D. The Service Desks role is to act as a single point of contact for all organisational enquiries
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of these options is NOT a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Developing and implementing Service Desk goals that integrate with business objectives
B. Representing the IT organisation to its users
C. Maintaining the highest level of productive IT time for users in accordance with the SLA
D. Providing the user with root cause analysis for Incidents resolved at first level
70-764 dumps Answer: D

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)
Updated: Jul 19, 2017
Q&As: 401

• Layer 2 Technologies 65%
• Infrastructure Security 20%
• Infrastructure Services 15%

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the
device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, local username, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to-MAC address
binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
When you configure private VLANs on a switch, which port type connects the switch to the gateway
router?
A. promiscuous
B. community
C. isolated
D. trunked
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which option is a benefit of using VSS?
A. reduces cost
B. simplifies configuration
C. provides two independent supervisors with two different control planes
D. removes the need for a First Hop Redundancy Protocol
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual
router?
A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the
remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote
switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
A network engineer is installing a switch for temporary workers to connect to. The engineer does not want
this switch participating in Spanning Tree with the rest of the network; however, end user connectivity is
still required. Which spanning-tree feature accomplishes this?
A. BPDUblock
B. BPDUfilter
C. BPDUignore
D. BPDUguard
E. BPDUdisable
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it
receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 11
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a
spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the
local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root
switch.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit,

which statement abort the current configuration on port GigabitEthernet2/0/1 is true?
A. It is an access port configured for a phone and a PC
B. It is a trunk port and the native VLAN is VLAN1
C. It is a trunk port and the natrve VL AN m VLAN 700
D. It is an access port in VLAN 700
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports. A network administrator moves
a PC from one office desk to another. After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port
security on the new network switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into err
disabled mode. Which two factors are possible causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port
B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port
300-115 vce Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20?
(Choose two)
A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
What is the default port security violation
A. log
B. shutdown
C. no change
D. error-disable
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Routing and Switching
Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Total Questions: 97 Q&As
Updated on: Jun 19, 2017
Exam Information: Pass4itsure.com

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Flydumps Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 39
Which of the following console services are enabled by default? (Choose all that apply)
(a)HTTP port 8081
(b)HTTPS port 8082
(c)HTTPS port 8083
(d)SSH port 22
A. a & c only
B. b & d only
C. c & d only
D. a & b only
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which HTTP error code corresponds to the ProxySG default exception identifier icap_error?
A. 403
B. 404
C. 503
D. 401
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
To implement ProxySG as a default gateway, which of the following options has to be enabled?
A. Early intercept
B. Reflect Client IP
C. IP Forwarding
D. Detect Protocol

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
When the DRTR successfully categorizes a site, the site is_______ (Choose all that apply)
(a)added to the static BCWF database on the ProxySG
(b)added to the local database on the ProxySG
(c)added to the DRTR database on the ProxySG
(d)added to a DRTR cache that resides on the ProxySG
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. d only
D. None of the above
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which of the following is a free software based Blue Coat product for home users?
A. Web Filter
B. k9
C. SiteAdvisot

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
When virus scanning functionality is enabled, ProxySG acts as an ICAP server, and ProxyAV as an ICAP client.
A. True
B. False

300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 45
What are the best practices using anti-virus software on a windows machine running Blue Coat Reporter?
A. Do not use anti-virus software as the log files cannot contain viruses
B. Perform scans as you would for any windows server
C. Perform scans only during low activity of ProxySG
D. Perform scans, but bypass certain directories containing frequently changing files

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 46
Is Management Console accessible over HTTP?
A. Yes, it is enabled by default, except in FIPS mode
B. It can be explicitly enabled, the default port is 8081
C. It can be explicitly enabled, the default port is 8082
D. A new service has to be created with port selected by the administrator

300-135 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 47
HTTP Access log format bcreportermain_vl includes the time of the request, URL requested, and MIME type of content, but does not include whether it is cache hit or miss.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 48
Which virus-scanning engine is NOT supported by ProxyAV?
A. MCAfee
B. Sophos
C. Norton
D. Kaspersky E.Panda

300-135 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
Which of the following tracks client-server requests and server responses?
A. Event logs
B. Sys logs
C. Report logs
D. Access logs

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 50
If a proxy server is seen in the external Internet as Web server, it is a forward proxy.
A. True
B. False

300-135 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 51
Which HTTP error code corresponds to the ProxySG default exception identifier icap_error?
A. 403
B. 404
C. 503
D. 401

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 52
What is the name of the Technical SupportWeb site where service requests can be reported?
A. WebPulse
B. BlueTouch Online
C. Blue Coat Professional Services
D. Services@BC

300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 53
What changes, when FIPS mode for Management Console is enabled?
A. FIPS mode improves browser support
B. Management Console can be accessed via TLS-based HTTPS only; some device certification options are changed
C. FIPS mode makes Management Console application faster as the rich client download size decreases

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 54
When Proxy server settings in a browser are configured using WPAD (web Proxy Auto Discovery) protocol, what has to be specifically guaranteed to ensure security?
A. JavaScript on client’s browser must be enabled, otherwise it will not allow to execute proxy configuration script.
B. Hosts (e.g. wpad.mydepartment.mycompany.com, wpad.mycompany.com) should be trusted not to serve malicious wpad.dat files
C. Internet Explorer browser should receive security updates more often than twice a year
D. DHCP must be accessible at the time, when user starts a browser

300-135 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 55
Reporter creates reports that can be saved in the following formats (choose all that apply)
(a)CSV (comma-separated-values) to be opened by Excel
(b)Adobe PDF
(c)HTML
(d)XML
A. a, b & c only
B. a, b & d only
C. a, c & d only
D. b, c & d only
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Jun 07, 2017
Q&As: 61
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QUESTION 23
A recent audit has found that members of the HelpDesk group are able to add new BlackBerry device users to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server using the BlackBerry User Administration tool, but are unable to do so using BlackBerry Manager. The system administrator has confirmed that the HelpDesk group has been assigned the Junior Help Desk Administrator role. What is a possible cause of this problem?(Choose one.)
A. The HelpDesk group is nested in another group that has been assigned a role with higher privileges.
B. The HelpDesk group is using Microsoft SQL authentication.
C. The BlackBerry User Administration tool was installed using the BlackBerry Enterprise Server service
account.
9

D. The BlackBerry User Administration tool is running as a local system account.
E. The Password field for the BlackBerry User Administration tool was left blank during the installation.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
A company must move the BlackBerry Configuration Database from the local BlackBerry Enterprise Server using MSDE to a new Microsoft SQL Server to improve the performance of the database. What is the best method for moving the database? (Choose one.)
A. Install the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software on the new computer to create the database.
B. Back up the database and restore it to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
C. RunCreatedb to create the database on the new Microsoft SQL Server and restore the backup of the old database to the new database.
D. Run BlackBerry Backup to back up the database and restore it to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
E. RunCreatedb-export to export the database information and then run Createdb- import to restore the database to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which type of data packet is being sent when the CICAL service book is used? (Choose one.)
A. Calendar
B. Email message
C. Contact address lookup
D. BlackBerry MDS
E. Enterprise messaging

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
erver02? The Agent ID for the The name of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is BlackBerry device user is ? What is the name of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server log file where browsing information should be found? (Choose one.)
10
A. Server02_ctrl_01_20071201_0001.txt
B. Server02_disp_02_20071201_0001.txt
C. Server02_magt_02_20071201_0001.txt
D. Server02_mdss_01_20071201_0001.txt
E. Server02_mdat_01_20071201_0001.txt

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 27
Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an existing application in a software configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the existing application from the BlackBerry device.
B. Copy and overwrite the existing application into the Shared folder.
C. Index the applications listed in the Applications directory.
D. Refresh the applications listed in the Applications directory.
E. Replace the old application with the new application.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 28
A BlackBerry device user is unable to receive email messages on his BlackBerry device. The following three email message filters are enabled on the BlackBerry device: Forward all email messages sent directly to this user Do not forward email messages sent from *@xyz.com Do not forward all other email messages How would the BlackBerry Enterprise Server process these email message filters? (Choose one.)
A. The most restrictive email message filters first
B. In alphabetical order
C. The oldest date and time modified first
D. The newest modified date and time first
E. In the order they appear

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29
Which BlackBerry Enterprise Server component can be installed remotely? (Choose one.)
11
A. BlackBerry Collaboration Service
B. BlackBerry Dispatcher
C. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
D. BlackBerry Policy Service
E. BlackBerry Synchronization Service

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
A software configuration exists to push Microsoft Office Communicator wirelessly to a group of BlackBerry device users who have unlimited data plans. There is a new group of users with limited data plans. The system administrator has been assigned the task of creating an application white list that allows members of the new group to install Microsoft Office Communicator on their BlackBerry devices, while limiting wireless data usage and without interfering with the original group. Which method best minimizes the administrative work while meeting the tasks criteria? (Choose one.)
A. Using the Edit Configuration feature to modify the existing software configuration, set the delivery method toWireline Only, and assign this software configuration to the new group
B. Using the Add New Configuration feature to create a new software configuration, set the delivery method toWireline Only, and assign software configuration to the new group
C. Using the Copy Configuration feature to create a copy of the existing software configuration, set the delivery method toWireline Only, and assign software configuration to the new group
D. Providing users with instructions on downloading Microsoft Office Communicator from their computers and installing it on their BlackBerry devices using BlackBerry Desktop Manager
E. Providing users with a URL to download and install Microsoft Office Communicator directly from the BlackBerry web site

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
What information is required to add a new BlackBerry Enterprise Server to an existing BlackBerry Domain? (Choose one.)
A. SQL database name for the BlackBerry Configuration Database
B. Host name of the existing BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. SQL database name for the BlackBerry MDS Services databases
D. Name of the BlackBerry Domain
E. SRP and authentication key associated with the existing BlackBerry Enterprise Server 12

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
A company environment has Microsoft Active Directory and five Microsoft Exchange 2003 Servers. What information must the system administrator provide to add a Microsoft Windows domain user to an administrative role on the BlackBerry Manager, without requiring additional credentials for the user to authenticate to the BlackBerry Manager? (Choose one.)
A. Windows login user name
B. Windows login user name\Domain name
C. Domain name\Windows login user name
D. SQL user name and password
E. SQL user name only

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
A system administrator is added to multiple roles in the BlackBerry Manager. Which administrative role governs the tasks which are available to the system administrator? (Choose one.)
A. The first role assigned to the system administrator
B. The last role assigned to the system administrator
C. The system administrator will be assigned to all roles
D. The administrative role with the most tasks
E. The administrative role with the least tasks

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 34
When installing the BlackBerry MDS Integration Service for the first time, the Admin and Publisher accounts are created. Which two statements are true about these roles? (Choose two.)
A. The Admin account can only be used to perform administrative tasks relating to the BlackBerry MDS Integration Service.
B. The Publisher account can only be used to perform administrative tasks relating to the BlackBerry MDS Integration Service.
C. The Admin account is the only account that can publish custom applications to the BlackBerry MDS
application database.
13

D. The Publisher account is the only account that can publish custom applications to the BlackBerry MDS application database.
E. The Admin account can be used to both administer BlackBerry MDS Integration Service and publish custom applications.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 35
Which BlackBerry Resource Kit tool determines how many email messages have been sent to and from all BlackBerry device users?(Choose one.)
A. MessageFlow
B. HistoricalStats
C. AvailIndex
D. Pending
E. BESSysLog

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
A BlackBerry device user is in one user group in BlackBerry Manager. An IT policy has been applied to this group. The system administrator wants to move the user to a different group and apply a different IT policy. Which two methods would accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Open the group information > Select the user > Drag and drop the user to the new group > resend the IT policy to the group
B. Select the user > Assign the user to the new group > Assign the new IT policy to that group
C. Remove the user from one group > Add the user to the new group > Assign the new IT policy to that group
D. Remove and re-add the user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server > Assign the user to the new group > Assign the new IT policy to that group
E. Modify the group name for the user > Assign the new IT policy to the user

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 37
A new BlackBerry device user is unable to perform a wireless enterprise activation because there is insufficient network coverage. The user has the BlackBerry Desktop Manager installed. When attempting to perform a wired enterprise activation, the enterprise activation is unable to initialize.
14
Which three actions ensure the enterprise activation initializes? (Choose three.)
A. Switch to a new USB port on the computer.
B. Enable port 4101 on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. Delete and undelete the Desktop service book on the BlackBerry device.
D. Uninstall and reinstall the BlackBerry Desktop Manager software on the computer.
Correct Answer: ABC

It’s almost like those too-familiar infomercials that get so popular around New Year’s – time to get rid of the fat and add some muscle. Cisco’s done the same to CCNP with today’s announcement of CCNP changes. Cisco starts by removing roughly half the topic breadth from the old CCNP: most every topic from ONT and ISCW is gone. Cisco then adds back a Troubleshooting exam that focuses on routing and switching with a few other topics. Today I’ll begin an examination of this revised cert, with lots of links, some impressions, and a promise to more time in the coming weeks drilling down on the new exams.

CCNP Collaboration Recertification

Cisco Professional-level certifications (CCNP, CCNP Wireless, CCDP, CCSP, CCNP Security, CCNP Voice, CCIP, CCNP Service Provider, CCNP Service Provider Operations, and CCNP Data Center) are valid for three years. To recertify, pass ONE of the following before the certification expiration date:

• Pass any current 642-XXX Professional-level or any 300-XXX Professional-level exam, or
• Pass any current CCIE Written Exam, or
• Pass the current CCDE Written Exam OR current CCDE Practical Exam, or
• Pass the Cisco Certified Architect (CCAr) interview AND the CCAr board review to extend lower certifications

Those who achieve CCNP Routing and Switching have demonstrated the skills required in enterprise roles such as network engineer, support engineer, systems engineer or network technician. The routing and switching protocol knowledge from this certification will provide a lasting foundation as these skills are equally relevant in the physical networks of today and the virtualized network functions of tomorrow.

CCNP – Present Tense in Lead4pass

To begin with, the Cisco certifications are valid for three years. With that being said and some of the exams from the current CCNP track are about to be changed over.
Presently you become CCNP certified by passing the following exams:

Lead4pass >Cisco>CCNP>642-437

• Vendor: Cisco
• Certifications: CCNP
• Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Unified Communications Voice over IP and QoS v8.0 (CVOICE v8.0)
• Exam Code: 642-437
• Total Questions: 256 Q&As
• Last Updated: May 08, 2017

Lead4pass >Cisco>CCNP>642-811

• Vendor: Cisco
• Certifications: CCNP
• Exam Name: Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (BCMSN)
• Exam Code: 642-811
• Total Questions: 263 Q&As

Lead4pass >Cisco>CCNP>642-821

• Vendor: Cisco
• Certifications: CCNP
• Exam Name: Building Cisco Remote Access Networks (BCRAN)
• Exam Code: 642-821
• Total Questions: 249 Q&As

Lead4pass >Cisco>CCNP>642-901

• Vendor: Cisco
• Certifications: CCNP
• Exam Name: Building Scalable Cisco Internetworks
• Exam Code: 642-901
• Total Questions: 473 Q&As
• Last Updated: May 04, 2017

These exams are still available to test out.

Skills Measured by Lead4pass CCNP Certification

Here are the key skill sets validated by Cisco CCNP certification. Cisco Certified Network Professionals can:

• Implement and configure an EIGRP based solution.
• Create a multi-area OSPF Network and configure OSPF routing.
• Implement an eBGP based solution and configure eBGP routing.
• Setup an IPv6 based solution and document implementation results.
• Implement and configure an IPv4 or IPv6 redistribution solution.
• Create Layer 3 Path Control Solutions and broadband connections.
• Determine the necessary resources and implement VLAN based solution.
• Plan and implement a Security Extension of Layer 2 solutions.
• Design and configure Switch based Layer 3 services.
• Implement advanced VoIP, video, and wireless support solutions.
• Implement High Availability and confirm using show & debug commands.
• Maintain the network and develop a plan to monitor performance.
• Troubleshoot Multi Protocol systems, such as EIGRP, NAT and OSPF.

View the Cisco CCNP Certification Exam Objectives for a more complete curriculum. For network engineers who aspire to plan, implement, verify and troubleshoot local and wide-area enterprise networks, the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching certification program provides the education and training required to develop hands-on skills and best-practices. This job-role-focused program utilizes lab-based learning and allows you to maximize your investment in your education and increase the value of your enterprise network.

Is Lead4pass CCNP Certification Right for Me?

A certification in Cisco’s CCNP prepares network professionals on their way to a rewarding career in the Cisco Internetworking field. Cisco related skills are among the most in-demand specializations in the Information Technology and Networking market.

The CCNP Routing and Switching certification program can benefit candidates who have at least one year of networking experience and want to advance their skills to work independently on complex network solutions. Those who achieve CCNP have demonstrated the skills required in enterprise roles such as network technician, support engineer, systems engineer or network engineer.

Taking the CCNP training classes with Satnam Technologies, Inc. prepares one to not only pass the Cisco exam, but to be confident they have the training necessary to handle all the tasks expected of a CCNP (Cisco Certified Network Professional).

Cisco Certified Network Professional (CCNP) Routing and Switching certification validates the ability to plan, implement, verify and troubleshoot local and wide-area enterprise networks and work collaboratively with specialists on advanced security, voice, wireless and video solutions. The CCNP Routing and Switching certification is appropriate for those with at least one year of networking experience who are ready to advance their skills and work independently on complex network solutions.

Other Popular Certifications in Lead4pass.com

As a professional IT exam study material provider, Lead4pass gives you more than just exam questions and answers. We provide our customers with the most accurate study material about the exam and the guarantee of pass. We assist you to prepare for almost all the main certifications which are regarded valuable the IT sector.

Lead4pass Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures exam questions follows the same syllabus followed by actual Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures certification exam, we also constantly upgrade our Cisco Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures exam questions so you always get the best and updated 300-320 exam information.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Exam Code: 300-320
Total Questions: 304 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 21, 2017
Exam Information:https://www.leads4pass.com/300-320.html

Recommended Equipment

• Cisco design series is more conceptual in nature.

300-320 Exam Related Certifications

• Cisco Certified Design Professional (CCDP)

Related Job Functions

• Enterprise network design
• Network design consultant
• Cisco best practices in network design

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QUESTION 22
Which specific call direction setting applies to a BlackBerry device calling into the PBX when the BlackBerry MVS user is making a Voice over Mobile call to an external number? (Choose one.)
A. Incoming Calls: PBX ? BlackBerry device
B. Outgoing Calls:PBX ? BlackBerry device
C. Outgoing Calls: BlackBerrydevice ? PBX
D. Incoming Calls: BlackBerrydevice ? PBX
E. Outgoing Calls: BlackBerrydevice ? PSTN

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
What allows the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager to initiate outbound calls from a particular ANI? (Choose one.)
A. Configuration of an additional SIP Trunk on the PBX
B. Configuration of the SIP Line port on the BlackBerry MVS Console
C. Configuring the PBX dial plan to allow calls to route to the BlackBerry MVS Server
D. Setting up a user BlackBerry device as a valid BlackBerry device on thePBXSetting up a user? BlackBerry device as a valid BlackBerry device on the PBX
E. Adding the BlackBerry MVS Server to an administrative role on the PBX
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which caller lists can be utilized in BlackBerry MVS? (Choose one.)
A. Extension callers, DID callers
B. Preferred caller list, no call list
C. Emergency callers list, blocked callers list
D. Personal callers list, enterprise callers list
E. Allowed callers list, blocked callers list

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
How should an MVS administrator verify on the BlackBerry device that a BlackBerry MVS user has been successfully provisioned for Voice over Wi-Fi calls? (Choose one.)
A. Click Options Advanced Options BlackBerry MVS Status BlackBerry MVS Client. Verify that a check mark appears beside the Sent Registration field
B. ClickOptions Advanced Options BlackBerry MVS Status Provisioning Status. Verify that a check mark appears beside the Voice over Mobile Provisioned field
C. Click Options Advanced Options BlackBerry MVS Status Provisioning Status. Verify that a check mark appears beside the BlackBerry MVS administrator field
D. Click Manage Connections ServiceStatus Wi-Fi Options. Verify that a check mark appears beside the Wi-Fi profile the BlackBerry device is connected to

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
BlackBerry MVS users are reporting that the quality of Wi-Fi calls is insufficient. Which option on the BlackBerry device can be used to help troubleshoot the Wi-Fi signal? (Choose one.)
A. Coverage viewer
B. Wi-Fi troubleshooting
C. Wi-Fi survey
D. Wi-Fi diagnostics

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which mechanism enables a BlackBerry MVS administrator to allow Voice over Wi-Fi calling on pushed Wi-Fi profiles? (Choose one.)  300-320 exam
A. Templates
B. BlackBerry MVS Session Managerconfiguration
C. Administrative roles
D. Class of service
E. Wi-Fi profile assignment on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is the effect of adding a number to a BlackBerry MVS user blocked caller list? (Choose one.)What is the effect of adding a number to a BlackBerry MVS user blocked caller list? (Choose one.)
A. Calls made to the blocked number from the user will fail “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – 100% Guaranteed 11 BlackBerry BCP-520: Practice Exam
B. Calls made to the user from the blocked number will receive a message indicating that the user is not available
C. Calls made to the user from the blocked number will fail
D. Calls made to the user from the blocked number will be redirected to the auto attendant
E. Calls made to the user from the blocked number will ring the desk phone but not the BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
A BlackBerry MVS user complains about not receiving the MWI when a caller leaves a voicemail. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)
A. MWI is prevented by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server IT Policy
B. MWI Notifications is disabled from the BlackBerry MVS Console
C. There is insufficient wireless signal strength to receive the MWI
D. The voicemail connector was not set up
E. The user is using unsolicited voicemail

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 30
Which two of the following components are used when a BlackBerry MVS user makes an internal call over Wi-Fi? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. SIP Trunk
C. BlackBerry MVS Console
D. PSTN Voice Gateway
E. BlackBerry MVS Session Manager

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 31
How should a BlackBerry MVS administrator disable the ability for a single BlackBerry MVS user to transfer MVS calls? (Choose one.)
A. Select ManageUsers ? Click on User ? Template tab
B. Select ManageUsers ? Click on User ? Class of Service tab
C. Select ManageUsers ? Click on User ? Transfer tab
D. Select Manage SessionManagers ? Click on User ? Transfer box
E. Select ManageUsers Click on User General tab
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
What is the required format of the DID/DDI number for BlackBerry device-initiated calling? (Choose one.)
A. E.164
B. North American Numbering Plan
C. 7 Digit Numbering Plan
D. 10 Digit Numbering Plan
E. Numbering plan of your Central Office

Correct Answer: A

It is an indicator of expertise working with techniques that have lower than 100 nodes which validate one’s chance to work in small and mid-sized organizations and companies that use less extensive networks; represents a need for obtaining advanced-stage Cisco 300-320 exam certification.

We are offering you detailed CCDP 300-320 exam. Cisco experts come from different parts of the Industry and are most experienced and qualified to have the opportunity to write the CCDP 300-320 exam material. Our Cisco CCDP ARCH 300-320 practice exam Q&As are even more difficult than the actual test.

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Here, candidates can get VMware 2V0-620 pdf questions answers that are prepared by the expert faculty. This study guide is designed as per VMware Certified Professional 6 – Data Center Virtualization test engine with free 2V0-620 pdf. Choose the most eligible site that offers the online services of for all type of VMware Certified Professional 2V0-620 practice exam and VMware 2V0-620 test questions.

Exam Code: 2V0-620
Exam Name: vSphere 6 Foundations Beta
Updated: Mar 27, 2017
Q&As: 197
Duration: 115 minutes
Associated Certification: VCP6-DCV, VCP6-CMA, VCP6-DTM, VCP6-NV
Number of Questions: 65
Exam Product: vSphere Version: 6
Passing Score: 300
Recommended Training: vSphere: Install, Configure, Manage
Validated Against: vSphere 6
Exam prices change on 1 April 2017.
Exam Languages: English
First Available Appointment: 31 August 2015
Format: Single and Multiple Choice, Non-Proctored, Online
Exam Details Last Updated: 1 September 2015

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QUESTION 40
Which two parameters are required when adding an iSCSI target to an iSCSI Software Adapter using
Dynamic Discovery? (Choose two.)
A. The iSCSI device’s IP Address or Fully Qualified Domain Name
B. The Port Number
C. The iSCSI device’s iSCSI Qualified Name (IQN)
D. The Default Gateway IP Address
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 41
What is true regarding datastores on ESXi 6.x?
A. NFS 4.1 datastore does not support Fault Tolerance (FT)
B. VMFS3 and VMFS5 datastores can be newly created
C. NFS datastore can be concurrently mounted using NFS 4.1 on one host and NFS on another
D. NFS 3.0 datastore does not support Fault Tolerance (FT)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Which type of Adapter does not require vmkernel networking?
A. Independent Hardware iSCSI Adapter
B. Dependent Hardware iSCSI Adapter
C. Software iSCSI Adapter
D. Software FCoE Adapter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43
What are two benefits of using NFS 4.1 with vSphere 6.x as compared to NFS 3? (Choose two.)
A. NFS 4.1 supports Kerberos Authentication
B. NFS 4.1 supports multipathing
C. NFS 4.1 supports IPv6
D. NFS 4.1 supports hardware acceleration
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 44
Which two storage controller configurations can be used with Virtual SAN? (Choose two.)
A. SAS controllers in Passthrough mode
B. SAS controllers in RAID0 mode
C. SAS controllers in RAID1 mode
D. SAS controllers in RAID10 mode
Correct Answer: AB

2V0-620 pdf QUESTION 45
A company has decided to implement Virtual SAN within their vSphere 6.x environment. The Virtual SAN
cluster will be composed of three ESXi 6.x hosts that are on the Virtual SAN Ready Node list.
Each ESXi host includes:
Two SAS Controllers that support Passthrough Mode
Four Solid State Drives (SSDs) 1TB in size each
20 SAS Magnetic Disks (MDs) 1TB in size each
The SSDs and MDs are evenly split between the two SAS controllers
The company will pilot a Virtual SAN cluster utilizing VMware best practices while maximizing storage
capacity. The Virtual SAN cluster will use Manual Mode.
Which two Disk Group configurations would meet the stated configuration requirements? (Choose two.)
A. 4 disk groups with 1 SSD and 5 MDs each
B. 2 disk groups with 1 SSD and 7 MDs each
C. 2 disk groups with 2 SSDs and 7 MDs each
D. 2 disk groups with 1 SSD and 10 MDs each
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 46
An administrator is creating a new Virtual SAN cluster on a Layer 2 network. There is an existing Virtual
SAN cluster on the same Layer 2 network.
Which two actions would allow the new Virtual SAN cluster to coexist with the older cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Change the default Multicast Address on the new Virtual SAN cluster.
B. Change the default Unicast Address on the new Virtual SAN Cluster.
C. Create a separate VLAN for each cluster.
D. Create an ARP Alias for the Virtual SAN VMkernel Network Adapter.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 47
Which two Virtual SAN related actions might start resynchronization of virtual machine objects? (Choose
two.)
A. Editing a virtual machine storage policy to increase the number of replicas.
B. Editing a virtual machine storage policy to reduce the number of replicas.
C. Editing a virtual machine storage policy to increase the number of disk stripes.
D. Editing a virtual machine storage policy to reduce the number of disk stripes.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 48
Which two NFS Protocol versions does vSphere 6 support? (Choose two.)
A. Version 3
B. Version 3.1
C. Version 4
D. Version 4.1
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 49
An administrator attempts to create a Thick Provisioned Virtual Disk (VMDK) on an NFS datastore; but it
fails.
Which two reasons would explain the failure? (Choose two.)
A. Datastore is on an NFS 3 storage server that does not support Hardware Acceleration
B. Datastore is on an NFS 4.1 storage server
C. Only VMFS datastores support “Thick Provisioned” VMDK
D. The NFS datastore was not created on a “Thick Provisioned” device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 50
What condition would prevent an administrator from creating a new VMFS3 datastore on an ESXi 6.x host
using the vSphere Web Client?
A. A VMFS3 datastore cannot be created on an ESXi 6.x host.
B. The VMFS3 kernel module is not loaded.
C. A VMFS3 datastore cannot be mounted on an ESXi 6.x host.
D. VMFS3 datastores are not compatible with virtual machines created on an ESXi 6.x host.
Correct Answer: A

2V0-620 pdf QUESTION 51
Which two statements are true about VMFS5 datastores on ESXi 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Disk (VMDK) size can be larger than 2TB.
B. Datastore extent size can be larger than 2TB.
C. Only Physical Mode Raw Device Map (Passthrough-RDM) can be larger than 2TB.
D. 2MB block size is required to support larger than 2TB file size.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 52
Which three conditions would prevent Storage I/O Control from being enabled on a group of datastores?
(Choose three.)
A. The datastores planned for the solution are used by different vSphere clusters.
B. A datastore planned for the solution is configured as a Raw Device Mapping file.
C. A datastore planned for the solution has three extents.
D. A datastore planned for the solution is configured as NFS.
E. The organization has an Enterprise license.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 53
When is it possible to place a VMFS5 datastore in maintenance mode?
A. When it is a member of a Storage DRS cluster
B. When it is a member of Virtual SAN cluster
C. When it is a member of a multi-extent datastore
D. When it is a member of a Virtual Volume
Correct Answer: A

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One of the characterizing components of Lead2exam Cisco 200-310 Designing for Cisco Internet work Solutions is the capacity to try out the material before you even purchase it. We permit you to download free examples of the majority of our Cisco 200-310 practice test, 200-310 PDF, 200-310 dumps and 200-310 specimen inquiries to empower you to settle on an educated choice about whether to continue with the buy.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDA
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Exam Code: 200-310
Total Questions: 295 Q&As
Last Updated: Mar 02, 2017
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/ccda.html

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QUESTION 13
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)
A. employees
B. geography
C. applications
D. administration
E. throughput
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Which network layer is the best fit for security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?
A. campus core
B. enterprise edge
C. campus distribution
D. remote-access VPN
E. enterprise data center
F. campus access
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 15
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood
external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a
particular application data flow across the network?
A. cRTP
B. IEEE 802.1P
C. RSVP
D. LFI
E. Auto QOS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules,
as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two
submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center
E. MAN
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include
data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according
to interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which
tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular
Correct Answer: B

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cisco certification 300-101 pdf route questions

cisco certification 300-101 route questions are available. The ROUTE 300-101 exam certifies the routing knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in using advanced IP addressing and routing in implementing scalable and highly secure Cisco routers that are connected to LANs, WANs, and IPv6.

cisco certification 300-101 pdf route questions objectives are below.

10% 1.0 Network Principles

1.1 Identify Cisco Express Forwarding concepts
1.1.a FIB
1.1.b Adjacency table
1.2 Explain general network challenges
1.2.a Unicast
1.2.b Out-of-order packets
1.2.c Asymmetric routing
1.3 Describe IP operations
1.3.a ICMP Unreachable and Redirects
1.3.b IPv4 and IPv6 fragmentation
1.3.c TTL
1.4 Explain TCP operations
1.4.a IPv4 and IPv6 (P)MTU
1.4.b MSS
1.4.c Latency
1.4.d Windowing
1.4.e Bandwidth-delay product
1.4.f Global synchronization
1.5 Describe UDP operations
1.5.a Starvation
1.5.b Latency
1.6 Recognize proposed changes to the network
1.6.a Changes to routing protocol parameters
1.6.b Migrate parts of the network to IPv6
1.6.c Routing protocol migration

10% 2.0 Layer 2 Technologies

2.1 Configure and verify PPP
2.1.a Authentication (PAP, CHAP)
2.1.b PPPoE (client side only)
2.2 Explain Frame Relay
2.2.a Operations
2.2.b Point-to-point
2.3.c Multipoint

Cisco 300-101 Exam Question Answers

The CCNP Routing and Switching certification is appropriate for those with at least one year of networking experience who are ready to advance their skills and work independently on complex network solutions. Those who achieve CCNP Routing and Switching have demonstrated the skills required in enterprise roles such as network engineer, support engineer, systems engineer or network technician.

So it’s that time again for me to renew my Cisco Certifications. As a result, this post will be based on my preparation for the CCNP Route Exam (300-101 exam).
In this post I will be focusing on Named EIGRP
EIGRP IPv6 and Named EIGRP
– Major difference between EIGRP IPv4 and EIGRP named configuration is how interfaces are configured to participate in EIGRP
– Configuration uses a hierarchical model
– All commands are entered in one place
– Named EIGRP requires fewer commands than regular EIGRP
Beginning January 30, 2017, 300-101 dumps ROUTE, 300-115 SWITCH and 300-135 TSHOOT exams will be the only exams available for registration.
Now, candidates can get 300-101 vce ROUTE information with the following links: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-101.html